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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old terminally ill man with pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old terminally ill man with pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department. He complains of abdominal pain and has not passed urine for ten hours.
      On examination, he has an easily palpable, enlarged bladder. You decide to insert a urinary catheter.
      What is the most appropriate way to approach this procedure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Once urine flow is achieved, push the catheter as far as it can go before inflating the balloon

      Explanation:

      To ensure proper catheterisation, it is important to push the catheter in as far as it can go before inflating the balloon, once urine flow has been achieved. Aseptic technique should always be used to reduce the risk of infection. It is not advisable to use force to overcome resistance during catheter insertion, as this can create a false passage. The smallest catheter size that allows for effective drainage should be used, unless there is an infection or postoperative bleeding, in which case a larger bore may be necessary to minimise obstruction risk. For long-term catheterisation, an indwelling Foley catheter with an inflatable balloon should be used instead of a straight (Nelaton) catheter that is immediately removed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Choose from the options the one symptom that would indicate primary HIV infection over infectious mononucleosis.

      Your Answer: Splenomegaly

      Correct Answer: Maculopapular rash

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Primary HIV Infection: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Approximately 70% of individuals with HIV infection experience symptoms during seroconversion, but very few are diagnosed when seen in general practice. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better response to treatment. Primary HIV infection presents with symptoms resembling glandular fever, including fever, sweats, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, generalized lymphadenopathy, a macular erythematous truncal eruption, and thrombocytopenia. These symptoms start 2-6 weeks after exposure and usually resolve within two weeks, although it can take longer.

      The most specific features of primary HIV infection are a maculopapular or morbilliform rash affecting predominantly the upper part of the body and mucosal ulcers affecting the mouth and genital areas. In infectious mononucleosis, any rash is macular and very transient. Rash occurs in about 50% and ulcers in nearly 40% of patients. Less commonly, gastrointestinal symptoms predominate, including abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hepatitis, and even gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Rare presentations include encephalopathy, pneumonitis, and rhabdomyolysis associated with acute renal failure. Sometimes, acute, severe immunosuppression may occur during the primary infection.

      When considering infectious mononucleosis, GPs need to think about HIV as well. It is also a possibility in patients with unexplained fever who have been in countries with high HIV prevalence. The diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with a blotchy rash on the trunk, or oral or perianal ulcers, and if infections that can occur when the CD4 count drops (e.g., candidiasis or herpes zoster) are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?

      Your Answer: Sudden weight loss or starvation

      Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1347.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - How can dissociative non-epileptic attacks (pseudoseizures) be differentiated from generalised tonic clonic seizures...

    Correct

    • How can dissociative non-epileptic attacks (pseudoseizures) be differentiated from generalised tonic clonic seizures based on their features?

      Your Answer: Post episode sleepiness

      Explanation:

      Pseudoseizures vs. Genuine Seizures

      A gradual onset is indicative of non-epileptic attacks, while other features suggest genuine generalised tonic clonic seizures. However, pseudoseizures have additional characteristics, such as being mainly observed in females (8:1), previous illness behavior, and childhood physical and/or sexual abuse. Diagnosing pseudoseizures can be challenging and is typically not done with certainty in primary care. A neurologist is usually involved in the diagnosis, and video EEG can be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare,...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare, he had her immunised. However, he is concerned about the recent increase in measles cases and wonders if she needs a booster shot. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 years

      Correct Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.

      MMR Vaccine: Information on Administration, Contraindications, and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule for children.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, some adverse effects may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to note that the benefits of the MMR vaccine far outweigh the risks, as it protects against serious and potentially life-threatening diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother after suddenly developing a cough and wheeze. His symptoms seem to have started suddenly at a birthday party. On examination, he is irritable, afebrile, with a raised respiratory rate and cough. He has a wheeze heard on the right side and breath sounds are more prominent on the left.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peanut allergy

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Foreign Body Aspiration, Peanut Allergy, and Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Signs

