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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department at 3am complaining of an...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department at 3am complaining of an excruciating one-sided headache. He reports the pain is unbearable and situated behind his right eye. During the examination, his right eye appears red and watery, with a small pupil, and the patient seems restless. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has been experiencing these headaches every night for a few weeks. What medication can be administered for long-term prevention of these headaches?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is utilized to prevent cluster headaches in the long term, while sumatriptan is employed as an immediate rescue therapy in conjunction with high-flow oxygen. It is important to carefully read the question to ensure the correct medication is selected. Propranolol is used for migraine prevention, while sertraline, an SSRI, is used to treat depression and has a similar mechanism of action to sumatriptan.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.

      To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.1
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  • Question 2 - A 57-year-old man with no significant medical history is hospitalized after experiencing an...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with no significant medical history is hospitalized after experiencing an ischemic stroke. He arrived outside of the thrombolysis window and is given aspirin for the first few days. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, fasting glucose is 5.6 mmol/l, and fasting cholesterol is 3.9 mmol/l. He makes a remarkable recovery and is discharged with almost all of his previous functions restored. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should he be prescribed upon discharge (i.e. after 14 days)?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his right leg for the past three days. During the examination, it was observed that there was a weakness in the right knee flexion, but the knee extension was intact. Additionally, there was a weakness in the dorsal and plantar flexion of the right ankle, as well as the right flexor hallucis longus. The right ankle jerk was lost, but the knee-jerk was intact, and the plantar response was downgoing. Based on the most probable nerve that is damaged in this patient, what are the nerve roots that supply this nerve?

      Your Answer: L4-5, S1-3

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve is innervated by spinal nerves L4-5, S1-3. The patient exhibits weakness in all muscle groups below the knee, with an intact knee jerk but weak ankle jerk, indicating damage to the sciatic nerve. The iliohypogastric nerve is supplied by T12-L1, while the genitofemoral nerve is supplied by L1-2.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve in the body that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae. It divides into two branches, the tibial and common peroneal nerves, which supply the hamstring and adductor muscles. A sciatic nerve lesion can cause paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee. However, knee jerk reflexes remain intact while ankle and plantar reflexes are lost.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesions, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old man presents with a complaint of neck and arm pain that...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a complaint of neck and arm pain that has been ongoing for four months. He describes the pain as similar to 'electric shocks' and notes that it worsens when he turns his head. There is no history of trauma or any other apparent cause. The patient is in good health and not taking any medications. During the examination, it is noted that he has reduced sensation on the back of his thumb and middle finger. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C6 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics

      Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed with helpful mnemonics to remember them.

      Starting from the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt. C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of the thumb and index finger together.

      Moving down to C7, it covers the middle finger and palm of the hand. C8 covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome covers the area of the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. T6 covers the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.

      The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, which can be remembered by thinking of L for ligament, 1 for 1nguinal. L4 covers the knee caps, and to remember this, think of being down on all fours. L5 covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), and can be remembered by thinking of it as the largest of the five toes. Finally, the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe, while S2 and S3 cover the genitalia.

      Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in remembering these important landmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 5 - You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. While gazing straight...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. While gazing straight ahead, the patient's left eye deviates inward. When looking to the right, there is no apparent squint. However, when looking to the left, the patient cannot move the left eye outward, and double vision becomes more severe. What is the probable underlying issue?

      Your Answer: Left 6th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions

      The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.

      Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).

      In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.7
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old male carpenter visits the GP clinic complaining of right foot drop....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male carpenter visits the GP clinic complaining of right foot drop. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. During the examination, the doctor observed weakness in the right foot dorsiflexion and eversion. The patient also reported sensory loss on the dorsum of the right foot and lower lateral part of the right leg. No other neurological deficits were detected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: L5 nerve root compression

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from common peroneal nerve palsy, which may be caused by diabetes. This condition can result in weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion. L5 nerve root compression is a possible cause of foot drop, but it does not lead to weakness of foot eversion, so it is not the correct option. Sciatic nerve palsy can also cause foot drop, but it can also affect other nerves, resulting in weakness of foot plantar flexion and sensory loss of the sole of the foot, which is not present in this case. Stroke is a central cause of foot drop, but the absence of upper motor neuron signs suggests common peroneal nerve pathology is more likely. Polyneuropathy involves multiple nerves, so it is not the correct option.

      Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion

      A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, which divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The most notable symptom of this type of nerve damage is foot drop, which is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot.

