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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up appointment regarding their difficulty in conceiving. The couple has been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The wife has a regular menstrual cycle and no previous gynaecological issues. An ovulation test measuring her progesterone level showed normal ovulation. The GP advises the couple that the husband needs to undergo tests to determine if there is any cause on his side contributing to the infertility. Both the man and the woman have no history of sexually transmitted infections. The man has been smoking one to two cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. What is the best next investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Testosterone level
Correct Answer: Semen analysis
Explanation:Investigations for Male Infertility: Semen Analysis, Testicular Biopsy, Hormone and Genetic Testing
When a couple experiences fertility problems, a semen analysis is typically the first investigation for the man. This test measures semen volume, pH, sperm concentration, total sperm number, total motility, vitality, and sperm morphology, using World Health Organization reference values for interpretation. If the semen analysis reveals azoospermia (no sperm present), a testicular biopsy may be performed to collect spermatozoa for in-vitro fertilization treatment.
If the semen analysis does not explain the infertility, follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone levels may be measured, but these are not first-line investigations. Genetic testing may also be considered to identify genetic abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which can cause male infertility. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and treat male infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You have organized a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for the past year. The results are as follows:
- Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
- pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
- Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
- Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
- Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
- Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
- Normal forms 5% (4% or more)
His partner is also undergoing investigations, and you plan on referring him to fertility services. What steps should be taken based on these semen analysis results?Your Answer: Repeat test in 6 months
Correct Answer: Repeat test in 3 months
Explanation:If a semen sample shows abnormal results, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. Immediate retesting should only be considered if there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa, such as azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml. In this case, the man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia and a confirmatory test should be arranged after 3 months.
Understanding Semen Analysis
Semen analysis is a test that measures the quality and quantity of semen in a man’s ejaculate. To ensure accurate results, it is recommended that the sample be collected after a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 5 days of abstinence. It is also important to deliver the sample to the lab within 1 hour of collection.
The normal semen results include a volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of more than 7.2, a sperm concentration of more than 15 million per ml, morphology of more than 4% normal forms, motility of more than 32% progressive motility, and vitality of more than 58% live spermatozoa. However, it is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, and these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.
Overall, semen analysis is an important tool in assessing male fertility and can provide valuable information for couples trying to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old healthy man is being examined before starting a new job. During the physical examination, both of his testes are found to be palpable in the scrotum and are normal in size without masses detected. However, the left spermatic cord feels like a ‘bag of worms’. Laboratory tests reveal oligospermia.
What is the most probable condition that this man is suffering from?Your Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:Common Testicular Conditions and Their Characteristics
Varicocele, Hydrocele, Testicular Torsion, Spermatocele, and Seminoma are some of the common conditions that affect the testicles. Varicocele is the dilation of veins in the pampiniform venous plexus in the scrotum, which can cause infertility due to a rise in temperature in the testicle. Hydrocele is the accumulation of serous fluid around the testis, which does not affect the sperm count. Testicular torsion is an acute emergency that requires immediate scrotal surgery. Spermatocele is a retention cyst of a tubule in the head of the epididymis, which is harmless and does not affect the sperm count. Seminoma is a germ cell tumour of the testicle, which usually produces a firm mass lesion and has a good prognosis. Understanding the characteristics of these conditions can help in their early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week. His temperature is 37.5 °C. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is slightly enlarged and mildly tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show his white blood cell count to be 13 000 mL. Urine culture grows > 100 000 Escherichia coli organisms. His serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6 ng/ml (normal < 5ng/ml). He receives antibiotic therapy and his clinical condition initially improves. However, his symptoms recur six times over the next 12 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding Prostate Conditions: Differentiating Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis, Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia, Prostatic Adenocarcinoma, Prostatodynia, and Urothelial Carcinoma of the Urethra
Prostate conditions can cause various symptoms and complications, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Chronic bacterial prostatitis, for instance, is characterized by recurrent bacteriuria and UTIs, often caused by E. coli. Nodular prostatic hyperplasia, on the other hand, can lead to an enlarged prostate and recurrent UTIs due to obstruction. Prostatic adenocarcinoma, which is usually non-tender, can cause a palpable nodule and significantly elevated PSA levels. Prostatodynia, meanwhile, presents with prostatitis-like symptoms but without inflammation or positive urine cultures. Lastly, urothelial carcinoma of the urethra is rare but may cause haematuria and UTI predisposition. Understanding these conditions and their distinguishing features can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals tissue that resembles glomeruli. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seminoma
Correct Answer: Yolk cell tumour
Explanation:Types of Testicular Tumours and Their Characteristics
Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. The following are some of the common types of testicular tumours and their distinguishing features:
1. Yolk Sac Tumour: This is the most common type of testicular tumour in children under the age of 4. It is a mucinous tumour that contains Schiller-Duval bodies, which resemble primitive glomeruli. Alpha fetoprotein is secreted by these tumours.