      Unilateral wheeze in a child should always prompt the search for an inhaled foreign body, especially if symptoms started acutely in an otherwise healthy child. Large foreign bodies can cause complete airway obstruction and are rapidly fatal, while smaller ones, like peanuts, usually lodge in the right main bronchus and cause hyperinflation of the unaffected side, reduced air entry on the affected side, and a unilateral monophonic wheeze. Symptoms of foreign body aspiration may not always include the classic triad of coughing, wheezing, and decreased breathing sounds, and patients with chronic symptoms may have been misdiagnosed as having asthma or bronchitis. Peanut allergy symptoms can include itching, urticaria, facial swelling, bronchospasm, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and collapse with anaphylactic shock. Spontaneous pneumothorax presents with sudden onset of pain and dyspnea, hyper-resonance, and reduced breath sounds on the affected side. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of these conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      112.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman presents at six months’ gestation. She was adopted but reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents at six months’ gestation. She was adopted but reports that her biological family is known to have ‘health problems’ and has heard the term ‘polygenic inheritance’ mentioned. She is concerned about passing any conditions on to her child and asks for more information about inheritance patterns.
      Which of the following conditions demonstrates a polygenic mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns of Various Disorders

      Many disorders have a familial tendency that cannot be explained by Mendelian inheritance patterns. Polygenic inheritance, also known as quantitative inheritance, is when a single phenotype is controlled by multiple genes. This type of inheritance can result in a range of phenotypes depending on the number of genes involved and their interactions. Examples of disorders with polygenic inheritance include congenital malformations and acquired diseases such as asthma, hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bipolar disorder.

      Cystic fibrosis is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern, meaning that two copies of the abnormal gene are necessary for the condition to appear. Fragile X syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by a dominant X-linked gene, but it’s penetrance is only 50% in females. Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern and is characterized by progressive ataxia, dysarthria, decreased proprioception/vibration sense, muscle weakness, and late-onset cardiomyopathy. The average life expectancy for individuals with Friedreich’s ataxia is 40-50 years. Finally, Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern, meaning that only one copy of the gene is necessary to produce the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her left hand. She complains of a dull aching pain in her forearm, which is made worse by carrying a shopping bag. On examination you find weakness of the left abductor pollicis brevis and mild weakness of thumb flexion. Finger abduction and adduction appear to be within normal limits. There is sensory loss to pinprick mainly affecting the left thumb and index finger. Phalen's sign is positive. Sensorimotor examination of the right hand is normal. The deep tendon reflexes are symmetrical.
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the right median nerve in the carpal tunnel

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can be caused by pregnancy, fluid retention, hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes, and hereditary tendency to pressure palsy. The symptoms include weakness and sensory loss in the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. Phalen’s sign, which involves flexing the wrist for 60 seconds, can help diagnose the condition. Nerve conduction studies can confirm the diagnosis. Pronator teres syndrome, which is rare, can also cause forearm pain, but carpal tunnel syndrome is more likely in pregnant patients with a positive Phalen’s sign. Compression of the ulnar nerve produces symptoms at the medial side of the forearm and hand, while brachial plexopathy and C8 nerve root irritation usually involve the length of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - John is a 40-year-old man who is looking after his mother who has...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 40-year-old man who is looking after his mother who has been diagnosed with dementia. He visits you seeking guidance on financial benefits available to him, having heard about 'carer's credit' in the media.

      What is the accurate definition of 'carer's credit'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: National insurance credits towards the state pension for a carer

      Explanation:

      Carer’s Credit: A National Insurance Record Boost for Carers

      Carer’s credit is a program that provides credits to carers who may have gaps in their national insurance record due to caring for their loved ones. This program ensures that carers will not be affected in claiming their state pension later in life. To be eligible for the carer’s credit, the carer must be at least 16 years old, under the State Pension age, and must be looking after one or more people for at least 20 hours a week. The person being cared for must receive one of the following: Disability Living Allowance care component at the middle or highest rate, Attendance Allowance, Constant Attendance Allowance, Personal Independence Payment – daily living component, at the standard or enhanced rate, or Armed Forces Independence Payment. The carer’s credit program is a helpful way to support carers who dedicate their time and effort to care for their loved ones.

      Reference:
      Carer’s Credit – https://www.gov.uk/carers-credit/overview. Department of Work and Pensions
      Carer’s Credit – http://www.macmillan.org.uk/information-and-support/organising/benefits-and-financial-support/looking-after-someone-with-cancer/carers-credit.html. Macmillan Cancer Support

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
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  • Question 10 - You see a 6-week old baby boy who has infantile colic. His dad...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-week old baby boy who has infantile colic. His dad describes episodes where he cries without any obvious trigger and he is unable to console him. The episodes last about 30 minutes and can occur up to approximately 12 times in 24 hours. He is otherwise very well. He is breastfed with formula top ups feeds in the evening and is gaining weight without any concerns.