      In addition to foot drop, other symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion may include weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as the extensor hallucis longus muscle. Sensory loss may also occur over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and there may be wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for this type of nerve injury. With proper care and management, it may be possible to improve symptoms and prevent further damage to the affected nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements regarding migraines is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding migraines is accurate?

      Your Answer: Prokinetic agents should be used in children with migraine due to the high incidence of gastrointestinal symptoms

      Correct Answer: Typical aura include a spreading scintillating scotoma ('jagged crescent')

      Explanation:

      Caution should be exercised when administering prokinetic agents like metoclopramide to children.

      Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine

      Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.

      In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her General Practitioner of tingling and numbness in both feet that has been worsening over a period of six months.
      Examination reveals that she has an altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Her urea and electrolyte levels are normal. Her blood glucose is normal and there is no history of alcohol ingestion. She is, however, taking a number of medications for the secondary presentation of her vascular problems.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate medication from the list below.

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Medication Analysis for Peripheral Neuropathy: Simvastatin, Bendroflumethiazide, Clopidogrel, Ramipril, and Spironolactone

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition characterized by numbness and tingling in the extremities, often accompanied by a loss of ankle reflexes. Statins, such as simvastatin, are a known risk factor for peripheral neuropathy, with onset ranging from the first dose to years of use. Bendroflumethiazide, on the other hand, is not associated with neuropathy but can cause electrolyte imbalances leading to central neurological disturbances. Clopidogrel, an anti-platelet medication, is unlikely to contribute to peripheral neuropathy. Ramipril, a blood-pressure-lowering medication, can cause cough and dizziness but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. Spironolactone, a diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. It is important to consider medication use when evaluating patients with peripheral neuropathy symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      72.8
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and vascular) is evaluated in memory clinic due to a recent decline in his memory and cognition. His mini-mental state score is 12 and he is started on memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is not a cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil and rivastigmine. While memantine does act at the serotonin and dopamine receptors, it acts as an antagonist and agonist respectively, rather than the options given.

      Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.

      Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.6
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  • Question 10 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness....

    Correct

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of her face upon waking up this morning. She denies any weakness in her limbs, difficulty swallowing, or changes in her vision. Upon examination, you observe paralysis on the upper and lower right side of her face. Which of the following symptoms would be most indicative of Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Sensory loss over the distribution of the facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Ramsey Hunt syndrome can be diagnosed based on the presence of a vesicular rash near the ear, which is often accompanied by hyperacusis in approximately one-third of patients.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the little finger. What is the probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The Ulnar Nerve: Overview, Branches, and Patterns of Damage

      The ulnar nerve is a nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 spinal nerves. It provides motor innervation to several muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. It also provides sensory innervation to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects.

      The ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm before entering the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone. The nerve has several branches, including the muscular branch, palmar cutaneous branch, dorsal cutaneous branch, superficial branch, and deep branch. These branches supply various muscles and skin areas in the hand.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow. When damaged at the wrist, it can result in a claw hand deformity, which involves hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and hypothenar muscles, as well as sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers. When damaged at the elbow, the same symptoms may occur, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to note that in distal lesions, the clawing may be more severe, which is known as the ulnar paradox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic with a 4-month history of right-sided hearing loss. She reports occasional buzzing in her right ear and feeling unsteady. She has no significant medical history and denies any recent infections. On examination, Rinne's test is positive in both ears, with Weber's test lateralizing to her left ear. There is no evidence of nystagmus, and her coordination remains intact. Apart from an absent right-sided corneal reflex, the rest of her cranial-nerve examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cerebellopontine angle with contrast

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Tumours: Importance of MRI with Contrast

      Acoustic tumours require accurate diagnosis for effective treatment. The most definitive diagnostic test is gadolinium-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the cerebellopontine angle. This test can detect tumours as small as 1-2 mm in diameter, while fine-cut computed tomography (CT) scanning may miss tumours as large as 1.5 cm even with intravenous contrast enhancement.

      Audiometry is also important, but only 5% of patients with acoustic tumours will have a normal audiogram. If MRI is contraindicated, air-contrast cisternography can detect relatively small intracanalicular tumours with high sensitivity.

      Fine-cut CT scanning of the internal auditory canal with contrast can rule out medium to large tumours, but cannot reliably detect tumours smaller than 1-1.5 cm. CT scanning without contrast can rule out medium-sized tumours, but is not reliable for detecting smaller tumours.

