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  • Question 1 - Which type of lung cancer is most commonly linked to cavitating lesions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of lung cancer is most commonly linked to cavitating lesions?

      Your Answer: Small cell

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell carcinoma is the most common histological type of lung cancer to cavitate (82% of cavitary primary lung cancer), followed by adenocarcinoma and large cell carcinoma. Multiple cavitary lesions in primary lung cancer are rare, however, multifocal bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma can occasionally have multiple cavitary lesions. Small cell carcinoma is not known to cavitate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Malum perforans

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diabetic dermadromes constitute a group of cutaneous conditions commonly seen in people with diabetes with longstanding disease. Conditions included in this group are:
      – Acral dry gangrene
      – Carotenosis
      – Diabetic dermopathy
      – Diabetic bulla
      – Diabetic cheiroarthropathy
      – Malum perforans
      – Necrobiosis lipoidica
      – Limited joint mobility
      – Scleroderma
      – Waxy skin is observed in roughly 50%.

      Sweet’s syndrome is also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis has a strong association with acute myeloid leukaemia. It is not associated with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move...

    Correct

    • A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move when he wakes up and less often when he is falling asleep. He complains of having hallucinations and sees other strangers in the room. His anxiety has also increased with these episodes. What is his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sleep paralysis

      Explanation:

      Sleep paralysis is a temporary inability to move or speak that occurs when you’re waking up or falling asleep. Paralysis is often accompanied by hallucinations

      REM is a stage of sleep when the brain is very active and dreams often occur. The body is unable to move, apart from the eyes and muscles used in breathing, possibly to stop the person from acting out the dreams and hurting himself.

      It’s not clear why REM sleep can sometimes occur while one is awake, but it has been associated with:
      -not getting enough sleep (sleep deprivation or insomnia)
      -irregular sleeping patterns – for example, because of shift work or jet lag
      -narcolepsy – a long-term condition that causes a person to suddenly fall asleep at inappropriate times
      -a family history of sleep paralysis
      -sleeping on one’s back

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed...

    Correct

    • A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed to him collapsing. Upon arrival in A&E, he has a heart rate of 76 bpm, blood pressure 220/140, and Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2, M5, V2). Which of the following should be done immediately?

      Your Answer: Give high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask

      Explanation:

      This man is likely suffering from a subarachnoid haemorrhage or intracerebral bleed. The priority is to prevent a secondary brain injury. Important first steps include ensuring a secure airway, normalizing cardiovascular function, and treating seizures. His airway is likely to be protected with a GCS of 9, although he may benefit from a nasal or oral airway, and close attention should be paid to his airway if going for a CT scan. He should receive high flow oxygen and his blood pressure should not be treated acutely, as i is often appropriate to compensate for a rise in intracranial pressure. Nimodipine should be given if a subarachnoid haemorrhage is proven. Attention should also be given to maintaining a normal blood sugar, as hyperglycaemia worsens outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome dyspepsia for the past six months which has not settled with proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. During the review of his systems he also reports passing 6-7 watery stools per day. An OGD 3 weeks ago showed gastric erosions and ulcers. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer: 14C-xylose breath test

      Correct Answer: Fasting gastrin

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for colon cancer. He was put on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin post operatively as well as prednisolone. Now he complains of central chest pain and his ECG revealed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was given aspirin and oxygen as the initial treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV diamorphine + increase low-molecular weight heparin to treatment dose + double his prednisolone dose

      Correct Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of bleeding due to recent surgery and heparin. So thrombolysis is not an option. The most appropriate management is percutaneous coronary intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 53-year-old cashier with a history of chronic back pain presents for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old cashier with a history of chronic back pain presents for a check-up. He is aware of a dragging feeling affecting his left foot when he tries to walk. This has developed since a minor injury to his left knee. On examination, he has weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the left foot. The right is unaffected and plantar flexion and inversion are normal on the left. MRI of the spinal cord shows degenerative disc changes at multiple levels, but no evidence of cord or nerve root impingement. Nerve conduction studies and EMG results are pending. Which of the following sensory loss patterns would you expect to find in association with this motor defect?

      Your Answer: Sensory loss affecting the big toe only

      Correct Answer: Sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral leg

      Explanation:

      This patient presentation is unlikely to be an L5 nerve root lesion given the results of the MRI scan. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is a mononeuritis affecting the left common peroneal nerve. This would lead to sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral leg on the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic nerve?

