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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with a 9-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Specimen culture
Correct Answer: Stained specimen microscopy
Explanation:Diagnosis and Testing for Gonorrhoea
Gonorrhoea is the most probable diagnosis in this case. To confirm the diagnosis, rapid testing can be done by examining Gram-stained anal specimens for Gram-negative diplococci. Culture testing is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate antimicrobial treatment. It is important to send the specimens to the laboratory as soon as possible. If there is a significant delay in getting the swabs to the laboratory, it may be advisable to refer the patient to a genito-urinary medicine clinic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on a long-haul flight 4 weeks ago. He is experiencing a persistent productive cough, haemoptysis and night sweats.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Respiratory Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Persistent cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and fever are classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), which accounts for 60% of respiratory cases in the UK. Acute bronchitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a viral infection and resolves without treatment within three weeks. Lung cancer may present with productive cough and haemoptysis, but the patient’s age and immigrant status make TB more likely. Pulmonary embolism is a minor risk factor in this case, and whooping cough is a respiratory tract infection that affects both children and adults. Paroxysmal coughing followed by a whoop is a characteristic feature of whooping cough. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when making a differential diagnosis of respiratory symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV
Explanation:HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination
Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.
Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.
In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated
Explanation:Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.
Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.
For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year old daughter, Lily into your clinic with concerns about vaccinations. Lily has recently undergone a liver transplant and is on immunosuppressants. The mother is worried that some vaccinations may not be safe for her daughter. Which of the following vaccinations can be administered in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pertussis vaccine
Explanation:Live attenuated vaccines, such as those for seasonal nasal flu, oral polio, mumps, and measles, are commonly used. The pertussis vaccine, on the other hand, is an inactivated whole-cell vaccine that is safe for immunocompromised individuals. Immunization schedules for both children and adults are undergoing rapid changes, and some candidates may not be aware of these changes or recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated to clinical staff, it is important for GPs to be aware of contraindications and schedules in order to advise patients and parents. Auditing specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunization in cases where recommendations have changed.
Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which group of patients should receive a pneumococcal booster vaccination every 6 years and be vaccinated against pneumococcus if they have any of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Those with chronic kidney disease
Explanation:The pneumococcal vaccine is typically administered as a single dose, but individuals who have undergone a splenectomy or have chronic kidney disease should receive a booster shot every five years.
The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.
The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.
Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports having flu-like symptoms prior to this. During the physical examination, a symmetrical rash with 'target' lesions is observed all over her body. What is the probable causative agent responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Erythema multiforme can be caused by Mycoplasma and pneumococcus.
Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia
Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.
Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day history of fever, myalgia, malaise, and headache. She reports that her face has been swelling for the past two days and the pain has increased while chewing food. Upon examination, you notice that her parotid glands are tender and bilaterally swollen. Her temperature is 38.5ÂșC, heart rate 120 beats/minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supportive treatment- advise rest, fluids and simple analgesia
Explanation:The individual in question is suffering from mumps, which may be more prevalent in travelling communities due to lower vaccination rates. Supportive care is the recommended treatment for mumps, as antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and steroids are not advised. While immediate vaccination is not necessary for this patient, it may be beneficial to assess their immunisation status for other diseases such as rubella and measles and administer appropriate vaccinations. Additionally, those who have been in contact with the patient should be offered the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine. Hospitalisation is not required. This information is sourced from NICE CKS Mumps.
Understanding Mumps: Causes, Symptoms, Prevention, and Management
Mumps is a viral infection caused by RNA paramyxovirus that typically occurs during the winter and spring seasons. The virus spreads through droplets and affects respiratory tract epithelial cells, parotid glands, and other tissues. The infection is contagious, and a person can be infectious seven days before and nine days after the onset of parotid swelling. The incubation period for mumps is usually 14-21 days.
The clinical features of mumps include fever, malaise, and muscular pain. The most common symptom is parotitis, which causes earache and pain while eating. Initially, the swelling is unilateral, but it becomes bilateral in around 70% of cases.
Prevention of mumps is possible through the MMR vaccine, which has an efficacy rate of around 80%. Management of mumps involves rest and the use of paracetamol to alleviate high fever and discomfort. Mumps is a notifiable disease, and healthcare professionals must report cases to the relevant authorities.
Complications of mumps include orchitis, which is uncommon in pre-pubertal males but occurs in around 25-35% of post-pubertal males. It typically occurs four or five days after the onset of parotitis. Other complications include hearing loss, meningoencephalitis, and pancreatitis.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, prevention, and management of mumps is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection and minimizing its complications. Vaccination and early diagnosis are essential in controlling the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic after being bitten by a dog on his left hand. What would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and profuse diarrhoea. You send a stool sample for culture and the result confirms campylobacter infection.
What is a true statement about this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is usually acquired through eating chicken
Explanation:Campylobacter: The Leading Cause of Diarrhoea in the UK
Campylobacter sp. is the primary cause of diarrhoea in the UK, with a high incidence rate. Although it usually resolves on its own within five days, it can persist for up to four weeks. In rare cases, it can lead to reactive arthritis. Treatment options include ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, erythromycin, or azithromycin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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