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Question 1
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing her pain with regular paracetamol. However, she has reported feeling nauseous. What would be the most suitable initial anti-emetic medication to prescribe for her?
Your Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Cyclizine is a recommended first-line anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting caused by intracranial or intra-vestibular issues, as well as for managing gastrointestinal obstruction in palliative care. Domperidone is effective for gastro-intestinal pain in palliative care, as it stimulates gastric muscle contraction by blocking dopamine inhibition. Metoclopramide is useful for acute migraine, chemotherapy or radiotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, but is unlikely to relieve nausea related to increased intracranial pressure. Ondansetron is indicated for preventing and treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is often the first choice steroid in palliative care, as it can treat multiple symptoms including nausea, anorexia, spinal cord compression, and liver capsule pain. If the patient’s nausea is due to raised intracranial pressure, cyclizine should be the first-line option, but dexamethasone may also be considered as an additional treatment.
Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing
Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.
For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.
NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is scheduled for a CT scan with intravenous contrast as part of his medical evaluation. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and depression. The patient is currently taking the following medications:
- Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
- Metformin 1g twice daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once nightly
- Citalopram 20 mg once daily
According to the BNF guidelines, what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding his metformin treatment?Your Answer: No need to stop metformin
Correct Answer: Discontinue on the day of the scan and restart after 48 hours
Explanation:Metformin should not be taken on the day of a procedure involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media, and it should also be avoided for 48 hours following the procedure.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl with profound learning disabilities is brought to her General Practitioner for her annual review. She is non-verbal and requires help with all personal care. She has recently moved into a care home and is accompanied by an experienced carer. She raises concerns that the patient might be depressed, as she has noticed behaviours common to other depressed patients in her care.
Which of the following features of depression is most likely to present in someone with a moderate-to-severe learning disability?Your Answer: Inability to concentrate
Correct Answer: Psychomotor retardation
Explanation:Identifying Depression in Individuals with Learning Disabilities
Individuals with learning disabilities may present with symptoms of depression, including psychomotor retardation, disturbed sleep, loss of appetite, loss of weight, and diurnal variation in symptoms. The Glasgow Depression Scale for learning disabilities and the Glasgow Depression Scale carer’s supplement can be used to assess these symptoms. However, some criteria for depression, such as feelings of worthlessness or guilt, may be difficult to assess without a certain level of developmental comprehension and communication. Lack of concentration and subjective reduction in energy may also be present. Suicidal ideation is challenging to assess in individuals with limited conceptual and language skills, and physical or behavioral cues may be the only indicators of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 4
Correct
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You receive a fax through from urology. One of your patients in their 50s with a raised PSA recently underwent a prostatic biopsy. The report reads as follows:
Adenocarcinoma prostate, Gleason 3+4
Which one of the following statements regarding the Gleason score is incorrect?Your Answer: The lower the Gleason score the worse the prognosis
Explanation:Prognosis of Prostate Cancer Based on Gleason Score
Prostate cancer prognosis can be predicted using the Gleason score, which is determined through histology following a hollow needle biopsy. The Gleason score is based on the glandular architecture seen on the biopsy and is calculated by adding the most prevalent and second most prevalent patterns observed. This results in a Gleason grade ranging from 1 to 5, which is then added together to obtain a Gleason score ranging from 2 to 10. The higher the Gleason score, the worse the prognosis for the patient. Therefore, the Gleason score is an important factor in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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Johnny is an 8-year-old boy who presents with a mild fever, rash on the hands and feet, and oral ulcers. You inform his parents that he is likely suffering from hand, foot & mouth disease. They inquire about how long he should stay home from school?
Your Answer: No restriction
Explanation:Children with hand, foot and mouth disease do not need to be excluded from childcare or school.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of intravenous drug use and unprotected sex. During pre-test counselling, you have an in-depth conversation about the disease.
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is inaccurate?