      It is critical to use gadolinium contrast in MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, as non-enhanced MRI may miss small tumours. Therefore, MRI with contrast is the most important diagnostic test for acoustic tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man, who was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation but has not...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, who was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation but has not yet started any anticoagulant medication, presents with new-onset weakness on the left side of his body. He is also experiencing difficulty speaking and has lost vision on the left side. He contacts emergency services and is transported to the hospital where he undergoes an urgent CT head and MR angiogram. The results confirm a proximal anterior circulation occlusive stroke that occurred approximately 3 hours ago.

      What is the most definitive course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange thrombectomy AND thrombolysis as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, it is recommended to arrange both thrombolysis and thrombectomy as soon as possible. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which suggest offering both treatments to patients diagnosed with an acute proximal anterior circulation occlusive stroke confirmed on CT or MR angiogram. Thrombectomy alone can be offered up to 6 hours post-presentation. Giving a stat dose of aspirin is also part of the acute treatment of ischaemic stroke, but it is not a definitive treatment option. Starting apixaban for atrial fibrillation is not appropriate in the initial management of acute ischaemic stroke, as anticoagulant treatment is usually delayed for at least 2 weeks to reduce the risk of haemorrhagic transformation.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is observed that he is experiencing behavioural issues. The GP recommends additional testing with a potential diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia (FTD) or Lewy body dementia (LBD) being considered.
      What aspect of the patient's medical history would suggest that LBD is the more probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluctuating confusion and hallucination

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Frontotemporal Dementia and Lewy Body Dementia

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and Lewy body dementia (LBD) are two types of dementia that can cause a range of symptoms. Understanding the signs and symptoms of these conditions can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

      Fluctuating confusion and hallucination are common signs of LBD, which is caused by protein deposits in nerve cells in the brain. People with LBD may also experience Parkinson’s disease symptoms such as rigid muscles and tremors. On the other hand, FTD is characterized by an insidious onset and a gradual progression. Personality changes, social-conduct problems, and a decline in judgment and empathy are common features of FTD.

      While memory loss is a more prominent symptom in early Alzheimer’s, it can also occur in advanced stages of FTD and LBD. However, relatively preserved memory is more characteristic of FTD in its early stages. Additionally, FTD tends to have an onset before age 65, with some cases diagnosed in individuals as young as 17 years old.

      Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of FTD and LBD can help with early diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, dysphasia, and right-sided hemianopia. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, dysphasia, and right-sided hemianopia. He has a medical history of gout, recurrent UTIs, dementia, and diabetes mellitus. A CT head is unremarkable, and an MRI head reveals a left-sided infarct. Which of the patient's pre-existing conditions elevate his chances of experiencing an ischemic stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The following factors increase the risk of ischaemic stroke: age, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. However, gout, recurrent UTIs, and dementia do not have an impact on stroke risk. Taking aspirin can lower the risk of stroke.

      Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.

      Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.

      In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for salty foods. She lost her job as a teacher because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a rare form of dementia that typically affects younger patients, with onset between 55 and 65 years old. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, early memory impairment is not a characteristic symptom of FTD. Instead, early personality and behavior changes are core features. Consensus guidelines suggest diagnostic criteria that include insidious onset and gradual progression, decline in social interpersonal conduct, early impairment in regulation of personal conduct, early emotional blunting, and early loss of insight. Supportive diagnostic features may include behavioral disorders, speech and language changes, and physical signs. Other forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease (LBD), multiple sclerosis (MS), and vascular dementia, have different characteristic symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her left breast that spread to her back about 4 weeks ago, and was diagnosed with shingles. However, she has been experiencing intense shooting pains and tenderness in the affected area since then, despite trying both paracetamol and ibuprofen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The woman is suffering from post-herpetic neuralgia and NICE suggests starting treatment with amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man visits a memory clinic accompanied by his daughter. He has...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits a memory clinic accompanied by his daughter. He has a medical history of hypertension and is a former smoker. The daughter reports that he had been stable for several months before experiencing sudden declines on multiple occasions. The physical examination is normal, and his MoCA score is 18 out of 30. He denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vascular dementia

      Explanation:

      The gradual decline in cognitive function, along with hypertension and smoking as risk factors for cerebrovascular disease, suggest a diagnosis of vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by damage to the brain from reduced blood flow or bleeding due to cerebrovascular disease. In contrast, Alzheimer’s dementia progresses slowly over time, while frontotemporal dementia affects personality, behavior, language, and attention. Lewy body dementia is characterized by hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, while Parkinson’s dementia occurs in patients with Parkinson’s disease and affects their mental function and memory, along with physical signs of PD.

