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Question 1
Incorrect
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You see a 3-month old baby girl with her mother. She is worried about her daughter's weight gain as she seems to be struggling. The baby is formula fed and frequently vomits after feeds. She also has loose stools which have been blood stained today. Her mother has noticed that she develops a raised red rash around her mouth after feeds. The baby seems to experience abdominal pain after feeds and draws her knees up to her stomach.
You suspect that the baby has cows milk protein allergy and discuss this with her mother before referring her for acute admission under the paediatric team for urgent assessment.
Which statement below regarding cows' milk protein allergy is correct?Your Answer: Approximately 50% of infants with cows milk protein allergy are also intolerant to soya milk
Correct Answer: Typically presents in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants
Explanation:To confirm the suspected IgE mediated allergy diagnosis, an atopy patch test is utilized.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are working in a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in her 10-year-old daughter who has developed new pustular, honey-coloured crusted lesions over her chin. She is otherwise healthy with normal vital signs and no evidence of lymphadenopathy on examination. She has no known allergies to any medications and is usually in good health.
You diagnose localised non-bullous impetigo.
The daughter is scheduled to go on a field trip to the zoo the next day and is very excited about it. The mother asks if it is safe for her daughter to go on the field trip.
What is your plan for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and advise them that the child should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed
Explanation:Referral or admission is not necessary for this straightforward primary care case, even if there is suspicion or confirmation of fusidic acid resistance. However, prescribing topical antibiotics is an option. It is important to advise the patient that he cannot attend school or go on his school trip until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment or until the lesions have crusted and healed.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with symptoms that meet the criteria for a diagnosis of mild attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). You are considering referring the child to the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS). Her father would like information about managing this condition.
What is the most suitable advice to provide regarding the management of ADHD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You can arrange referral to a parent-training programme even before a formal diagnosis
Explanation:Managing Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD): Myths and Facts
Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects children and adults. Managing ADHD can be challenging, and there are many myths and misconceptions about the condition and its treatment. Here are some common myths and facts about managing ADHD:
Myth: Referral to a parent-training program should wait for a formal diagnosis.
Fact: If the problems are having an adverse impact on development or family life, a General Practitioner should consider referral to a parent-training and/or education program even before a formal diagnosis. The parent program may include skills to manage problem behavior and communicate with the child and help to understand the child’s emotions and behavior.Myth: Eliminating artificial coloring and additives from the diet is important.
Fact: NICE doesn’t recommend this unless there seems to be a link between deterioration in behavior and consumption of artificial additives.Myth: A food diary to seek a relationship between specific foods and symptoms is unhelpful.
Fact: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that if there seems to be a clear relationship between specific foods and symptoms, parents should keep a diary recording food and drinks taken and behavior. If the diary supports a relationship, then referral to a dietician should be offered.Myth: Dietary fatty acid supplements (omega 3 and omega 6) are beneficial.
Fact: Many parents have experimented with these supplements, but according to NICE guidelines, these should not be routinely recommended.Myth: Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) can be prescribed immediately.
Fact: In more severe attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder or where other measures have not been successful, medication is usually recommended. Drug treatment should not be started in primary care. Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) is the most commonly used drug.In conclusion, managing ADHD requires a comprehensive approach that includes parent training, dietary changes, and medication when necessary. It is important to separate myths from facts to ensure that individuals with ADHD receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Child with congenital heart disease
Explanation:Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Contraindicated
- Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to Gelatin:
- Contraindication: The MMR vaccine contains gelatin as a stabilizer. Individuals with a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin should not receive the MMR vaccine due to the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
- Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to MMR Vaccination:
- Contraindication: If a person has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the MMR vaccine, it is contraindicated to administer the vaccine again. An alternative plan should be discussed with an allergist or immunologist.
- Pregnant Woman:
- Contraindication: The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the potential risk to the developing fetus. Women are advised to wait at least one month after receiving the MMR vaccine before becoming pregnant.
- Severely Immunosuppressed Individual:
- Contraindication: Individuals who are severely immunosuppressed (e.g., due to chemotherapy, high-dose corticosteroids, or advanced HIV/AIDS) should not receive the MMR vaccine. The live attenuated viruses in the vaccine could potentially cause disease in these individuals.
Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Safe
- Child with Congenital Heart Disease:
- Safe to Administer: Children with congenital heart disease can safely receive the MMR vaccine. Congenital heart disease itself is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine, and these children should be protected from measles, mumps, and rubella, which could potentially be more severe if contracted.
- Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to Gelatin:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days which initially started with a few days of cold symptoms. He describes it as ‘the worst cough I've ever had’. He has bouts of coughing followed by an inspiratory gasp. This is usually worse at night and can be so severe that he sometimes vomits. He is otherwise fit and well and confirms he completed all his childhood immunisations. Examination of his chest is unremarkable.
What is the most suitable initial management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start a course of oral clarithromycin
Explanation:If a patient presents with symptoms consistent with whooping cough within 21 days of onset, the recommended first-line treatment is a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin or azithromycin. Starting treatment within this timeframe can reduce the risk of spread. It is not recommended to delay treatment or offer a booster vaccination as initial management. Doxycycline is not the first-line antibiotic for whooping cough.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is an example of a primary accident prevention strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stair guards
Explanation:Accidents and Preventive Healthcare
Accidents are a common cause of childhood deaths, with road traffic accidents being the most common cause of fatal accidents. Boys and children from lower social classes are more likely to have an accident. Around 15-20% of children attend Emergency Departments in the course of a year due to an accident. Preventive healthcare can be divided into primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention strategies. Primary prevention aims to prevent accidents or diseases from happening, while secondary prevention aims to prevent injury from the accident or disease. Tertiary prevention aims to limit the impact of the injury. Examples of preventive healthcare strategies include teaching road safety, wearing seat belts, and teaching parents first aid. Some strategies, such as reducing driving speed, may have a role in both primary and secondary accident prevention. By implementing these strategies, we can reduce the number of accidents and improve the overall health and safety of children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old boy is brought by mum for his routine check. Which one of the following is not part of the 6 week routine check?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cover test for squint
Explanation:At this stage, a cover test is not necessary.
The six-week baby examination is a crucial part of the Healthy Child Programme, which includes newborn screening elements such as physical examinations, blood spot tests, and hearing screens. This examination is usually conducted by a GP or other health professionals, and its purpose is to identify any potential issues that may not have been apparent during the initial hospital examination. The four key issues that are checked for during this examination are congenital heart disease, developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), congenital cataract, and undescended testes.
During the examination, the baby’s weight and head circumference are measured and plotted onto a growth chart in the red book. The baby’s color, behavior, breathing, and skin are also checked for any abnormalities. The heart is examined for any murmurs or palpitations, and the femoral pulses are felt. If there are any concerns, a pediatrician should be consulted. DDH is checked for by looking for leg length differences or asymmetry of hip creases, and performing Barlows and Ortolani’s tests. The eyes are checked for congenital cataract, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day ophthalmology assessment. The testes are checked for by feeling the scrotum, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day pediatric assessment.
Aside from the physical examination, this is also an opportunity to address any concerns from the parents, such as feeding or growth, and provide health promotion advice, such as immunizations or smoking cessation. The mother should also be screened for postnatal depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A toddler has had a seizure. He has been unwell for a few hours and has a temperature of 38.2°C. There are no concerning features in his previous medical history.
Which of the following is most compatible with a diagnosis of ‘simple febrile seizure’?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age of child 18 months
Explanation:Febrile seizures are most common in children between 6 months and 6 years old, with the highest incidence at 18 months. They are associated with fever and affect 2-4% of European children. While tonic-clonic movements are typical during febrile seizures, complex febrile seizures may present with focal or myoclonic features. If a seizure lasts longer than 15 minutes, it is considered complex and may require hospitalization. Signs of meningeal irritation, such as neck stiffness and Kernig’s sign, suggest a possible CNS infection and require further evaluation. Recurrence of seizures within 24 hours or during the same illness may indicate a complex febrile seizure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the surgery for his first measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccination.
What is the most likely contraindication to his receiving the vaccine today?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has an upper respiratory tract infection and his temperature is 38 °C
Explanation:Understanding Contraindications and Common Reactions to Vaccines
When considering vaccination, it is important to be aware of any contraindications or potential reactions. Acute febrile illness and severe reactions to previous vaccinations are contraindications to any vaccine. Live vaccines should not be given within three weeks of each other, and should not be given to immunosuppressed patients. However, egg allergy is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine, and mild reactions such as local erythema and induration are common. Similarly, mild symptoms such as rashes or lymphadenopathy are common following live vaccines, and should not deter vaccination. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.