      Examination of the infant is normal.

      Which statement below is true regarding infantile colic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infantile colic normally resolves around 6 months of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old woman with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer presents for follow-up, four...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer presents for follow-up, four months after initiating tamoxifen therapy. What is the most probable adverse effect that may arise in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hot flashes

      Explanation:

      Hot flashes are a common side-effect of tamoxifen, as stated in the BNF. Although alopecia and cataracts are also listed as possible side-effects, they are not as frequently observed as hot flashes, particularly in women who have not yet reached menopause.

      Tamoxifen and its Adverse Effects

      Tamoxifen is a medication used in the treatment of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. It is classified as a Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) and works by acting as an antagonist and partial agonist of the oestrogen receptor. However, the use of tamoxifen can lead to several adverse effects. These include menstrual disturbances such as vaginal bleeding and amenorrhoea, as well as hot flashes which can cause 3% of patients to stop taking the medication due to climacteric side-effects. Additionally, tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial cancer.

      To manage breast cancer, tamoxifen is typically prescribed for a period of 5 years following the removal of the tumour. However, due to the risk of endometrial cancer associated with tamoxifen, an alternative medication called raloxifene may be used. Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer. It is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of tamoxifen and other medications with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left breast. She was prescribed flucloxacillin but her symptoms have failed to settle. She had been Breastfeeding her baby for three weeks and was well until four days prior to being seen when she noted a painful swelling developing.

      On examination there was a tender, erythematous, warm area in the left breast. She has been fully compliant with her medication and an alternative diagnosis appears unlikely on clinical grounds.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast milk should be cultured

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Lactational Mastitis

      Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. If symptoms fail to improve after 48 hours of first-line antibiotic treatment, it is important to check that the woman has taken the antibiotic correctly and consider the possibility of an alternative diagnosis such as breast cancer or a breast abscess. If an abscess is suspected, it is important to note that malaise and fever may have subsided if antibiotics have been started.

      If an alternative diagnosis is unlikely, a sample of breast milk should be sent for microscopy, culture, and antibiotic sensitivity. A second-line antibiotic, co-amoxiclav 500/125 mg three times a day, should be prescribed for 10-14 days, with a review of this choice when breast milk culture results become available. It is important to seek specialist advice if the woman is allergic to penicillin.

      Breastfeeding should continue from both breasts if possible, with the affected breast being expressed if feeding is too uncomfortable. In the absence of culture and sensitivity results, flucloxacillin is the usual first choice, with erythromycin for those who are penicillin allergic. Recurrences are best treated with co-amoxiclav. It is worth noting that some cases progress to an obvious abscess, which should be drained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. He has no other significant medical history and is not taking any other medications.

      How should his bone density be managed in light of this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formally assess his fracture risk to determine the need for further investigation and treatment for osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Men with Prostate Cancer

      Osteoporosis is a potential risk for men undergoing hormonal androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer. While bisphosphonates are not routinely recommended, assessing fracture risk can guide the need for investigation and treatment. Bisphosphonates may be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis, while denosumab can be used if bisphosphonates are not an option. However, a confirmed diagnosis of osteoporosis is necessary before treatment can be prescribed. Lifestyle advice is important, but it is not a substitute for fracture risk assessment and further investigation, such as a DEXA scan, may be necessary. By managing osteoporosis risk, men with prostate cancer can reduce the likelihood of fractures and maintain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
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  • Question 15 - You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter...

    Incorrect

    • You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.

      Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mcg

      Explanation:

      Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms

      Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo fertility treatment currently. What is the most suitable course of treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular testosterone injections

      Explanation:

      Options for Testosterone Replacement Therapy

      Testosterone replacement therapy is a common treatment for men with low testosterone levels. There are several options available, including testosterone undecanoate for oral use, injections, implants, patches, and gels. However, intramuscular depot preparations of testosterone esters are preferred for replacement therapy, according to the British National Formulary. One long-acting injectable formulation of testosterone undecanoate needs to be used only every 10–14 weeks.