Select ONE choice only.Your Answer: The risk of acquiring HIV through a percutaneous needle-stick injury is 0.3%
Correct Answer: HIV testing may give false positive results in the first 3 months after exposure
Explanation:HIV Testing Guidelines and Statistics in the UK
The BHIVA/BASHH/BIS UK National Guidelines for HIV Testing recommend using the latest 4th generation tests, which detect HIV antibodies and p24 antigen simultaneously. These tests can detect HIV in the majority of individuals 4 weeks after exposure. However, a further test at 8 weeks should be considered for events with a high risk of infection. It is important to note that false negative results can occur in the first 8 weeks, but false positive results are not common during this time. In 2011, around 96,000 people were living with HIV in the UK, and approximately 25% of them were unaware of their infection. It is crucial to follow the recommended testing guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. She reports frequent urine leakage and a strong urge to urinate that she cannot control. She denies experiencing dysuria or hematuria and has no gastrointestinal symptoms. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen, and urinalysis is normal. The patient drinks seven glasses of water per day and avoids caffeinated beverages. She has a BMI of 20.2 and is a non-smoker. If non-pharmacological interventions fail, what is the first-line medication for her condition?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Treatment options for Urinary Urge Incontinence
Urinary urge incontinence is a common condition that can be treated with supervised bladder training for at least six weeks. This training can be provided by a continence nurse, physiotherapist, or urology clinic. If symptoms persist, an Antimuscarinic drug can be prescribed, with the lowest effective dose used and titrated upwards if necessary. It may take up to four weeks for the drug to take effect, and side effects such as dry mouth and constipation may occur. First-line drugs include oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin.
It is important to note that diuretics such as furosemide can potentially worsen symptoms of urinary urge incontinence. Amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition, as it is primarily used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis. Duloxetine may be used as a second-line treatment for stress incontinence, but it is not included in NICE guidelines for urinary urge incontinence. Desmopressin is typically used for other conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and bleeding disorders.
In summary, supervised bladder training and Antimuscarinic drugs are effective treatment options for urinary urge incontinence. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 4 months.
Upon examination, the left scrotum is visibly enlarged and transilluminates. The swelling is soft to the touch and doesn't cause any pain. The testis cannot be fully palpated due to the presence of fluid.
What would be the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Even though the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient later would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound confirms the absence of malignancy. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. Although a unilateral hydrocele can be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the first-line investigation in this scenario. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are caused by the patency of the processus vaginalis, which allows peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The features of a hydrocele include a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum, and it can be transilluminated with a pen torch. The testis may be difficult to palpate if the hydrocele is large. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation (e.g. ultrasound) is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be beneficial?
Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Dysthymia
Explanation:St John’s Wort for Depression: Clinical Evidence and Considerations
There is clinical evidence to support the use of St John’s wort in treating mild to moderate depression and dysthymia. However, the active ingredient and mechanism of action are still unclear from the latest psychiatry evidence. Hyperforin is responsible for St John’s wort’s enzyme induction effect, but it is not yet shown to be directly active in lifting mood.
A Cochrane review of 29 clinical trials found that St John’s wort was superior to placebo for treating mild to moderate depression but not severe depression. However, most of the studies were from German-speaking countries, and some were small. There is also evidence for efficacy in Gram-negative infection and improving symptoms in Parkinson’s disease. However, there is no reference for its use in multiple sclerosis (MS).
It is important to note that the latest NICE guidance on depression advises against prescribing or advising St John’s wort due to the differing potencies of different formulations and potentially serious interactions with other medicines, such as anticonvulsants and the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is crucial to ask patients if they are taking any herbal or natural remedies and dispel the myth that natural and safe are synonymous.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the years. He complains of weak urinary stream, prolonged voiding, straining, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. He denies any visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction and is not taking any regular medication. His urine dipstick test is normal, and blood tests reveal a PSA level of 3.2 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is about the size of a clementine (approximately 65 cc). He reports having received lifestyle advice in the past regarding his fluid intake, but his symptoms remain bothersome, with an IPSS score of 27 and a self-reported quality of life as terrible. What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD
Explanation:Treatment options for Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS) in men with an enlarged prostate
Digital rectal examination reveals a prostate about the size of a clementine (approx 65 cc). For bothersome LUTS, NICE advises drug treatment if conservative measures are unsuccessful or inappropriate. An alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) should be offered for moderate to severe LUTS. If LUTS are accompanied by an enlarged prostate (>30 g) or a PSA >1.4 ng/mL, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride) should also be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs (such as oxybutynin) can be used to manage storage symptoms/overactive bladder symptoms. In this case, an elderly gentleman with severe obstructive LUTS, an enlarged prostate, and a PSA >1.4 ng/mL would benefit from both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. The patient should be reviewed regularly to monitor progress and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney
Explanation:Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion
Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.
Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You have collected blood pressure data of patients given a new medication being tested as a treatment for hypertension. The data includes the patient's initial blood pressure reading, followed by a second measurement taken 10 minutes after administering the medication.
Upon initial analysis, it was found that the differences between the two measurements do not conform to a normal distribution.
What statistical test would be the most suitable to determine if there is a significant difference between the blood pressure readings before and after the administration of the new medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is the most appropriate non-parametric test to use when comparing two sets of paired observations on a single sample, such as a ‘before’ and ‘after’ test on the same population following an intervention. This test ranks the differences between the values and determines whether they are likely to come from the same population. The paired sample t-test is not appropriate for non-normally distributed data, the Mann-Whitney U test is not used for paired data, and one-way ANOVA is used for comparing means of parametric data with more than two groups.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches and unilateral sensorineural deafness. She reports that her headaches have started recently and are accompanied by vomiting and a change in posture. Additionally, she experiences pulse synchronous tinnitus and feels that her headaches are becoming more severe.
Upon examination, there is no papilloedema and her blood pressure is within normal limits. The patient has been taking oral contraceptive pills for the past five years.
What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) (to be performed within 2 weeks)
Explanation:Suspected Intracranial Tumour in a Middle-Aged Woman
The patient in question is a middle-aged woman who is showing signs of a unilateral Intracranial tumour, such as an acoustic neuroma. However, given her age, a more aggressive cerebellopontine angle tumour may be more likely. The absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of an Intracranial tumour.
According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access MRI or CT scan should be considered within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer. While admitting the patient as an emergency may be a practical option, adhering to NICE guidance suggests that an urgent direct access MRI is the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a bacterial cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eyes glued together in the morning by discharge
Explanation:Understanding Conjunctivitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin layer that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. While viral conjunctivitis is more common in children, bacterial conjunctivitis is less common but more prevalent in adults. The most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis are Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis, while adenovirus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis.
Symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis include itchy eyes, mucopurulent discharge, and a positive history of infectious conjunctivitis. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a watery discharge and the presence of follicles. Bacterial conjunctivitis is usually bilateral, but if symptoms persist on one side, a review of the diagnosis is necessary.
There is an ongoing debate about the use of antibiotics in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, as the condition is self-limiting, and the benefits of antibiotics are marginal. Current guidelines do not recommend staying away from school or work.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for conjunctivitis is crucial in managing the condition effectively. If you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention promptly to receive the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old otherwise healthy young man presents with a problem with recurrent boils.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasal carriage of staphylococci
Explanation:Understanding Boils: Causes, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options
Boils, also known as furuncles, are a common skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. They typically occur in adolescents and young adults, particularly in males. Recurrent infections may be caused by persistent nasal carriage of the bacteria. While the link between diabetes and multiple boils is unclear, individuals with diabetes may experience more extensive boils. Other risk factors include obesity, immunosuppression, skin diseases, poor hygiene, and exposure to chemicals or oils.
To prevent recurrent infections, swabs should be taken from various sites to identify the source of the bacteria. If Panton-Valentine leukocidin Staphylococcus aureus (PVL-SA) or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected, specialist advice should be sought. Nasal carriage of staphylococci can be treated with a chlorhexidine and neomycin cream, although re-colonization is common. Antiseptics can also be used to reduce bacteria on the skin.
Overall, maintaining good hygiene practices, such as daily washing and bathing in antiseptic solutions, can help prevent and treat boils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man has a BMI of 32.6 kg/m2, smokes thirty cigarettes daily, and drinks four pints of beer in his local pub every week. He is on the pub darts team and claims it is the only exercise he wants or needs.