      Understanding Vascular Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive impairment that is caused by different mechanisms resulting from cerebrovascular disease. It is the second most common form of dementia after Alzheimer’s disease. Vascular dementia is often recognized as the most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment. Early detection and an accurate diagnosis are crucial in preventing vascular dementia.

      The prevalence of vascular dementia is estimated to be around 17% of dementia cases in the UK. The incidence of vascular dementia increases with age and is often associated with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack, atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, smoking, obesity, coronary heart disease, and a family history of stroke or cardiovascular disease. Rarely, vascular dementia can be inherited as in the case of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy.

      Patients with vascular dementia typically present with a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function, focal neurological abnormalities, difficulty with attention and concentration, seizures, memory disturbance, gait disturbance, speech disturbance, and emotional disturbance. Diagnosis is made based on a comprehensive history and physical examination, formal screening for cognitive impairment, medical review to exclude medication cause of cognitive decline, and MRI scan.

      Treatment for vascular dementia is mainly symptomatic with the aim to address individual problems and provide support to the patient and carers. It is important to detect and address cardiovascular risk factors to slow down the progression of the disease. Non-pharmacological management is tailored to the individual and may include cognitive stimulation programs, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, and animal-assisted therapy. Pharmacological management is limited, and there is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms. Only consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia, or dementia with Lewy bodies. There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia, and no randomized trials have evaluated statins for vascular dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness, which appears to be a lower motor neuron palsy. There are no other neurological symptoms on examination, and her ears appear normal. You diagnose her with Bell's palsy and prescribe prednisolone. What is the crucial next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe artifical tears and advise eye taping at night

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of essential tremor instead of Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched

      Explanation:

      Typical symptoms of Parkinson’s include bradykinesia, postural instability, and initially unilateral symptoms. On the other hand, alcohol can alleviate essential tremor symptoms.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you are tasked with evaluating...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you are tasked with evaluating an 82-year-old man who has arrived with confusion. The patient has provided little history, but his wife reports that his condition has been deteriorating over the past week. He has also been unusually irritable and not acting like himself. The patient has abstained from alcohol for many years. He is responsive to voice and has an AMT score of 1. The patient appears dehydrated and emits a strong odor of urine. Although neurological examination is challenging, he has normal tone and reflexes, and his pupils are equal and reactive. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delirium

      Explanation:

      The man is experiencing acute confusion and impaired consciousness, which is indicative of delirium rather than dementia. The presence of dehydration and a smell of urine suggests a possible urinary tract infection as a trigger for the delirium. Korsakoff syndrome is unlikely as it is an amnestic disorder caused by thiamine deficiency associated with prolonged alcohol ingestion. The symptoms described are more likely to be mistaken for Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which can also cause confusion and altered consciousness. There is no evidence to suggest an acute psychotic episode. Treatment for Wernicke’s encephalopathy involves thiamine replacement.

      Delirium vs. Dementia: Understanding the Differences

      Delirium and dementia are two conditions that are often confused with each other. While both can cause confusion and cognitive impairment, there are some key differences between the two. Delirium is a sudden onset of confusion and disorientation, often accompanied by changes in consciousness and perception. Dementia, on the other hand, is a gradual decline in cognitive function that occurs over time.

      Factors that can help distinguish delirium from dementia include the acute onset of symptoms, impairment of consciousness, fluctuation of symptoms (such as being worse at night or having periods of normality), abnormal perception (such as illusions and hallucinations), agitation, fear, and delusions. These symptoms are often more pronounced in delirium than in dementia.

      It is important to understand the differences between delirium and dementia, as they require different approaches to treatment. Delirium is often reversible if the underlying cause can be identified and treated, while dementia is a progressive condition that cannot be cured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache mainly around his left eye, associated with left-sided eye watering. He has had several similar episodes of pain over the past few months, each lasting about 2–3 hours.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Cluster Headache from Other Headache Disorders