      Regular injections of human chorionic gonadotrophin and pulsatile subcutaneous administration of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) are not recommended for testosterone replacement therapy. While chorionic gonadotrophin has been used in delayed puberty in males, it has little advantage over testosterone. GnRH stimulates the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary in normal subjects and is used to check whether the pituitary gland can produce LH and FSH in the correct levels.

      Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen and is not used for testosterone replacement therapy. Regular injections of human menopausal gonadotrophin (HMG) have been replaced by recombinant gonadotrophins in fertility treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with proximal deep vein thrombosis four weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with proximal deep vein thrombosis four weeks after being treated for a fractured femur caused by a motorcycle accident. She is prescribed warfarin (initially covered with low molecular weight heparin) with a target INR of 2.0-3.0.

      What other treatment option should be offered to this patient in addition to warfarin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No additional treatment other than routine care

      Explanation:

      Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.

      While compression stockings were previously recommended to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome in patients with DVT, Clinical Knowledge Summaries now advise against their use for this purpose. However, compression stockings are still recommended as a treatment for post-thrombotic syndrome. Other recommended treatments include keeping the affected leg elevated.

      In summary, post-thrombotic syndrome is a potential complication of DVT that can cause a range of uncomfortable symptoms. While compression stockings are no longer recommended for prevention, they remain an important treatment option for those who develop the syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 18 - You assess a 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and observe...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and observe signs of cor pulmonale with notable pedal edema. His FEV1 is 43%, and during his recent hospitalization, his pO2 on room air was 7.5 kPa. What intervention would be the most effective in improving this patient's survival?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      One of the few interventions that has been proven to increase survival in COPD after quitting smoking is long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT). Patients with a pO2 level below 7.3 kPa should be offered LTOT, as well as those with a pO2 level between 7.3 – 8 kPa who have secondary polycythemia, nocturnal hypoxemia, peripheral edema, or pulmonary hypertension.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed by the malodorous discharge from the affected breast, which is causing considerable social embarrassment.

      From the list below, choose the single treatment which would help alleviate this symptom.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allevyn dressings

      Explanation:

      Managing Foul Odors in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, managing foul odors is an important aspect of providing comfort to patients. One approach is to use metronidazole, which can improve smells caused by anaerobic organisms that infect fungating tumors. Another option is to use charcoal dressings, which absorb malodorous substances. It is recommended to familiarize oneself with the British National Formulary (BNF) section on prescribing in palliative care, as it contains valuable information that is often tested in exams. By utilizing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate unpleasant odors and improve the quality of life for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old female comes to the clinic with a nodule in her neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female comes to the clinic with a nodule in her neck that she has noticed for the past month.
      Upon examination, a non-tender, 3.5 cm nodule is found on the right side of her neck, deep to the lower half of the right sternocleidomastoid. The nodule moves upwards on swallowing, and no other masses are palpable in the neck.
      What is the nature of this mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymph node

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Nodule: Causes and Investigation

      A thyroid nodule is suspected in this patient due to the movement observed during swallowing. The possible causes of a thyroid nodule include colloid cyst, adenoma, and carcinoma. To investigate this lesion, the most appropriate method would be fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves using a thin needle to extract a small sample of cells from the nodule for examination under a microscope. It is a safe and effective way to determine if the nodule is benign or malignant. Early detection and treatment of thyroid nodules can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He initially experienced a runny nose and dry cough. Presently, he is expressing concern about new mouth ulcers, a tender red rash on his trunk, and feeling generally unwell. When his skin is gently rubbed, blisters appear.

      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shingles

      Explanation:

      Galantamine and Serious Skin Reactions

      Clues that suggest a diagnosis of serious skin reactions include the recent use of galantamine, a prodromal illness, a tender red rash with mucosal involvement, and a positive Nikolsky sign. Patients taking galantamine should be informed about the signs of serious skin reactions and advised to discontinue the medication at the first appearance of a skin rash. Galantamine is known to increase the risk of developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme, and acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis. As the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is becoming more common, it is important to review the common and rare side effects of these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has shown signs of developmental delay. She had delayed speech development, was a late walker, and is behind her peers in many areas.
      The mother has been taking regular medication for bipolar disorder for the past seven years, which she has been told may have caused her daughter's issues. Currently, her mental health is stable, and she has no other diagnosed health conditions.
      Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogenic Risks of Common Medications During Pregnancy