He has recently been diagnosed with diabetes by his GP and has been commenced on a diet. He has been told to see you for information regarding foot care.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Types of Diabetes
There are two major types of diabetes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin and typically affects children. Patients with type 1 diabetes are thin, lose weight, and are treated with insulin. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes affects an older age group and is associated with weight gain (obesity). It is usually treated with diet and/or drugs. Although not inherited in any mendelian fashion, type 2 diabetes has a familial occurrence due to the body type of the family. Iatrogenic diabetes is caused by medical treatments, while mitochondrial diabetes is a very rare form of diabetes resulting from damage to mitochondrial DNA. Finally, secondary diabetes occurs as a consequence of another disease.
It is important to differentiate between the types of diabetes as this guides treatment. Patients with type 1 diabetes require insulin, while those with type 2 diabetes may initially be treated with diet and/or drugs but may eventually require insulin. Understanding the cause of diabetes is also important in determining the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man has cerebrovascular disease and his memory has been getting slowly worse for the past three years. He is diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm and ideally should have an operation.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should ask his family to consent on his behalf
Explanation:Presumption of Capacity in Medical Decision Making
In medical decision making, it is important to work on the presumption that every adult patient has the capacity to make decisions about their care. This means that you should not assume that a patient lacks capacity based on their age, disability, appearance, behavior, medical condition, beliefs, or apparent inability to communicate. Instead, you should provide all appropriate help and support to help the patient understand, retain, use, and weigh up the information needed to make a decision.
In order to maximize the patient’s ability to make a decision, you should share information in a way that the patient can understand, at a time and place when they are best able to retain it. You should also involve other members of the healthcare team if appropriate, and give the patient time to reflect before and after making a decision. It is important to provide information in a balanced way without pressuring the patient to accept your advice or recommendation.
In the scenario where a patient has poor memory, you should advise him of the risks and benefits and alternative options, and see if he is able to understand and weigh this up in his mind. You should not assume he lacks capacity just because of his memory, and nor should you involve his family in the decision. Instead, assume he has capacity to make a decision unless you are convinced otherwise. By following these principles, you can ensure that medical decision making is based on the presumption of capacity and respects the patient’s autonomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his face. He sustained a cut on his forehead while playing basketball. During the examination, it is observed that the redness is spreading towards his eye, and he has a temperature of 37.9ºC. The patient has no known allergies to any medication.
What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
Explanation:For the treatment of cellulitis around the eyes or nose, the recommended antibiotic is co-amoxiclav, which is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. This is because amoxicillin alone doesn’t provide sufficient coverage against the broad spectrum of bacteria that can cause facial cellulitis, which can lead to serious complications such as orbital involvement. Doxycycline is not the first-line medication for this condition, but may be considered if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Erythromycin is another option for penicillin-allergic patients, but it doesn’t offer the same broad coverage as co-amoxiclav.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.
For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father who reports that he has been experiencing nocturnal coughing for the past three months. The father has observed that his son frequently wakes up at night due to coughing fits. Despite two previous rounds of antibiotics, the cough has not improved. The child is generally healthy, has a good appetite, and has met all developmental milestones for his age. On examination, there are no notable findings. What would be your plan of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitored initiation of metered dose inhaler (short acting beta agonist ) with spacer
Explanation:Managing Suspected Asthma in Children
Asthma is a possible diagnosis in children with a family history of atopy. If a child cannot perform spirometry, management options depend on their symptoms. Asymptomatic children may be monitored, while symptomatic children may be offered a carefully monitored trial of treatment. Oral bronchodilators and cough suppressants are not effective, and further antibiotics are futile. Nebulised bronchodilators are only appropriate during an acute attack. A trial of inhaled bronchodilators (MDI with spacer) may be justified, but establishing the diagnosis should be the top priority. It is unlikely that a four-year-old child would be able to perform spirometry successfully with reversibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits the GP clinic after waking up unable to move the left side of his face. His wife observed slight drooling from the left side and difficulty fully closing his left eyelid. He has no significant medical history. Which symptom is most consistent with Bell's palsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paralysis of whole face of the affected side
Explanation:Bell’s palsy results in complete paralysis on one side of the face as it affects the lower motor neurones. In contrast, upper motor neurone-related conditions like stroke spare the forehead, which exhibits some wrinkling due to the bilateral nerve innervation of the forehead by upper motor neurones.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient with Addisons disease phones the surgery for advice.