      Cluster headache is a severe headache disorder that primarily affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The pain is localized around one eye and can last from a few minutes up to three hours. Lacrimation and nasal congestion may occur simultaneously, and symptoms tend to occur frequently for several weeks followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years. It is important to distinguish cluster headache from other headache disorders, such as brain tumors, giant cell arteritis (GCA), migraine, and tension headache. Brain tumors may present with signs of raised intracranial pressure, while GCA typically affects those over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, and jaw claudication. Migraine is characterized by recurrent episodes of headache accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, nausea, and vomiting, while tension headache is typically bilateral and described as a band-like pain across the forehead. Associated eye watering is not a feature of tension headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with a facial droop. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with a facial droop. Upon examination, he displays a crooked smile that droops on the right side. He is unable to close his right eye or wrinkle the right side of his forehead. There are no signs of weakness or sensory changes in his upper or lower limbs. What is the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy affects the lower motor neurons and results in weakness of the entire side of the face. A left cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion would cause left-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing. However, lateral medullary syndrome, caused by ischemia to the lateral medulla oblongata, would present with vertigo, dizziness, nystagmus, ataxia, nausea and vomiting, and dysphagia. A left cranial nerve VII upper motor neuron lesion would result in right-sided facial weakness with forehead sparing, while a right cranial nerve VII lower motor neuron lesion would cause right-sided facial weakness without forehead sparing.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
    Which ONE of the following may indicate...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
      Which ONE of the following may indicate a potentially serious pathology and hence requires referral as an emergency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Back pain can have various causes, some of which may require urgent medical attention. Perineal anaesthesia, which involves numbness in the perineal, buttock, and inner thigh areas, is a red flag for back pain and may indicate cauda equina syndrome. This condition involves compression or damage to the tail of the spinal cord and requires urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for diagnosis. Other symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include severe or progressive back pain, new urinary or fecal incontinence, and lower limb weakness. Unilateral leg pain that is worse than low back pain may suggest sciatica, which can be managed conservatively without red flags. Pain radiating to the buttock on one side may also indicate nerve root irritation and can be managed in primary care if there are no red flags. However, new back pain in patients under 20 or over 55 years old should be taken seriously and may require urgent referral for further investigation. Localized neurological signs may indicate nerve root irritation, but do not necessarily require emergency referral. Red flags for back pain, such as constant, non-mechanical pain, thoracic pain, past history of malignant tumor, prolonged use of corticosteroids, and unexplained weight loss, require thorough work-up and consideration of imaging and specialist referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner by her daughter who...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner by her daughter who is concerned that she has been experiencing a few falls recently. She reveals that she has been getting confused and forgetful for the past two weeks. She has been complaining of dizziness and has vomited on a couple of occasions in the same time period. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension and osteoporosis.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma (SDH)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of intracranial hemorrhage

      Intracranial hemorrhage can have various causes and presentations. Here are some key points to differentiate between different types of intracranial hemorrhage:

      Chronic subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage can be spontaneous or caused by head trauma. Symptoms tend to develop gradually and may fluctuate. They include headache, vomiting, personality changes, memory disturbances, and loss of consciousness. Patients with a history of AF and recurrent falls are at high risk of developing a chronic SDH.

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH): This type of hemorrhage occurs when blood accumulates in the space between the arachnoid and pia mater. The most common cause is rupture of a Berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis. The classical presentation of SAH is a sudden-onset, severe ‘thunderclap’ headache often accompanied by vomiting and meningism. The presentation is usually acute.

      Acute subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage occurs due to tearing of cortical bridging veins leading to bleeding into the subdural space. An acute SDH usually follows a significant head injury. Loss of consciousness may occur immediately or a few hours after the injury.

      Extradural hemorrhage: This type of hemorrhage is caused by the rupture of one of the meningeal arteries that run between the dura and the skull. It usually occurs following a significant head injury often in younger patients. There is classically a lucid interval following the injury, followed several hours later by rapid deterioration resulting in loss of consciousness.

      Ischemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA): This type of event occurs due to a lack of blood flow to the brain. Patients with risk factors such as AF and hypertension are at higher risk. Classical CVA symptoms include sudden-onset unilateral weakness, speech difficulties, or visual loss which do not resolve within 24 hours. However, the patient’s symptoms in this case are not typical for a CVA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 92-year-old male was admitted to the stroke ward with right-sided facial droop...