2. Embryonal Carcinoma: This type of tumour typically occurs in the third decade of life. On microscopy, glands or papules are seen.
3. Leydig Cell Tumour: This is a benign tumour that can cause precocious puberty or gynaecomastia. Reinke crystals are noted on histology.
4. Seminoma: Seminoma is the most common testicular tumour, usually occurring between the ages of 15 and 35. Its features include large cells with a fluid-filled cytoplasm that stain CD117 positive.
5. Choriocarcinoma: This tumour secretes β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Due to the similarity between thyroid-stimulating hormone and β-HCG, symptoms of hyperthyroidism may develop. Histology of these tumours shows cells that resemble cytotrophoblasts or syncytiotrophoblastic tissue.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their characteristics can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she displays tenderness in her left loin. A CT-KUB is conducted, revealing the presence of a renal tract calculus in her left kidney. Where is the most frequent location for this condition?
Your Answer: Renal pelvis
Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric junction (VUJ)
Explanation:The Most Common Sites for Urinary Calculi: Understanding the Locations and Symptoms
Urinary calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can occur in various locations within the renal tract. The three most common sites are the pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ), within the ureter at the pelvic brim, and the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ), with the latter being the most frequent location. Stones obstructing the PUJ present with mild to severe deep flank pain without radiation to the groin, irritative voiding symptoms, suprapubic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, and stranguria. On the other hand, stones within the ureter cause abrupt, severe colicky pain in the flank and ipsilateral lower abdomen, radiation to the testicles or vulvar area, and intense nausea with or without vomiting. While the renal pelvis and mid-ureter are also possible sites for urinary calculi, they are less common. Stones passed into the bladder are mostly asymptomatic but can rarely cause positional urinary retention. Understanding the locations and symptoms of urinary calculi can aid in prompt diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower abdominal pain. The patient has a distended abdomen and has not passed urine for eight hours. He is very uncomfortable and has a large palpable bladder extending above the pubic symphysis. A digital rectal examination is performed, which reveals an enlarged, smooth prostate. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and he remains systemically well. He describes increasing difficulty with voiding and poor stream over the past six months, but no other symptoms.
What is the most likely underlying cause for his urinary retention?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
Explanation:Causes of Urinary Retention in Men
Urinary retention, the inability to empty the bladder completely, can have various underlying causes. In men, some common conditions that can lead to urinary retention are benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), renal calculi, prostate carcinoma, urinary tract infection, and bladder cancer.
BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that often occurs with aging. It can compress the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine, causing symptoms such as difficulty starting urination, weak stream, dribbling, and frequent urination. Immediate treatment for acute urinary retention due to BPH may involve inserting a urinary catheter to relieve the pressure and drain the bladder.
Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause urinary retention if they get stuck in the ureter or bladder neck. The pain from passing a stone can be severe and radiate from the back to the groin. Blood in the urine may also be present.
Prostate carcinoma, or prostate cancer, can also cause urinary retention if the tumour grows large enough to block the urethra. However, this is not a common presentation of prostate cancer, which usually manifests with other symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, pain, or blood in the semen.
Urinary tract infection (UTI) can result from incomplete voiding due to BPH or other causes. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning, urgency, frequency, cloudy or foul-smelling urine, and fever. However, not all cases of urinary retention are associated with UTI.
Bladder cancer is a rare cause of urinary retention, but it can occur if the tumour obstructs the bladder outlet. Bladder cancer may also cause painless hematuria, urinary urgency, or pelvic discomfort.
