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Question 1
Incorrect
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A mother who has recently moved brings her 9-year-old child to a new local GP for the first time to check for thyroid issues. During the examination, the GP observes that the child has a short neck, flattened nose, and is of short stature. Additionally, the GP notices prominent epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. What long-term condition is this child at a higher risk for?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:It is believed that around 50% of individuals over the age of 85 may suffer from Alzheimer’s. Asthma is an incorrect option as there is no evidence to suggest that individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of developing the condition. The patient was brought in for a thyroid check as there is a link between hypothyroidism and Down syndrome, but no association between Down syndrome and hyperthyroidism exists, making this option incorrect. While acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is associated with Down syndrome, lymphoma is not, making it an incorrect option.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of left flank pain. He has a history of smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 25 years. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the left flank but no palpable mass. Urine dipstick testing reveals the presence of blood. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a complex cystic mass with solid and liquid components, arising from the parenchyma of the left kidney and with septations. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Simple cyst
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Clear cell carcinoma is the most frequent histological type of malignant renal cancer. The classic triad of renal cancer includes flank pain, mass, and haematuria, but it is unusual for all three symptoms to be present at the initial diagnosis. Clear cell carcinoma can be distinguished from a simple cyst by its variegated, septated interior. Transitional cell carcinomas are less common and typically originate from the ureter. Angiomyolipomas are also infrequent and are linked to tuberous sclerosis.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to receive the results of an HIV test, which come back positive. What test would be the most helpful in determining his likelihood of developing an opportunistic infection (OI)?
Your Answer: CD4 count
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for HIV-Related Immune Impairment
The CD4 count is a reliable indicator of HIV-related immune impairment. In HIV-negative individuals, the CD4 count is usually maintained above 600-800 cells/µl. Without antiretroviral therapy (ART), HIV-positive individuals will experience a gradual decline in CD4 count. A CD4 count of <350 cells/µl is associated with an increased risk of opportunistic infections (OI), while a count of <200 cells/µl indicates an 80% risk of developing an OI over the next three years. Chest X-rays are usually normal in HIV-positive individuals without a history of chronic respiratory disorders. Blood cultures may be useful in diagnosing the presence of an OI, but will not help estimate the risk of developing OIs. HIV-positive individuals often have an abnormal full blood count (FBC), being at higher risk of anaemia, lymphopenia, and thrombocytopenia. However, these abnormalities may be for a variety of reasons and do not help with risk assessment for developing OIs. Tuberculin skin tests (TST) are used to check for immunity to tuberculosis (TB) and in the diagnosis of latent TB infection (LTBI). HIV-positive individuals are at a much higher risk of TB disease, but may also have a muted response to TST due to their compromised immunity. TST can be useful in assessing a patient’s eligibility for treatment with isoniazid preventive therapy but is not useful in assessing disease stage and risk of OIs in general. Diagnostic Tests for HIV-Related Immune Impairment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman presents with sudden onset lower abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, she is stable and has a temperature of 37.8 °C. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa. Urinalysis reveals the presence of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC), but no nitrites. What is the most suitable subsequent test?
Your Answer: Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG))
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
Abdominal pain in women of childbearing age requires a thorough diagnostic workup to rule out gynaecological emergencies such as ectopic pregnancy. The following diagnostic tests should be considered:
1. Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG)): This test should be the first step in the diagnostic workup to rule out ectopic pregnancy. A positive result requires urgent referral to the gynaecological team.
2. Full blood count: This test may indicate an ongoing infective process or other pathology, but a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.
3. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis: Imaging may be useful in determining the cause of the pain, but a pregnancy test should be done first before considering imaging studies.
4. Urine culture and sensitivity: This test may be useful if a urinary tract infection and possible pyelonephritis are considered, but an ectopic pregnancy has to be ruled out first.
5. Erect chest X-ray: This test can show free air under the diaphragm, indicating a ruptured viscus and a surgical emergency. However, a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.
In conclusion, a thorough diagnostic workup is necessary to determine the cause of abdominal pain in women of childbearing age, with a pregnancy test being the first step to rule out gynaecological emergencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male comes to you with a painful and swollen knee that has been bothering him for a week. He experiences stiffness in the morning. He has been experiencing pain while urinating for three weeks and has noticed red and painful eyes this morning. He has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse four weeks ago and has not been tested for a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s history of unprotected sexual intercourse increases the likelihood of Chlamydia trachomatis being the cause of this condition, as it is the most common culprit. Ankylosing spondylitis typically presents with back pain and may be accompanied by iritis/uveitis, but it does not cause urethritis. Disseminated gonococcal disease is associated with tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Although gout is rare in this age group, it should still be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients with swollen and painful joints.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.
Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What test is utilized to examine for primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison's disease?
Your Answer: High dose dexamethasone suppression test
Correct Answer: Short ACTH stimulation (Synacthen®) test
Explanation:Medical Tests for Hormonal Disorders
There are several medical tests used to diagnose hormonal disorders. One such test is the Synacthen test, which measures serum cortisol levels before and after administering synthetic ACTH. If cortisol levels rise appropriately, Addison’s disease can be excluded. However, an insufficient response may indicate adrenal gland atrophy or destruction.
Another test used to investigate hormonal disorders is the dexamethasone suppression test, which is used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome. Additionally, the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is used to screen for diabetes mellitus. In the UK, the OGTT involves administering 75 g of oral anhydrous glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels at 0 minutes (fasting) and 120 minutes. This test is also used to investigate suspected acromegaly by measuring the suppression of growth hormone following an oral glucose load.