Which statement is true of notifiable diseases?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Notification is a statutory duty
Explanation:Disease Notification and Surveillance
The notification of diseases has a long history, dating back to the great epidemics of the past. With improvements in hygiene and vaccination, infectious diseases have become less common, and many GP disease notification returns are inconsistent. However, it is still a legal obligation to report diseases. It is also essential that hospitals are informed of potential infectious diseases when patients are referred. The government uses various data sources for disease surveillance and increasingly relies on electronic data returns. Mumps remains a risk to unimmunised populations.
Mumps: Epidemiology, Surveillance, and Control
Mumps is a viral infection that can cause swelling of the salivary glands, fever, and headache. It is still a risk to unimmunised populations. To control the spread of mumps, it is essential to have effective epidemiology, surveillance, and control measures in place. This includes reporting cases to health authorities, monitoring outbreaks, and promoting vaccination. With the help of electronic data returns and other surveillance methods, it is possible to track the spread of mumps and take appropriate action to prevent further transmission. By working together, we can reduce the impact of mumps and other infectious diseases on our communities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A seven-week-old baby is brought to the surgery by his mother for his postnatal check. He was born at 36 weeks weighing 2.7kg. On examination the GP finds that the left testicle is not present in the scrotum or groin.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review at three months of age
Explanation:Undescended Testes in Infants
Undescended testes, also known as cryptorchidism, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. It is more common in unilateral cases, occurring four times more often than bilateral cases. At birth, the prevalence of undescended testes is 3.7%, which decreases to 1.0% by three months of age.
It is important to review infants with unilateral undescended testes at three months of age and refer them before six months of age if the condition persists. While most cases will resolve on their own, surgical intervention may be necessary to prevent complications such as impaired fertility, testicular cancer, and testicular torsion. It is not appropriate to reassure and discharge infants with undescended testes, as some cases will require intervention.
In cases where a disorder of sexual development is suspected, referral for endocrine and genetic testing may be useful. It is crucial to address undescended testes early to prevent potential complications and ensure proper treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A father brings his 8-week old son for a baby check. Inspiratory stridor is noted on auscultation when he is laid on his back with audible stridor at the bedside too. He is otherwise thriving with normal length, weight and head circumference. His father notes that he has noisier breathing when he is feeding. You advise him of the likely diagnosis and refer him to a paediatrician for assessment.
The father asks how likely this condition is to resolve and whether surgery is required, how do you answer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99% of cases resolve spontaneously by 24 months, surgery is not usually required
Explanation:Understanding Laryngomalacia: A Common Congenital Laryngeal Abnormality
Laryngomalacia is a congenital laryngeal abnormality that affects both sexes equally and accounts for 60-70% of cases of congenital stridor. It is characterised by the flaccidity of the supraglottic structures, resulting in a soft and floppy larynx that collapses during breathing. This condition typically presents within the first few weeks of life, with noisy respiration and inspiratory stridor.
There are three types of laryngomalacia, with type 1 involving the tightening of the aryepiglottic folds, type 2 involving redundant tissue in the supraglottic region, and type 3 being associated with other disorders such as neuromuscular weakness or gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
The most common symptom of laryngomalacia is inspiratory stridor, which is high-pitched and crowing. This is usually intermittent and occurs in the supine position, when feeding, or when the child is agitated. While symptoms tend to increase in severity during the first 8 months, they usually resolve by 18-24 months. Respiratory distress, failure to thrive, and cyanosis are rare.
Oxygen saturation should be monitored, and blood gases taken if there is desaturation. Laryngoscopy and bronchoscopy are only indicated if there are severe features or diagnostic difficulty. In most cases, laryngomalacia resolves spontaneously by 18-24 months. Symptomatic relief may be provided by hyperextending the neck during episodes of stridor. Surgical intervention is only required with severe respiratory distress, such as tracheostomy, laryngoplasty, excision of redundant mucosa, laser epiglottopexy, or laser division of the aryepiglottic folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old baby is here for their initial vaccinations. What immunisations are recommended at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + rotavirus + Men B
Explanation:The vaccine regimen includes immunization against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenza type b, and hepatitis B, as well as vaccination against pneumococcus, rotavirus, and meningococcus B.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Regarding croup, which is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Both dexamethasone and prednisolone are approved for treating it
Explanation:Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline. While dexamethasone is the preferred and commonly used treatment for croup, prednisolone is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for croup in clinical guidelines. Dexamethasone is the standard corticosteroid used due to its efficacy and safety profile in managing croup symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the infant has been vomiting and regurgitating after every feeding with a cow's milk-based formula. The vomiting is not forceful, and there is no unusual coloration with blood or bile. The baby doesn't appear to be in significant distress, but the father has also noticed that the child has persistent diarrhea. The father had to switch to formula as the mother was unable to produce enough breast milk. He tried a soy milk-based formula on the advice of a friend, but it did not make any difference.