In summary, urinary retention in men can have multiple etiologies, and the diagnosis depends on the patient’s history, physical examination, and additional tests such as imaging, urinalysis, or prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing. Prompt evaluation and management of urinary retention are essential to prevent complications such as urinary tract infection, bladder damage, or renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old postal worker presents with a two-day history of increasing right-sided flank pain that extends to the groin. The patient also reports experiencing frank haematuria. The patient has had a similar episode before and was previously diagnosed with a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan confirms the presence of a renal calculi on the right side. What is the most probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol use
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Renal Stones
Renal stones are a common medical condition that can cause significant discomfort and pain. Understanding the risk factors associated with renal stones can help in their prevention and management. Hyperparathyroidism is a known cause of renal stones, and patients presenting with urinary stones should have their calcium, phosphate, and urate levels measured to exclude common medical risk factors. A low sodium diet is recommended as high sodium intake can lead to hypercalcemia and stone formation. Bisoprolol use may cause renal impairment but is less likely to be associated with recurrent renal calculi. Contrary to popular belief, vitamin D excess rather than deficiency is associated with the formation of kidney stones. Finally, gout, rather than osteoarthritis, is a risk factor for renal stones due to the excess uric acid that can be deposited in the kidneys. By understanding these risk factors, patients and healthcare providers can work together to prevent and manage renal stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
Urine dip shows:
frank haematuria
blood 2+
protein 2+.
He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?Your Answer: Send home with paracetamol, advise to drink at least 3 litres of water per day and reassurance that the stone will likely pass spontaneously within 1–3 weeks
Correct Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones
Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:
1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.
2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.
3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.
It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits the GP clinic with concerns about his inability to sustain an erection during sexual activity. He has no known medical conditions and reports no stress or relationship issues. Upon examination, he exhibits bilateral toe proprioception loss. Cardiovascular and respiratory evaluations are normal. There are no notable findings on physical examination, including genital examination. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted for this patient?
Your Answer: Serum oestrogen and progesterone levels
Correct Answer: Fasting blood sugar
Explanation:Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: Understanding the Role of Different Tests
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that can have a significant impact on a man’s quality of life. It is also considered an independent risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can be a presenting symptom of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to identify any underlying causes of ED. Here, we will discuss the role of different tests in the evaluation of ED.
Fasting Blood Sugar Test
As mentioned earlier, diabetes mellitus is a common cause of ED. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with ED undergo a fasting blood sugar test to rule out diabetes.
Ultrasound of Testes
Testicular pathology does not lead to ED. Therefore, an ultrasound of the testes is not indicated unless there are specific indications for it.
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) Test
ED is not a presentation of prostate cancer. However, treatment of prostate cancer, such as radical prostatectomy, can lead to ED. Therefore, a PSA test is not indicated for the evaluation of ED.
Semen Analysis
Semen analysis is performed when couples present with infertility. It does not have a role in the evaluation of ED unless there are specific indications for it.
Serum Hormone Levels
Serum oestrogen and progesterone levels are hormones that are found abundantly in women. They are assayed, along with LH and FSH levels, to pursue the cause of hypogonadism when it is suspected. However, in the case of ED, hypogonadism must be ruled out with serum testosterone level.
In conclusion, appropriate investigations are necessary to identify any underlying causes of ED. A fasting blood sugar test and serum testosterone level are the most important tests to perform in the evaluation of ED.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with severe scrotal pain that has been ongoing for the past 3 hours. During the examination, he is visibly distressed and his scrotum appears red and tender. He cries out in agony when you try to touch or lift his left testicle. The right testicle appears normal. What test should you perform next?
Your Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Testicular Torsion: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. It is characterized by excruciating pain and tenderness in one testicle, which worsens when the testicle is raised. This condition typically affects young teenagers and is caused by an anatomical variant that allows the spermatic cord to wind around itself and cut off blood flow to the testicle. If left untreated for more than 4-6 hours, testicular necrosis can occur.
While orchitis and epididymitis can also cause testicular pain, they are much milder and can be differentiated from testicular torsion by the response to raising the testicle. MRI and X-ray are not helpful in diagnosing this condition, and ultrasound should not delay surgical intervention. Routine blood tests, such as CRP and WCC, may be performed, but surgery should not be delayed while awaiting results.
In summary, testicular torsion is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and surgical intervention to prevent testicular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A male toddler, on physical examination at the age of 2, is noticed to have an abnormal opening of the urethra on to the ventral surface of the penis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Epispadias
Correct Answer: Hypospadias
Explanation:Common Congenital Penile Deformities and Conditions
Hypospadias, Cryptorchidism, Exstrophy, Epispadias, and Phimosis are all congenital penile deformities and conditions that affect newborn boys. Hypospadias is the most common, occurring in about 1 in every 150-300 boys. It is characterized by an abnormal opening of the urethral meatus on the ventral surface of the penis, ventral curvature of the penis, and a hooded foreskin. Cryptorchidism, on the other hand, is the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac and is seen in 3% of all full-term newborn boys. Exstrophy is a rare condition where the bladder protrudes through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. Epispadias is defined as an abnormal opening of the urethra on the dorsal aspect of the penis, while Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans of the penis. These conditions may have genetic components and can lead to complications such as infection, urinary tract obstruction, and other associated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this symptom throughout the day and has noticed that her urine flow is weak when she does manage to go voluntarily. During the examination, the GP detects a distended bladder despite the patient having just urinated before the appointment. What is the probable diagnosis for this woman's condition?