      Your Answer: Intervertebral disc prolapse at L2/L3 levels

      Correct Answer: Foot drop

      Explanation:

      The sciatic neve originates in the sacral plexus, mainly from spinal segments L5-S2. It supplies muscles that cause extension of the thigh and flexion of the leg. It divides into two main branches, the tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve, which are responsible for all foot movements. Anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss is typical of a femoral nerve lesion. The femoral nerve also mediates flexion of the hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. She admits to 2 or 3 episodes of vomiting blood. The GP feels an epigastric mass. There is both a microcytic anaemia and abnormal liver enzymes. Her past history, which may be of importance, includes excess consumption of sherry and spirits, and a 30 pack-year smoking history. Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Explanation:

      With a clinical history of weight loss, smoking, drinking alcohol, and hematemesis, the most likely answer is gastric carcinoma (also a mass). Based on symptomatology alone this is more likely than gastric lymphoma, as she has many risk factors for adenocarcinoma and/or squamous cell carcinoma. Helicobacter gastritis would not likely present with the severity of symptoms, neither would benign gastric ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic with acute on chronic pain in his big toe. Past history is significant for hypertension for which he takes Bendroflumethiazide 5mg daily. Examination reveals an erythematous, red hot metatarsophalangeal joint that has a knobbly appearance. X-ray shows punched out bony cysts. Which of the following would be the most appropriate long term management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop Bendroflumethiazide and substitute a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is chronic tophaceous gout, which is classically associated with chronic renal impairment or long term diuretic therapy. There is tophus formation due to urate crystal deposition in and around the joint. These tophi can also form in the bones and soft tissues. Renal manifestations with uric acid include nephrolithiasis and uric acid nephropathy. Whenever there is an acute on chronic attack of gout, the inciting cause must be established and in case of diuretic use, they should be immediately replaced with another medication. Allopurinol is never started during an acute episode. it is first allowed to settle before administration of allopurinol. Although dietary restriction must be observed in people with a propensity of gout, this scenario clearly presents diuretics as the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history: Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago. Current medications: Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasone Mesalazine 400 mg TDS She was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult.   What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis; therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.

      Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination.

      The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A study was developed to assess a new oral antithrombotic drug on the...

    Incorrect

    • A study was developed to assess a new oral antithrombotic drug on the chance of stroke in high-risk patients, compared to warfarin. The total number of patients receiving the new drug were 200 compared to 600 who were receiving warfarin. From the ones receiving the new drug, 10 patients had a stroke within 3 years, compared to 12 patients who were receiving warfarin and had a stroke. What is the relative risk of having a stroke within 3 years for patients receiving the new drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group)
      Experimental event rate, EER = 10 / 200 = 0.05

      Control event rate, CER = 12 / 600 = 0.02

      Therefore the relative risk = EER / CER = 0.05 / 0.02 = 2.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of haemoptysis is observed to have paroxysms of coughing and increasing wheezing. A single lesion which is well-defined is seen in the lower right lower lobe on a chest x-ray. There is no necrosis but biopsy shows numerous abnormal cells, occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses. Which diagnosis fits the clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are uncommon, slow growing, low-grade, malignant neoplasms, comprising 1-2% of all primary lung cancers.
      It is believed to be derived from surface of bronchial glandular epithelium. Mostly located centrally, they produce symptoms and signs of bronchial obstruction such as localized wheeze, non resolving recurrent pneumonitis, cough, chest pain, and fever. Haemoptysis is present in approximately 50% of the cases due to their central origin and hypervascularity.
      Central bronchial carcinoids are more common than the peripheral type and are seen as endobronchial nodules or hilar/perihilar mass closely related to the adjacent bronchus. Chest X-ray may not show the central lesion depending on how small it is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:
      – Idiopathic
      – Trauma, excessive manicuring
      – Infection: especially fungal
      – Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis
      – Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s
      – Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
      – Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).
      – Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan. What should be the preferred anticoagulant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.

      Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.

      Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
      1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
      2. Decrease in protein S
      3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legs

      Management options include:
      1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
      2. Warfarin contraindicated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection can occur when a pregnant woman is infected with the cytomegalovirus (CMV) and passes the virus to her unborn child. Infants infected with CMV during pregnancy can exhibit a range of symptoms, including jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly (abnormally small head size). These symptoms are consistent with congenital CMV infection.

      Given the mother’s HIV-positive status, the infant may have been at increased risk of acquiring other infections, including CMV, due to potential immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection in as many months. She has type-2 diabetes and started Empagliflozin (a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor) 4 months ago. You suspect recurrent urinary tract infections secondary to her empagliflozin. Where is the main site of action of the drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Selective sodium-glucose transporter-2 (SGLT2) is expressed in the proximal renal tubules and is responsible for the majority of the reabsorption of filtered glucose from the tubular lumen.
      Empagliflozin; SGLT2 inhibitors reduce glucose reabsorption and lower the renal threshold for glucose, thereby increasing urinary glucose excretion, thus increasing the risk of urinary tract infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip pain and an associated limp. She has a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia for which she completed treatment for last six months.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head is a pathological process that results from disruption of the blood supply to the bone and occurs most commonly in the femoral epiphysis. Patients usually present with pain and limited joint motion. The mechanism involves impaired circulation to a specific area that ultimately becomes necrotic. AVN is most frequently associated with high doses of oral and intravenous corticosteroids and prolonged duration of therapy. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy are usually also treated with corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with homocystinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyridoxine

      Explanation:

      In general, the aim is to keep the homocysteine (Hcy) concentration as close to normal as possible. In patients who are fully-responsive to pyridoxine, standard doses can lead to tHcy levels below 50 μmol/L (and sometimes within the normal range). Some patients who are partially-responsive to pyridoxine may be able to achieve a tHcy level below 50 μmol/L if they are also on a low-Met diet; for others it is not a realistic goal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1

      Explanation:

      The duration of these cell cycle phases varies considerably in different kinds of cells. For a typical rapidly proliferating human cell with a total cycle time of 24 hours, the G1 phase might last about 11 hours, S phase about 8 hours, G2 about 4 hours, and M about 1 hour. The proliferation of most animal cells is similarly regulated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In particular, a decision point in late G1, called the restriction point in animal cells, is the point at which the cell becomes committed to the cell cycle and after which extracellular proliferation stimulants are no longer required.. Although the proliferation of most cells is regulated primarily in G1, some cell cycles are instead controlled principally in G2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - From which cells is somatostatin secreted? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which cells is somatostatin secreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: D cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      The somatostatin-secreting D-cells comprise ,5% of the cells of the pancreatic islets. The D-cells have a complex morphology and may, via cellular process, interact with many more islet cells than suggested by their low number. D-cells are equipped with ATP-sensitive potassium channels (KATP channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin. Other members residing with her at the retirement home also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies is due to an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei and most commonly presents with these symptoms. The organism resides in burrows in a pattern specifically affecting the interdigital spaces and the skin folds of the arms and legs. The infection spreads from one person to another, especially in populated communities, through close contact.
      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vascular inflammation.
      Psoriasis rash is characterised by scaly plaques affecting the extensor surfaces of the body. Pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid both are bullous disorders of the skin. They may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions and there may be involvement in other sites; erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone...

    Incorrect

    • In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 23 year old girl presented with complaints of diplopia on looking towards...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old girl presented with complaints of diplopia on looking towards her right side. Which of the nerves will be effected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right abducens

      Explanation:

      This patient has complaints of diplopia in the right eye, when looking towards the right. Eyeball movements towards the right side are controlled by right lateral rectus muscle which is supplied by the abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain, especially 30 minutes after eating. This is associated with nausea and belching. She also describes constipation with occasional explosive diarrhoea. The stools are normally hard with mucus and she needs to strain with every motion. Abdominal pain is relieved after defecation but abdominal bloating persists. She wakes up an hour earlier each morning to finish her breakfast in order to prevent vomiting. She has missed work on a few occasions and feels that her weight has fluctuated. Past medical history includes scarlet fever. She is not on any regular medications except intermittent laxatives over the counter. Abdominal examination is normal. Rectal examination reveals an anal fissure. Investigation results: Haemoglobin (Hb 13.1 g/dL, White blood count (WBC) 6.0 × 109/L, Platelets 180× 109/L, Mean cell volume (MCV) 87 fL, International normalised ratio (INR) 1.0, Na+ 136 mmol/L, K+ 3.9 mmol/L, Urea 3.7 mmol/L, Creatinine 70 μmol/L, Albumin 39 glL. Liver function test normal. Anti-endomysial antibody negative. Thyroid function test normal. Gastroscopy normal. Flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy normal. Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scans are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis to account for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Overlap irritable bowel syndrome and functional dyspepsia

      Explanation:

      This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, of varying duration. It is a functional, not an organic problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.
      The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation.
      Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose.

      Other options are true:
      By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.
      Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine.
      Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for querying thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after she presented with a temperature of 38.9C. Her subsequent urea and electrolytes showed deteriorating renal function with a creatinine 3 times greater than her baseline. What is the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally

      Explanation:

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterised by the von Willebrand factor (vWF) microthrombi within the vessels of multiple organs. In this condition, the ADAMTS13 metalloprotease enzyme which is responsible for the breakdown of vWF multimer, is deficient, causing its build-up and leading to platelet clots that then decreases the circulating platelets, leading to bleeding in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepato-splenomegaly. Investigations reveal: Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22), Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 – 105), ALT 198 iu/l (5 – 35), AST 158 iu/l (1 – 31), Albumin 25 g/L (37 – 49), Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive, Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative, Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 22-year-old male has had complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly bends his...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male has had complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly bends his knees and rubs his nose. He is prone to loud vocalisations, sometimes including swear-words. A diagnosis of Gilles de la Tourette syndrome has been made. Which of the following is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is the most severe and rare of the tic syndromes, consisting of multiple tics involving both motor actions and vocalisation. Onset is usually in childhood. Symptoms include utterance of obscenities (coprolalia); echolalia (repetition of another person’s spoken words) and palilalia (involuntary repetition of words, phrases, or sentences).
      The underlying cause is unknown, with no particular imaging or standard histopathological abnormalities having been identified. The EEG shows non-specific abnormalities in about half of patients. However, more recent immunocytochemical studies have suggested altered dopamine uptake in the striatal system.
      Risperidone is an effective therapeutic option without the effects associated with chlorpromazine and haloperidol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
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