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extensive hydrolysed formula milk
Explanation:Soya milk may not be a suitable alternative for infants with cow’s milk protein allergy as many of them are also intolerant to it. Amino acid-based formula is the recommended management for severe cases or when extensive hydrolysed formula milk is ineffective.
Breastfeeding is encouraged if the mother eliminates cows milk proteins from her diet, but it may not be practical if she cannot produce enough milk for the child. For infants with mild to moderate cows milk protein allergy who are formula-fed, extensive hydrolysed milk formula is the first-line management.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD) may be managed with omeprazole or ranitidine, but only after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy. However, if the infant presents with persistent diarrhoea, cow’s milk protein allergy is a more likely diagnosis than GORD.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 14 week old bottle fed baby is brought in by Mum due to concerns of unsettled behavior after feeds, vomiting, loose stools, and perianal redness. The baby has mild to moderate infantile eczema, but otherwise, the examination is normal. The baby's growth is following the 50th centile. Mum suspects Cow's milk protein allergy. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula
Explanation:If there is a suspicion of cow’s milk protein allergy mediated by IgE, it is recommended to refer the child to secondary care for skin prick or IgE specific antigen blood testing. However, non-IgE mediated cow’s milk protein allergy can be managed in primary care. To begin with, a trial of cow’s milk exclusion for 2-4 weeks should be attempted. In the case of exclusively breastfed babies, the mother should exclude cow’s milk from her diet. For bottle-fed babies, the first line of treatment is a trial of extensively hydrolysed formula.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A plan to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and decide goals to reduce the risk of harm and how to best protect the child while clarifying the responsibilities of the people involved
Explanation:Child Protection Plans
At an initial Child Protection conference, the decision to make a child subject to a Protection Plan is made. This plan is created if a child is at continuing risk of significant harm. The purpose of the Child Protection Plan is to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and to decide on goals to reduce the risk of harm and protect the child. It should also clarify the responsibilities of the people involved and actions to be taken. Additionally, the plan should outline how the processes will be monitored and evaluated.
Overall, the Child Protection Plan is a crucial tool in ensuring the safety and well-being of vulnerable children. It provides a framework for all parties involved to work together towards a common goal of protecting the child from harm. By setting clear goals and responsibilities, the plan helps to ensure that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same objectives. Regular monitoring and evaluation of the plan also help to ensure that it remains effective and relevant over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is seen with a markedly painful left leg. He is holding it immobile and is reluctant to walk. His parents report that over the last 48 hours he has not been himself, the pain in the leg has become more prominent and the child has had a temperature.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9°C and there is a slight swelling with extreme tenderness over the proximal left tibia. The area is warm to touch and any movement of the child's leg cause severe pain. The knee joint itself appears normal with no effusion; and the hip and ankle joints also appear normal.
What is the likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Osteomyelitis in Children
Osteomyelitis is a common infection in children that affects the metaphysis of long bones, particularly the proximal tibia and distal femur. The condition presents with a painful, pseudoparetic limb associated with an acute febrile illness. Swelling, extreme tenderness, and warmth to the touch can be observed at the site of the infection, with visible erythema. Movement of the affected limb causes marked pain. In infants, the onset can be more insidious.
This 6-year-old child has a typical presentation of osteomyelitis, with no history of injury and the presence of fever and recent onset pointing towards an acute infective aetiology. Tibial fracture would be unlikely in this age group. The normal clinical examination of the knee, hip, and ankle joints rules out septic arthritis. Although juvenile idiopathic arthritis (or Juvenile chronic arthritis) can cause an acute febrile illness, it typically causes arthritis and a characteristic salmon-pink rash, which is not reported in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.
What is the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics
Explanation:If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is crucial to discuss this immediately with a paediatrics specialist. Similarly, if a child shows signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality during this check, urgent attention from a specialist is necessary. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be incorrect, as they are abnormal and require prompt attention. Referring the child to the emergency department is also not the best course of action, as they may not have the necessary expertise to deal with this issue. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in two weeks would also be inappropriate, as the child needs urgent attention from the appropriate specialist.