Your Answer: Mixed incontinence
Correct Answer: Urinary overflow incontinence
Explanation:The patient, an elderly woman, is experiencing urinary incontinence as evidenced by the palpable bladder even after urination. While prostate problems are a common cause of urinary overflow incontinence, this is not applicable in this case as the patient is a woman. Other possible causes include nerve damage resulting in a neurogenic bladder, which can be a complication of diabetes, chronic alcoholism, or pelvic surgery. The absence of a sudden urge to urinate rules out urge incontinence, while overactive bladder syndrome, a type of urge incontinence, is characterized by incontinence, frequent urination, and nocturia, which are not present in this case. Stress incontinence, which is associated with increased intraabdominal pressure, is also not observed. Therefore, a diagnosis of mixed incontinence is not warranted.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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You are asked to place a catheter in a pediatric patient for urinary retention. You select a 6-Fr catheter.
Which of the following is the most accurate description of the size of this catheter?Your Answer: The external circumference of the catheter is approximately 24mm
Explanation:Understanding Catheter Sizes: A Guide to the French Gauge System
Catheters are medical devices used to drain urine from the bladder when a patient is unable to do so naturally. The size of a catheter is an important factor in ensuring proper placement and function. The French gauge system is commonly used to describe catheter sizes, with the size in French units roughly equal to the circumference of the catheter in millimetres.
It is important to note that the French size only describes the external circumference of the catheter, not its length or internal diameter. A catheter that is too large can cause discomfort and irritation, while one that is too small can lead to kinking and leakage.
For male urethral catheterisation, a size 14-Fr or 16-Fr catheter is typically appropriate. Larger sizes may be recommended for patients with haematuria or clots. Paediatric sizes range from 3 to 14-Fr.
In summary, understanding the French gauge system is crucial in selecting the appropriate catheter size for each patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents with left scrotal discomfort and a feeling of tightness. Upon examination, there is mild swelling of the left scrotum with varices resembling a bag of worms in the overlying skin that appears dark red. Scrotal ultrasound confirms the presence of a varicocele on the left side. Which structure is most likely dilated in this patient?
Your Answer: Pampiniform plexus
Explanation:Anatomy of the Male Reproductive System
The male reproductive system is a complex network of organs and structures that work together to produce and transport sperm. Here are some key components of this system:
Pampiniform Plexus: This network of veins runs along the spermatic cord and drains blood from the scrotum. When these veins become dilated, it can result in a condition called varicocele, which may cause a bag of worms sensation in the scrotum.
Ductus Deferens: This tube-like structure is part of the spermatic cord and carries sperm and seminal fluid from the testis to the ejaculatory duct.
Processus Vaginalis: This structure can sometimes be present in the groin area and may communicate with the peritoneum. When it does, it can lead to a condition called hydrocele, where fluid accumulates in the scrotum.
Testicular Artery: This artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the testis. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.
Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the skin in the upper anterior part of the scrotum and innervates the cremaster muscle. It is not involved in the formation of varicocele.
Understanding the anatomy of the male reproductive system can help in identifying and treating various conditions that may affect it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding that has been progressively worsening over the past year. She also complains of severe period pain that typically starts a few days before each menstrual cycle. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 28 days. Lila states she has not been sexually active for the past year and is not taking any regular medications. She has two children, both born via vaginal delivery without any complications. Upon abdominal examination, no abnormalities are noted, and a speculum examination reveals a normal cervix. You decide to order a full blood count. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Arrange for levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) insertion
Correct Answer: Request a transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:If a patient presents with menorrhagia along with pelvic pain, abnormal exam findings, or intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, it is recommended to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound. According to the NICE guidelines, a transvaginal ultrasound should be preferred over a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI for women with significant dysmenorrhoea or a bulky, tender uterus on examination that suggests adenomyosis.
