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  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old Caucasian woman presents with a severe acute attack of bronchial asthma....

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old Caucasian woman presents with a severe acute attack of bronchial asthma. For 1 week, she has had fever, malaise, anorexia and weight loss. She has tingling and numbness in her feet and hands. On examination, palpable purpura is present and nodular lesions are present on the skin. Investigations revealed eosinophilia, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), fibrinogen, and α-2-globulin, positive p-ANCA, and a chest X-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic granulomatosis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Vasculitis Conditions with Eosinophilia

      Eosinophilia is a common feature in several vasculitis conditions, but the clinical presentation and histopathologic features can help differentiate between them. Allergic granulomatosis, also known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is characterized by asthma, peripheral and tissue eosinophilia, granuloma formation, and vasculitis of multiple organ systems. In contrast, granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) involves the lungs and upper respiratory tract and is c-ANCA positive, but does not typically present with asthma-like symptoms or peripheral eosinophilia. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) can present with multisystem involvement, but does not typically have an asthma-like presentation or peripheral eosinophilia. Hypereosinophilic syndrome, also known as chronic eosinophilic leukemia, is characterized by persistent eosinophilia in blood and exclusion of other causes of reactive eosinophilia. Finally, microscopic polyangiitis is similar to GPA in many aspects, but does not involve granuloma formation and does not typically present with peripheral eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The intercostal muscles are the main muscles of respiration

      Correct Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle

      The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.

      The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.

      When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start...

    Correct

    • You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start trying to conceive. He has a history of asthma and takes salbutamol 100mcg as needed.
      Which of the following would be most important to advise?

      Your Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400mcg. This high-dose folic acid should be taken from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to specialist care, but they should continue to use effective contraception until they have had a full assessment. Despite the medication, it is still likely that they will have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. If trying to conceive, women should start taking folic acid as soon as possible, rather than waiting for a positive pregnancy test.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are...

    Correct

    • Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study

      Explanation:

      Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.

      The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.

      Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.

      In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of wheezing, chest tightness, cough,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of wheezing, chest tightness, cough, and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports that this started shortly after being exposed to a significant amount of hydrogen sulfide at work. She has no prior history of respiratory issues and is a non-smoker. What would be the most suitable initial management approach to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Inhaled bronchodilators

      Explanation:

      Management of Reactive Airway Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)

      Reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms within 24 hours of exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, pre-existing respiratory conditions must be absent, and symptoms must occur after a single exposure to high concentrations of irritants. A positive methacholine challenge test and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests are also indicative of RADS.

      Inhaled bronchodilators, such as salbutamol, are the first-line treatment for RADS. Cromolyn sodium may be added in select cases, while inhaled corticosteroids are used if bronchodilators are ineffective. Oral steroids are not as effective in RADS as they are in asthma. High-dose vitamin D may be useful in some cases, but it is not routinely recommended for initial management.

      In summary, the management of RADS involves the use of inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line treatment, with other medications added in if necessary. A proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 62-year-old man who is a smoker presents with gradual-onset shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man who is a smoker presents with gradual-onset shortness of breath, over the last month. Chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion.
      What would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Pleural aspirate

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Pleural Effusion: Choosing the Right Test

      When a patient presents with dyspnoea and a suspected pleural effusion, choosing the right investigation is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. Here are some of the most appropriate investigations for different types of pleural effusions:

      1. Pleural aspirate: This is the most appropriate next investigation to measure the protein content and determine whether the fluid is an exudate or a transudate.

      2. Computerised tomography (CT) of the chest: An exudative effusion would prompt investigation with CT of the chest or thoracoscopy to look for conditions such as malignancy or tuberculosis (TB).

      3. Bronchoscopy: Bronchoscopy would be appropriate if there was need to obtain a biopsy for a suspected tumour, but so far no lesion has been identified.

      4. Echocardiogram: A transudative effusion would prompt investigations such as an echocardiogram to look for heart failure, or liver imaging to look for cirrhosis.