He feels mildly unwell with a sore throat and a temperature of 37.8 degrees. There is no vomiting, no headache and no diarrhoea. He says that his children and wife have recently been unwell with a similar illness, thought to be viral in origin and that they have since fully recovered.
He asks for advice about his medication.
What would you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should take double the usual dose of both fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone
Explanation:Managing Addison’s Disease: The Importance of Sick Day Rules
Managing Addison’s disease can be challenging, especially for general practitioners who may have limited exposure to its management. However, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the sick day rules to prevent catastrophic consequences of mismanagement in primary care. The Addisons Clinical Advisory Panel has produced an excellent guide for GPs, which outlines the sick day rules that patients must follow.
The sick day rules include doubling the normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. For severe nausea often accompanied by a headache, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids. In case of vomiting, patients should use the emergency injection (100 mg hydrocortisone) immediately and call a doctor, stating Addison’s emergency. After a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock.
It is also essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication and that they have checked the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition effectively and prevent any potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In a 20-year-old man with generalised tonic-clonic seizures, what is the most effective initial oral treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valproate
Explanation:First-Line Treatments for Epilepsy: A Guide
When it comes to treating epilepsy, it’s important to choose the right medication for the specific type of seizure. While topiramate is often used as a first-line treatment, there isn’t enough evidence to support its effectiveness. Phenobarbital is no longer recommended due to its side effects, and phenytoin can cause problems with long-term use. For primary generalized epilepsy, lamotrigine and valproate are the preferred options, although lamotrigine can worsen myoclonic seizures. Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can also be used, but may exacerbate myoclonic or absence seizures. For partial seizures, carbamazepine or lamotrigine are the first-line treatments, with levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, or sodium valproate as alternatives if needed. By choosing the right medication, patients with epilepsy can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect
Explanation:Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects
Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.
While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.
In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not yet developed much speech. His ears seem abnormally large and he has a long thin face. He is quite an overactive child.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome, ADHD, Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness are genetic disorders that affect individuals in different ways. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both boys and girls, causing learning difficulties, delayed development, and other symptoms such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, autistic spectrum disorder, and speech problems. ADHD is a combination of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning and/or development. Down Syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, physical abnormalities, and a low IQ due to an additional chromosome 21. Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting connective tissue, resulting in skeletal, skin, cardiac, aortic, ocular, and dura mater malformations. Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness is most commonly inherited by autosomal-recessive genes, and children have a normal appearance and IQ. Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic. Despite maintaining a stable INR for the past 3 years on the same dose of warfarin, his INR is found to be 5.4. What is the most probable cause of this sudden change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:St John’s Wort induces the P450 enzyme system, which results in a decrease in the INR instead of an increase.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years. The ulcers typically heal in just over a week, and she remains symptom-free until the next recurrence. She denies any associated symptoms or rash, and her father had a similar history as a teenager. She doesn't smoke and denies excessive alcohol use or drug use. Although there is no dental or periodontal disease, she has three discrete, 4-mm-round ulcers with inflammatory haloes on the buccal mucosa.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apthous ulcers
Explanation:There are several types of oral ulcers that can occur. Recurrent aphthous ulcers are the most common, affecting up to 66% of people at some point in their life. These ulcers appear on movable oral tissue and can recur frequently. Treatment options include topical corticosteroids, antimicrobial mouthwash, and topical analgesics. Herpes simplex stomatitis is another type of oral ulcer that mostly affects children and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include fever, malaise, and painful intraoral vesicles that can lead to ulcers. Oral candidiasis, or thrush, presents as white patches on the oral mucosa and tongue that can be wiped off to reveal a raw, erythematous base. Oral hairy leukoplakia is a white patch on the side of the tongue with a hairy appearance that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus and usually occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Oral lichen planus presents as a symmetrical, white, lace-like pattern on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and gums, and may be accompanied by erosions and ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 10-year-old daughter to see the GP regarding a rash that developed after being bitten by a horsefly on her left arm while playing in the garden. The child developed multiple red rashes on her body and limbs within fifteen minutes, which were itchy and uncomfortable. The mother promptly gave her daughter cetirizine syrup, and the rash went down by the evening. The child has no history of allergies or any other symptoms.