Types of Congenital Heart Disease
Congenital heart disease refers to heart defects that are present at birth. There are two main types of congenital heart disease: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart defects are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defects (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSDs are the most common acyanotic heart defect, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common but tend to be diagnosed in adults as they present later.
Cyanotic heart defects are less common but more serious. They include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects. Understanding the different types of congenital heart disease is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding Chickenpox in adults is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children are infectious once rash begins until all lesions have scabbed over
Explanation:Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.
One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A four-year-old child presents with a rash. The child has a history of atopic eczema that has been challenging to manage. Upon examination, the child has multiple umbilicated papules primarily on the neck and trunk. When compressed, the lesions discharge a cheesy substance.
What would be your plan of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No specific treatment necessary
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: A Common Skin Condition in Children
Molluscum contagiosum is a skin condition caused by a DNA pox virus that is more common in children with atopic eczema. It is characterized by dome-shaped papules, usually a few millimeters in diameter, with a central punctum that is often described as umbilicated. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy material.
While no specific treatment is needed, the lesions may take 12-18 months to disappear. However, if patients are concerned about the unsightly appearance of the rash, they can be shown how to squeeze the lesions to express the central plug out of each Molluscum. This can speed up the resolution process.
In summary, Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin condition in children that can be managed with simple techniques. It is important to reassure patients that the lesions will eventually disappear on their own and that treatment is only necessary for cosmetic reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Oliver is an 8-year-old boy brought in by his mother with a 2 day history of fever and sore throat. Today he has developed a rash on his torso. He is eating and drinking well, but has not been to school for the last 2 days and has been feeling tired.
On examination, Oliver is alert, smiling and playful. He has a temperature of 37.8°C. His throat appears red with petechiae on the hard and soft palate and his tongue is covered with a white coat through which red papillae are visible. There is a blanching rash present on his trunk which is red and punctate with a rough, sandpaper-like texture.
What is the appropriate time for Oliver to return to school based on the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics
Explanation:If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of starting antibiotics. The symptoms described are typical of scarlet fever, including a strawberry tongue and a rough-textured rash with small red spots on the palate called Forchheimer spots. Charlotte doesn’t need to be hospitalized but should take a 10-day course of phenoxymethylpenicillin. According to NICE, the child should stay away from school, nursery, or work for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. It is also important to advise parents to take measures to prevent cross-infection, such as frequent handwashing, avoiding sharing utensils and towels, and disposing of tissues promptly.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings in her 7 month old baby boy, worried about the shape of his skull. The baby's development and birth have been normal, and there are no known conditions in the family. Upon examination, the baby's head circumference is at the 40th percentile, while his height and weight are at the 30th percentile. The left side of his occiput is flattened, his left ear protrudes slightly forward, and his left forehead is more prominent than the right. No other abnormalities are detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Plagiocephaly has become more prevalent due to campaigns promoting the practice of placing babies on their backs while sleeping to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This condition causes unilateral flattening of the occipital region of the skull, resulting in the forehead and ear on the same side being pushed forward, giving the head a parallelogram appearance. However, most cases of plagiocephaly improve by the age of 3-5 years as the child adopts a more upright posture. The use of helmets is not typically recommended, as a randomized controlled trial showed no significant difference between groups. One simple solution is to turn the baby’s cot around to encourage them to look in the opposite direction and relieve pressure on the affected side. Other methods include supervised tummy time during the day, supported sitting, and changing the position of toys and mobiles in the cot to shift the child’s focus. It is important to ensure that all advice given is consistent with SIDS prevention guidelines.
Common Skull Problems in Children
Plagiocephaly is a condition where a child’s head becomes parallelogram-shaped. This condition has become more prevalent in recent years, possibly due to the success of the ‘Back to Sleep’ campaign. This campaign encourages parents to place their infants on their backs to sleep, reducing the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). However, prolonged time spent on the back of the head can lead to flattening of the skull. Plagiocephaly can be corrected with physical therapy or the use of a special helmet.
Craniosynostosis is a condition where the skull bones fuse prematurely, leading to an abnormal head shape. This condition can cause pressure on the brain and may require surgery to correct. It is important to diagnose and treat craniosynostosis early to prevent potential developmental delays or neurological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You see a 10-year-old child in afternoon surgery. He presents with pain over his left tibia. Although he plays football with his friends regularly, there is no history of significant injury.