In the case of Lila, who is experiencing new menorrhagia and significant dysmenorrhoea, a transvaginal ultrasound is necessary. If a transvaginal ultrasound is not possible, a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI can be considered, but the limitations of these techniques should be explained.
For women without identified pathology, fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, the first-line treatment recommended by the guideline is a levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS). While this may be an appropriate treatment for Lila, the initial next step should be to arrange for a transvaginal ultrasound to investigate further. At this stage, there are no red flags in Lila’s history or examination that warrant an urgent referral to gynaecology.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. A urinalysis reveals the presence of blood in his urine. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that he may have a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) confirms the presence of a likely stone in his left ureter. What imaging technique is best suited for visualizing a renal stone in the ureter?
Your Answer: Intravenous urography (IVU)
Correct Answer: Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB
Explanation:Imaging Tests for Urological Conditions
Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB is recommended by the European Urology Association as a follow-up to initial ultrasound assessment for diagnosing stones, with a 99% identification rate. Micturating cystourethrogram is commonly used in children to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) KUB is not beneficial for renal stone patients due to its high cost. Plain radiography KUB may be useful in monitoring patients with a radio-opaque calculus. Intravenous urography (IVU) is less superior to non-contrast CT scan due to the need for contrast medium injection and increased radiation dosage to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his urine. He reports that this has been happening over the past three days. He denies any pain or fever.
Physical examination revealed bilateral wheezes but is otherwise unremarkable. He does not have any problem passing urine. He has always lived in the UK and has not travelled anywhere outside the country recently. The patient is retired but used to work in a textile factory where he was responsible for working in the dye plants producing different coloured fabric. He has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension. He takes losartan for his hypertension and a budesonide and formoterol combination inhaler for his COPD. The man is an ex-smoker with a 30 pack-year smoking history.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder cancer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Painless Haematuria: Bladder Cancer vs. Other Possibilities
When a patient presents with painless haematuria, bladder cancer should be highly suspected until proven otherwise. While other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, can cause haematuria, a strong history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes increase the likelihood of bladder cancer.
Prostate cancer is unlikely to present with haematuria and is more likely to be associated with lower urinary tract symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia would present with signs of lower urinary tract obstruction, which this patient does not have. Nephrolithiasis can cause haematuria, but the absence of pain makes it less likely. Renal cancer may also present with haematuria, but it is more likely to be associated with loin or abdominal pain, weight loss, anaemia, and fatigue.
In summary, when a patient presents with painless haematuria and a history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes, bladder cancer should be the primary concern. Other possibilities should be considered, but they are less likely based on the absence of additional symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a gradual reduction in urine flow. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is found to be 14.3 ng/ml (normal PSA level: 2.5-4.0 ng/mL).
What is the most important investigation required?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multi-parametic MRI
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Prostate Cancer
Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that are commonly used to detect prostate cancer:
1. Multi-parametric MRI: This scan is recommended for individuals with a risk of prostate cancer. It can help to locate the site of biopsy and avoid unnecessary procedures.
2. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen: This scan can give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
3. Radioisotope bone scan: This scan can reveal the presence of bony metastases that are common in prostate cancer, but it cannot give a definite diagnosis.
4. Flexible cystoscopy: This examination can detect any abnormalities of the prostate or bladder and urethra, but a biopsy is still required for a definite diagnosis.
5. Ultrasound scan of the renal tract: This scan can also give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
In conclusion, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose prostate cancer, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of urinary leakage. He reports that over the past 2 years, he has been experiencing difficulty reaching the toilet on time. He now leaks urine before he can make it to the bathroom, particularly when at rest.
During the examination, the doctor finds that the man's abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there is no palpable bladder. A urine dipstick test shows no nitrites or leukocytes.
The man expresses no interest in surgical intervention. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder retraining
Explanation:Bladder retraining is the appropriate solution for this woman’s overactive bladder, which is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate followed by uncontrollable leakage. Stress urinary incontinence can be ruled out as the cause since the leakage occurs at rest and not during coughing or sneezing. Bladder retraining involves gradually increasing the time between voids and should be attempted for six weeks before considering medication. Duloxetine, which increases the contraction of the urethral striated muscles, is not suitable for urge urinary incontinence. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist, may be used as an alternative to antimuscarinics in frail elderly patients, but bladder retraining should be attempted first. Oxybutynin, an anti-muscarinic, is not recommended for frail elderly women due to the risk of cholinergic burden and resulting confusion and delirium.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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