      Valproic acid, commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is highly teratogenic with a 30-40% chance of neurodevelopmental problems and 10% risk of congenital malformations in newborns if taken during pregnancy. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, carries a risk of neonatal tremor and hypertonia if taken during the third trimester, but no known neurodevelopmental risks. Prochlorperazine, used for nausea and vomiting, may cause extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal in newborns during the third trimester, but no neurodevelopmental issues are listed. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has no specific teratogenic warnings. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for anxiety and depression, has a small risk of congenital heart defect but no neurodevelopmental issues. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these risks and provide appropriate counseling and monitoring for pregnant patients taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman developed nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps 4 hours after consuming...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman developed nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps 4 hours after consuming a salad and a hamburger at a nearby restaurant. She subsequently experienced watery diarrhea a few hours later. Which single organism is most likely responsible for her illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Food Poisoning and Their Symptoms

      Food poisoning can be caused by various bacteria and toxins that contaminate food. Here are some common types of food poisoning and their symptoms:

      1. Staphylococcal food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by preformed enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include profuse vomiting and watery diarrhea, which can occur 1-6 hours after eating contaminated food.

      2. Yersinia infection: This type of food poisoning is usually associated with improperly cooked meat. Symptoms may appear 3-10 days after ingestion of contaminated food.

      3. Listeria monocytogenes infection: This type of food poisoning can develop from 2 to 70 days after eating contaminated food. Symptoms include mild flu-like symptoms with diarrhea and vomiting, but the elderly, pregnant women, newborns, and immunosuppressed individuals are at risk of more serious consequences.

      4. Vibrio vulnificus-associated food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by contaminated seafood, particularly oysters or undercooked shellfish. Symptoms usually appear 1-7 days after ingestion.

      5. Clostridium perfringens infection: This type of food poisoning is caused by spores that can grow into new cells if cooked food is not promptly served or refrigerated. Symptoms include diarrhea and abdominal pain, but not fever or vomiting. Outbreaks are often linked to institutions or events with catered food.

      It is important to handle and cook food properly to prevent food poisoning. If you experience symptoms of food poisoning, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A hospital Consultant is trying to quantify how many patients that attend his...

    Incorrect

    • A hospital Consultant is trying to quantify how many patients that attend his geriatric outpatient clinic suffer from dementia. They carry out a review of the charts of 200 randomly selected patients who regularly attend their geriatric outpatients’ clinic and determine that 42 have a diagnosis of dementia.
      Which of the following is it possible to estimate from this data?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The prevalence of retinopathy in this population

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prevalence, Incidence, and Relative Risk in a Population with Retinopathy

      Prevalence, incidence, and relative risk are important measures used to understand the occurrence of a disease in a population. Prevalence refers to the number of cases of a disease present in a population at a specific point in time. To calculate prevalence, researchers randomly select a sample from the population and divide the number of people with the disease by the total number of people in the sample. Incidence, on the other hand, is the rate of new cases of a disease occurring in a specific population over a particular period of time. To calculate incidence, data on the number of new cases over time is needed. Finally, relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without exposure. To calculate relative risk, two populations, one exposed to the risk factor and one not exposed, need to be studied. It is important to note that these measures can only be accurately calculated with a representative sample and that selection bias can affect the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with sudden onset of mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with sudden onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also shows signs of sensory loss on the right-hand side. There is evidence of Horner syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left-hand side.
      What is the most probable structure that is affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brainstem

      Explanation:

      Lesion Localization: Identifying the Affected Brain Structure

      When trying to identify the affected brain structure in a patient with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the specific signs and symptoms present. In the case of a patient with ipsilateral facial numbness, diplopia, nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, Horner syndrome, and ninth and tenth nerve lesions, along with contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss and mild hemiparesis, a lesion in the brainstem is likely. This is often caused by thromboembolic disease affecting the vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar artery.

      It is important to rule out other potential brain structures that could be causing the symptoms. A frontal lobe lesion would account for the hemiplegia and sensory loss, but not the Horner syndrome or cranial nerve involvement. A temporal lobe lesion would most likely present with speech and language difficulties, which are not present in this patient. An occipital lobe lesion would result in a homonymous hemianopia, which is not seen in this case. Parietal lobe lesions cause contralateral weakness and sensory loss of the body, but would not result in the Horner syndrome or fifth nerve palsy symptoms.