      5. Spirometry: Spirometry would have been useful if chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was suspected, but at this stage the pleural effusion is likely the cause of dyspnoea and should be investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical history of asthma and has been hospitalized in the past due to asthma and two recent cases of pneumonia. On examination, he has bilateral wheeze and a mild fever. His sputum is thick and sticky. Blood tests reveal an ESR of 72 mm/hr (1-10) and elevated IgE levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count. Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count.

      Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the hospital with shortness of breath and lethargy...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the hospital with shortness of breath and lethargy for the past two weeks.
      On clinical examination, there are reduced breath sounds, dullness to percussion and decreased vocal fremitus at the left base.
      Chest X-ray reveals a moderate left-sided pleural effusions. A pleural aspirate is performed on the ward. Analysis is shown:
      Aspirate Serum
      Total protein 18.5 g/l 38 g/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1170 u/l 252 u/l
      pH 7.37 7.38
      What is the most likely cause of the pleural effusion?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pleural Effusions: Causes and Criteria for Exudates

      Pleural effusions, the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space surrounding the lungs, can be classified as exudates or transudates using Light’s criteria. While the traditional cut-off value of >30 g/l of protein to indicate an exudate and <30 g/l for a transudate is no longer recommended, Light's criteria still provide a useful framework for diagnosis. An exudate is indicated when the ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is >0.5, the ratio of pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH is >0.6, or pleural fluid LDH is greater than 2/3 times the upper limit for serum.

      Exudate effusions are typically caused by inflammation and disruption to cell architecture, while transudates are often associated with systematic illnesses that affect oncotic or hydrostatic pressure. In the case of hypothyroidism, an endocrine disorder, an exudative pleural effusion is consistent with overstimulation of the ovaries.

      Other conditions that can cause exudative pleural effusions include pneumonia and pulmonary embolism. Mesothelioma, a type of cancer associated with asbestos exposure, can also cause an exudative pleural effusion, but is less likely in the absence of chest pain, persistent cough, and unexplained weight loss.

      Understanding the causes and criteria for exudative pleural effusions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, dry cough,...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, dry cough, and low-grade fever. He has a medical history of hypertension and was hospitalized six months ago for an acute inferior myocardial infarction complicated by left ventricular failure and arrhythmia. His chest x-ray reveals diffuse interstitial pneumonia, and further investigations show an ESR of 110 mm/h, FEV1 of 90%, FVC of 70%, and KCO of 60%. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication that is known to cause several side effects. Among these, pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis are the most common. These conditions are characterized by a progressively-worsening dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and malaise. Other side effects of amiodarone include neutropenia, hepatitis, phototoxicity, slate-grey skin discolouration, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, arrhythmias, corneal deposits, peripheral neuropathy, and myopathy. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking amiodarone, and to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur. Proper monitoring and management can help to minimize the risk of serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A morbidly obese 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for review. His...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for review. His main reason for attendance is that his wife is concerned about his loud snoring and the fact that he stops breathing during the night for periods of up to 8–10 seconds, followed by coughing, snoring or waking. Recently he has become hypertensive and is also on treatment for impotence. His 24-hour urinary free cortisol level is normal.
      Which diagnosis best fits this picture?

      Your Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and Other Conditions

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a common sleep disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s health and well-being. Symptoms of OSA include memory impairment, daytime somnolence, disrupted sleep patterns, decreased libido, and systemic hypertension. When investigating potential causes of these symptoms, it is important to rule out other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA.

      For example, thyroid function testing should be conducted to rule out hypothyroidism, and the uvula and tonsils should be assessed for mechanical obstruction that may be treatable with surgery. Diagnosis of OSA is typically made using overnight oximetry. The mainstay of management for OSA is weight loss, along with the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation during sleep.

      When considering potential diagnoses for a patient with symptoms of OSA, it is important to distinguish between other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA. For example, Cushing’s disease can be identified through elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol levels. Essential hypertension may contribute to OSA, but it does not fully explain the symptoms described. Simple obesity may be a contributing factor, but it does not account for the full clinical picture. Finally, simple snoring can be ruled out if apnoeic episodes are present. By carefully considering all potential diagnoses, healthcare providers can provide the most effective treatment for patients with OSA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (8/10) 80%
Passmed