During examination, the child's observations are normal, and there is only a small area of localised redness measuring 1 cm in diameter where she was bitten. There is no sign of infection. The mother shows a picture of the rash on her phone, which appears to be an urticarial rash, affecting the trunk, upper and lower limbs.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this 10-year-old girl?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to allergy clinic
Explanation:People who have experienced a systemic reaction to an insect bite or sting should be referred to an allergy clinic, according to NICE guidelines. This is particularly important if the individual has a history of such reactions or if their symptoms suggest a systemic reaction, such as widespread urticarial rash and pruritus. Immediate admission to the emergency department is necessary if there are signs of a systemic reaction. Treatment for large local reactions to insect bites or stings may involve oral antihistamines and/or corticosteroids, although evidence to support this is limited. Testing for serum levels of complement C1 inhibitor may be necessary in cases of suspected hereditary angioedema, which is characterized by recurrent oedema in various parts of the body. However, there are no indications of this in the case at hand.
Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 40%. He has not sought medical attention for his chest in several years and only uses salbutamol as inhaled therapy. He reports using at least two puffs of salbutamol four times a day, but his breathlessness is limiting his ability to engage in enjoyable activities. Despite his current treatment, he continues to experience persistent breathlessness. He has no history of asthma and is a former smoker. What is the appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the same inhaled treatment but use short courses of oral steroid when he exacerbates
Explanation:Treatment options for suboptimal control in COPD patients
To determine the appropriate treatment for suboptimal control in COPD patients, it is recommended to consult the NICE guidance on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG115). If a patient has suboptimal control despite using a regular short-acting beta 2-agonist (SABA), oral theophylline may be considered at a later stage in the treatment ladder. However, LAMA+LABA should be offered to patients who have spirometrically confirmed COPD, do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness, and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using a short-acting bronchodilator. It is important to note that adding a regular inhaled steroid is not recommended in the treatment ladder as it is inferior to LABA/ICS combination or LAMA. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide optimal treatment for COPD patients with suboptimal control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)
Explanation:The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and a burning sensation in her right upper thigh that began 2 weeks ago. She reports that the pain is more noticeable when she stands for extended periods of time at work, but it doesn't interfere with her sleep. During a hip and knee examination, no motor abnormalities are detected. She speculates that the pain may be related to her recent participation in a spin class.
What condition is likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that occurs when the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is compressed, resulting in burning and numbness in the upper lateral portion of the thigh. This condition typically affects only one side of the body and doesn’t cause any motor deficits. Symptoms may worsen with hip extension or prolonged standing, but sitting down can provide temporary relief.
Femoral neuropathy, on the other hand, affects both the sensory and motor functions of the muscles innervated by the nerve. While burning pain and paraesthesia may be present, weakness in the legs, especially when climbing stairs, is also a common symptom. A hip and knee exam may reveal abnormalities such as weakness when extending or flexing these joints.
Referred lumbar radiculopathy is another condition that can cause leg pain, but the pain is typically located in the back of the leg rather than the upper-lateral portion. The pain is often described as a shooting pain, and patients may also experience motor deficits.
Superior cluneal nerve dysfunction can also cause burning pain and paraesthesia, but this condition affects the lower back and upper gluteal area rather than the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, leading to the development of meralgia paraesthetica. The condition is more common in men than women and is often seen in those with diabetes or obesity.
Symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica include burning, tingling, numbness, and shooting pain in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. These symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. Diagnosis can be made through the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive, or through nerve conduction studies. Treatment options include injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic or surgical decompression.
In conclusion, meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that can cause significant discomfort and restriction in patients. Understanding its causes, symptoms, and diagnostic methods can aid in its timely diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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