      Overall, careful consideration of the specific signs and symptoms can help identify the affected brain structure and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old boy has a chest infection and needs antibiotics.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has a chest infection and needs antibiotics.

      Which of the following treatments would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracyclines

      Explanation:

      Best Antibiotic Choice for Children

      When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for children, it’s important to consider their age and potential side effects. In this circumstance, Amoxicillin would be the best choice due to its effectiveness and safety profile. Quinolones and tetracyclines should be avoided in childhood, while co-trimoxazole has limited indications and nitrofurantoin would not be effective. It’s crucial to consult with a healthcare professional before administering any medication to children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to move his legs during the night. He recalls his mother also suffering from a similar condition, which she managed with magnesium salts.

      Which test is most probable to reveal an anomalous outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      The most important blood test for diagnosing restless legs syndrome is measuring the ferritin level, as it is commonly associated with iron deficiency. While a full blood count may be performed to ensure the patient is not anemic, it is not the most likely test to be abnormal. Magnesium levels are not the most likely abnormality in this condition, although it may be appropriate to check along with other tests for a comprehensive assessment. Nerve conduction studies would not be warranted for a patient with restless leg syndrome unless there was diagnostic uncertainty and concern for possible nerve damage.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - One of your receptionists has tested positive for pertussis. Her GP has given...

    Incorrect

    • One of your receptionists has tested positive for pertussis. Her GP has given her clarithromycin today.

      She feels well enough to work, but with regard to her infectivity, when could she start back at work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When her cough subsides

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Guidance for Healthcare Workers

      According to the latest guidance from Public Health England (PHE), healthcare workers (HCWs) suspected of having pertussis should be excluded from work until 48 hours of appropriate antibiotic treatment is completed or for 21 days from onset if not treated. This is a change from earlier advice to exclude for 5 days. Hospitalized patients with pertussis should be placed in respiratory isolation until 48 hours of treatment is completed or for 21 days from onset if not treated. HCWs looking after patients with pertussis should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as stated in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 3.19. Public Health England has published comprehensive guidelines on the symptoms, diagnosis, management, surveillance, and epidemiology of pertussis, including updated sub-documents. Staying up to date with the latest guidance is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients and protecting the health of healthcare workers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 29 - Sadia is a 32-year-old woman who has come with complaints of cyclical breast...

    Incorrect

    • Sadia is a 32-year-old woman who has come with complaints of cyclical breast pain. What would be the initial recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A supportive bra

      Explanation:

      The initial approach to treating cyclical mastalgia involves a supportive bra and basic pain relief measures like paracetamol, ibuprofen, or topical NSAIDs. Codeine is not the preferred first-line option. The evidence is inadequate to suggest reducing caffeine intake or using the progestogen-only pill. A systematic review revealed that evening primrose oil is not superior to placebo.

      Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man collapses in the General Practice waiting room. His breathing is shallow with a respiratory rate of six breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are unrecordable. Blood sugar is normal. His pupils are both constricted.
      Which of the following drugs should be administered immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidotes for Poisoning: Understanding Their Uses

      When a patient presents with symptoms of poisoning, it is important to identify the specific toxin involved in order to administer the appropriate antidote. Here are some common antidotes and their uses:

      Naloxone: This opiate antagonist is used to treat acute opiate toxicity. It rapidly reverses respiratory depression, loss of consciousness, and constricted pupils. Patients may become aggressive upon awakening, and repeated doses may be necessary.

      Fomepizole: This antidote is used in confirmed cases of ethylene glycol poisoning as an alternative to ethanol. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and seizures.

      Acetylcysteine: This is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning. It should be administered in a hospital after a full clinical assessment has been carried out. Symptoms may not appear until days later, and can include hepatic encephalopathy.

      Flumazenil: This antidote is used for benzodiazepine overdose. It should only be administered by experienced specialists in a hospital setting, as it can precipitate seizures.

      Glucagon: This antidote can be used to treat hypoglycaemia and beta-blocker overdose. However, if a patient’s blood sugar is normal, hypoglycaemia is not the cause of their collapse.

      By understanding the uses of these antidotes, healthcare professionals can quickly and effectively treat cases of poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/2) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
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