Which one of the following would be a red-flag prompting early referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of a bruise over the site
Explanation:Bone Tumours and Osteochondrosis: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Rest pain, back pain, and unexplained limp may indicate the presence of a bone tumour and require immediate attention from a paediatrician. In such cases, referral or x-ray may be necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms. Osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercles, previously known as Osgood-Schlatters syndrome, typically presents with bilateral tibial tuberosity pain that subsides with rest.
Bone tumours are most commonly found in the limbs, particularly around the knee in the case of osteosarcoma. If persistent localised bone pain and/or swelling is present, an x-ray should be taken to rule out the possibility of a bone tumour. If a bone tumour is suspected, an urgent referral should be made.
It is important to note that a history of injury should not be assumed to exclude the possibility of a bone sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is infectious for at least 2 months after the termination of the coughing
Explanation:Pertussis: Diagnosis and Symptoms
Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is most contagious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, which is called the catarrhal phase. During this phase, there is an increase in lymphocytes in the blood. Diagnosis of pertussis can be made by taking blood for pertussis serology or by isolating the organism from nasal secretions. It is important to note that an inspiratory whoop may not always be present, but complete apnoeic episodes can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You see a 6-week old baby boy who has infantile colic. His dad describes episodes where he cries without any obvious trigger and he is unable to console him. The episodes last about 30 minutes and can occur up to approximately 12 times in 24 hours. He is otherwise very well. He is breastfed with formula top ups feeds in the evening and is gaining weight without any concerns.
Examination of the infant is normal.
Which statement below is true regarding infantile colic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infantile colic normally resolves around 6 months of age
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with acute left testicular pain. He is not sexually active.
On examination the scrotum appears normal but he has a tender, swollen left testis. The right testis appears normal.
Urine dip is negative.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Acute Testicular Pain: Indications of Testicular Torsion
Acute testicular pain is a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It is often an indication of testicular torsion, which can lead to irreversible damage if not treated promptly. The features of acute testicular pain include sudden and severe pain, swelling, and the absence of the cremasteric reflex.
It is important to note that this is a clinical diagnosis, and investigations such as ultrasound may not be helpful or may cause unnecessary delays. Therefore, when in doubt, it is better to explore and fix the affected testis, and also consider exploring the other side if it is a torsion.
Epididymitis is another condition that can cause acute testicular pain and swelling. However, it is rare before puberty and more common in sexually active individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected child abuse. The child in question is a 6-year-old boy., who you saw six months ago with burns on his arms. You are asked to give evidence related to the burns. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse
Explanation:- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Infected burns can indeed be a sign of abuse. Neglect in treating burns can lead to infection, which may indicate a lack of proper care and potentially abusive behavior.
- Burns from hot water where there are no splash marks are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns from hot water without splash marks are often a sign of abuse. These burns may indicate forced immersion, where the child is held in hot water intentionally, resulting in clear demarcation lines instead of splashes.
- Burns on the back are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns on the back can be indicative of abuse, as accidental burns typically occur on accessible areas like the front of the body, arms, and legs. Unusual burn locations, such as the back, should raise suspicion for abuse.
- There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse:
- Correct: There is no single pathognomonic pattern of burns that definitively indicates child abuse. However, certain patterns, such as immersion burns, cigarette burns, and patterned burns (e.g., from an iron), are highly suspicious for abuse but not exclusively diagnostic. The absence of a single definitive pattern underscores the need for careful assessment and consideration of the context in which the burns occurred.
- Burns with discrete edges are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns with discrete edges can be a sign of abuse, especially when they are from forced immersion in hot water or contact with a hot object. These burns typically show clear boundaries, unlike accidental burns, which often have irregular edges.
- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may have a cancer.
Which of the following conditions would alert you to an increased risk of cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis
Explanation:Syndromes and their Association with Cancer
There are certain syndromes that have been linked to an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer. Down’s syndrome, for example, has been associated with leukaemia, while neurofibromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, has been linked to CNS tumours. Other rare syndromes have also been linked to certain cancers.
It is important for primary healthcare professionals to be aware of these associations and to be vigilant for any unexplained symptoms in children or young people with these syndromes. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for these patients. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay informed and up-to-date on the latest research and recommendations regarding these syndromes and their potential links to cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A father contacts the clinic regarding his 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with strep throat and prescribed antibiotics. He neglected to inquire about the duration of time she should stay home from preschool. What guidance should be provided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics
Explanation:After starting antibiotics, children with whooping cough can go back to school or nursery within 48 hours, typically with a macrolide.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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