Lastly, a glucose challenge is used during pregnancy to screen for gestational diabetes. This test involves administering 50 g of oral glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels after 30 minutes. By utilizing these medical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat hormonal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with bowel cancer. Which marker would be most effective in monitoring the tumor's progression and response to future treatment?
Your Answer: Occult faecal blood
Correct Answer: CEA
Explanation:Colon cancer treatment response is monitored using CEA.
Although CT scans can reveal malignancy progression, they are not suitable for routine monitoring due to their expense and radiation exposure.
Ovarian cancer is detected using Ca-125 as a tumour marker.
Hepatocellular carcinoma is detected using AFP as a tumour marker.Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a two-week history of palpitations and breathlessness. She has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled on metformin 850 mg bd, and longstanding hypertension for which she has been on therapy for several years. Her current medications include captopril 50 mg bd, furosemide 40 mg od, and nifedipine 20 mg bd. She recently consulted her GP with symptoms of breathlessness, and he increased the dose of furosemide to 80 mg od.
On examination, the patient is overweight and appears distressed. She is afebrile, with a pulse of 120, regular, and a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg. Heart sounds 1 and 2 are normal without added sounds or murmurs. Respiratory rate is 28/minute, and the chest is clear to auscultation. The rest of the examination is normal.
Investigations:
- Hb: 134 g/L (normal range: 115-165)
- WBC: 8.9 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11)
- Platelets: 199 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- Sodium: 139 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
- Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 60-110)
- Glucose: 5.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.0-6.0)
- Arterial blood gases on air:
- pH: 7.6 (normal range: 7.36-7.44)
- O2 saturation: 99%
- PaO2: 112 mmHg/15 kPa (normal range: 75-100)
- PaCO2: 13.7 mmHg/1.8 kPa (normal range: 35-45)
- Standard bicarbonate: 20 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
- Base excess: -7.0 mmol/L (normal range: ±2)
What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calming reassurance
Explanation:Managing Respiratory Alkalosis in Patients with Panic Attacks
Patients experiencing hyperventilation may develop respiratory alkalosis, which can be managed by creating a calming atmosphere and providing reassurance. However, the traditional method of breathing into a paper bag is no longer recommended. Instead, healthcare providers should focus on stabilizing the patient’s breathing and addressing any underlying anxiety or panic.
It’s important to note that panic attacks can cause deranged ABG results, including respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, healthcare providers should be aware of this potential complication and take appropriate measures to manage the patient’s symptoms. While paper bag rebreathing may be effective in some cases, it should be administered with caution, especially in patients with respiratory or cardiac pathology.
In summary, managing respiratory alkalosis in patients with panic attacks requires a holistic approach that addresses both the physical and emotional aspects of the condition. By creating a calming environment and providing reassurance, healthcare providers can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of his type 2 diabetes. He was diagnosed with diabetes eight months ago and has been taking metformin 1 g twice daily. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. The results of his laboratory tests are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal range
HbA1C 62 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
Creatinine 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 92 ml/min > 90 ml/min
What would be the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor
Explanation:Comparing Anti-Diabetic Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with High BMI
When selecting an anti-diabetic medication for a patient with a high BMI, it is important to consider the potential for weight gain and hypoglycaemia. Here, we compare four options:
1. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor: This medication sustains the release of insulin and lowers blood sugar levels without causing weight gain.
2. Sulfonylurea: This medication stimulates the release of insulin and is often used as a second-line agent, but can cause weight gain.
3. Acarbose: This medication does not significantly improve glucose control and can exacerbate gastrointestinal side-effects when used with metformin.
4. Insulin basal bolus regimen and pre-mixed insulin 70:30: These options provide optimal glucose control but carry the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.
For this patient, a DPP4 inhibitor is the best option as it provides additional glucose control without causing weight gain. Sulfonylurea may also be considered, but the risk of weight gain should be monitored. Insulin regimens are not necessary at this time, but may be considered in the future if oral medications do not provide adequate control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-month history of post-coital bleeding, vaginal discomfort and intermittent vaginal discharge. She feels lethargic and reports unintentional weight loss. She is a single mother of two children and lives in shared accommodation with one other family. She is a smoker of 30 cigarettes a day. She has not engaged with the cervical screening programme.
Examination reveals a white lump on the cervix, associated with surface ulceration.
Cervical carcinoma is suspected.
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing cervical carcinoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Risk Factors for Cervical Carcinoma: Understanding the Role of Smoking, HPV, and Other Factors
Cervical carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, the lower part of the uterus. While the exact causes of cervical carcinoma are not fully understood, several risk factors have been identified. In this article, we will explore some of the key risk factors associated with the development of cervical carcinoma, including smoking, HPV infection, late menopause, nulliparity, obesity, and the use of contraceptive pills.
Smoking is a significant risk factor for cervical carcinoma, accounting for 21% of cases in the UK. Nicotine and cotinine, two chemicals found in tobacco smoke, may directly damage DNA in cervical cells and act as a cofactor in HPV-driven carcinogenesis.
Persistent infection with HPV is the strongest risk factor for cervical carcinoma. Other risk factors include early sexual activity, low socio-economic status, co-infection with HIV, immunosuppression, and a family history of cervical carcinoma. Late menopause is a known risk factor for ovarian and endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma. Nulliparity is associated with ovarian and endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma. Obesity is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma.
The combined oral contraceptive pill has been associated with a small increase in the risk of developing cervical carcinoma, but there is no evidence to support an association with the progesterone-only pill.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors associated with cervical carcinoma is important for prevention and early detection. Quitting smoking, practicing safe sex, and getting regular cervical cancer screenings can help reduce the risk of developing this type of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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