    Incorrect

    • A 92-year-old male was admitted to the stroke ward with right-sided facial droop and hemiplegia. CT head revealed a significant infarct in the left middle cerebral artery. The patient has finished a 2-week course of high-dose aspirin (300mg) for the management of an acute ischemic stroke. What is the best choice for secondary prevention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      The preferred antiplatelet for secondary prevention following a stroke is clopidogrel 75mg, as it reduces the risk of major adverse cardiovascular events. It is recommended for patients who have had a transient ischaemic attack or confirmed stroke after two weeks of high-dose aspirin. Low-dose aspirin (75mg) and modified-release dipyridamole can be used as an alternative if clopidogrel is contraindicated. High-dose aspirin (300 mg) is only indicated in the first 2 weeks after an acute ischaemic stroke. Anticoagulants such as DOACs and warfarin are used to prevent clot formation and embolisation in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) to reduce the risk of stroke. However, since there is no evidence of AF in this patient, these options are not applicable.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of muscle weakness and pins and needles in both her feet which has now started to spread up into her legs. She reports having a stomach bug 3 weeks ago.

      During examination, Sophie is apyrexial. There is reduced tone in both lower limbs with reduced knee jerk reflexes and altered sensation. However, upper limb neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stephen’s symptoms of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy and hyporeflexia strongly suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, likely triggered by a recent gastrointestinal infection. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, presents with muscle fatigue and ocular manifestations, but normal tone, sensation, and reflexes. Polymyositis causes proximal muscle weakness, while acute transverse myelitis presents with paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. However, Stephen’s lack of bladder/bowel dysfunction and back pain, as well as the history of gastrointestinal infection, make Guillain-Barre syndrome the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). She does not have a visual field deficit on confrontation testing and makes a good neurological recovery within seven days, being able to walk unaided. She is left with minor weakness of her right hand.
      What advice is she most likely to be given by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must not drive for 1 month

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following a Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, patients must not drive for at least one month, regardless of the severity. If clinical recovery is satisfactory, non-HGV drivers may resume driving after one month. However, if residual neurological deficits persist after one month, including visual field defects, cognitive defects, and impaired limb function, patients must not drive until these signs have fully resolved. Minor limb weakness alone does not require notification to the DVLA unless restriction to certain types of vehicles is needed.

      If a patient has only minor weakness to the hand, they can resume driving after one month. However, if they wish to drive a group 2 vehicle, such as a large goods vehicle (LGV), they must wait at least two years. The DVLA may refuse or revoke a license for one year following a stroke or TIA, but patients can be considered for licensing after this period if there is no residual impairment likely to affect safe driving and no other significant risk factors. Licensing may be subject to satisfactory medical reports, including exercise electrocardiographic (ECG) testing.

      In cases of doubt, driving assessments may be carried out at specialist rehabilitation centers. It is essential to contact the DVLA for an overview of the main restrictions for drivers with neurological and other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man presents with sudden-onset back pain radiating down to his feet....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with sudden-onset back pain radiating down to his feet. He reports weakness in his legs and a tingling sensation around his scrotum. He has experienced urinary incontinence a few times today. Upon examination, he displays decreased power, tone, and sensation in both legs and absent ankle reflexes.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Back Pain with Neurological Symptoms

      Back pain with neurological symptoms can be a sign of various conditions. Here are some of the differential diagnoses to consider:

      Cauda Equina Syndrome
      This condition occurs when the lumbar and sacral nerve roots are compressed, leading to bilateral sciatica, neurological deficit in the legs, urinary retention or incontinence, faecal incontinence, and saddle paraesthesia. It is an emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent irreversible damage to the spinal nerves.

      Guillain–Barré Syndrome (GBS)
      GBS is a rare acute polyneuropathy that causes gradually worsening, ascending muscle weakness, usually starting in the legs and potentially affecting respiratory function. It rarely presents with sensory symptoms, making it an unlikely diagnosis for a patient with acute back pain and sciatica.

      Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
      MS is a chronic inflammatory condition of the central nervous system that leads to demyelination. Patients may present with various neurological symptoms, such as visual disturbance, sensory loss, limb weakness, or urinary symptoms. However, sudden onset of back pain is not a typical feature of MS.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Spinal Cord
      This rare condition is caused by untreated vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with gradually developing symptoms, such as unsteadiness, leg weakness, sensory or visual disturbances, and memory problems. However, lower motor-neurone signs in the legs and acute back pain are not typical features of subacute spinal cord degeneration.

      Urinary-Tract Infection (UTI)
      An upper UTI (pyelonephritis) may cause back or loin pain, rigors, vomiting, and urinary symptoms, such as dysuria, increased urinary frequency, or incontinence. However, bilateral sciatica and lower motor-neurone signs are not typical features of a UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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