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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a pulse of 120 beats per min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% predicted. He has received back-to-back nebulisers of salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg for the past 45 minutes and is currently on face mask oxygen. Additionally, he has been given hydrocortisone 100 mg IV, and the intensive care team has been notified.

      An arterial blood gas test was performed on high-flow oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.42 (7.36-7.44), PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), PaO2 of 22 kPa (11.3-12.6), base excess of -2 mmol/L (+/-2), and SpO2 of 98.

      What is the recommended next step in therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnesium 1-2 g IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Life Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, which requires immediate treatment. A normal PaCO2 in an asthmatic can indicate impending respiratory failure. The initial treatment involves administering β2-agonists, preferably nebuliser with oxygen, and repeating doses every 15-30 minutes. Nebulised ipratropium bromide should also be added for patients with acute severe or life threatening asthma. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be used if the patient fails to respond to initial treatment. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy. Steroids should also be given early in the attack to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.

      It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or if the patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Additionally, all patients who are transferred to an intensive care unit should be accompanied by a doctor who can intubate if necessary. In this case, if the patient fails to respond to magnesium, intubation and ventilation may be necessary. It is crucial to discuss the patient’s condition with ITU colleagues during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He is brought to the Emergency Department where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the left side of chest and upper abdomen together with an obvious deformity of the left humerus. Radiograph of the left arm shows a displaced, midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at work while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Patient Normal
      Temperature 36.8°C 36.1–37.2°C
      Pulse 115 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
      Blood pressure 145/93 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 99% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer: iv morphine

      Explanation:

      Analgesic Options for Long Bone Fractures: Choosing the Right Treatment

      When it comes to managing pain in long bone fractures, the traditional analgesia ladder may not always be sufficient. While step 1 recommends non-opioid options like aspirin or paracetamol, and step 2 suggests weak opioids like codeine, a step 3 approach may be necessary for moderate to severe pain. In this case, the two most viable options are pethidine and morphine.

      While pethidine may be an option, morphine is often preferred due to its safer side-effect profile and lower risk of toxicity. IV morphine also acts quicker than SC pethidine and can be titrated more readily. However, it’s important to note that both options have depressive effects on the cardiovascular system and should not be used in shocked patients. Even in stable patients, caution is advised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency.

      Other options, such as NSAIDs like diclofenac, may be effective for musculoskeletal pain but are contraindicated in emergency situations where the patient must be kept nil by mouth. Similarly, inhaled options like Entonox may not be strong enough for a pain score of 9/10.

      In summary, choosing the right analgesic option for long bone fractures requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and the potential risks and benefits of each treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left arm, four weeks after being involved in a car accident. Despite being discharged from the hospital without injuries, they woke up this morning unable to move these limbs. There is no pain, but the paralysis is causing significant distress. On examination, there are no visible injuries, normal tone, and intact sensation in all four limbs. All reflexes are normal, but power in the affected limbs is MRC 0/5, while the contralateral limbs are MRC 5/5. Hoover's sign is positive on the affected leg, and there are no abnormalities in the cranial nerve exam. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lacunar stroke

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function and may be triggered by stress. In this case, the patient has experienced a stressful accident and is now exhibiting functional paralysis, without voluntary movement but some involuntary movements due to reflexes and a positive Hoover’s sign. This sign indicates that the unaffected leg is compensating for the affected leg’s lack of movement by contracting synergistically.

      It is unlikely that the patient is suffering from factitious disorder, which involves feigning symptoms to gain attention from healthcare professionals. This is because the neurological symptoms and the recent stressful event suggest conversion disorder, and the presence of Hoover’s sign is not consistent with feigned paralysis.

      Lacunar strokes, which cause paralysis on one side with contralateral sensory loss, would not present with this pattern of paralysis and would not be delayed in onset after the accident. Malingering, or faking symptoms for personal gain, is also unlikely at this stage.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?

      Your Answer: T8 and aortic opening in the diaphragm

      Correct Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks and Openings

      The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old basketball player arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sudden...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old basketball player arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sudden popping sensation in his left heel. During the physical examination, a noticeable dip is palpable on the back of his ankle. The patient reports that he was prescribed ciprofloxacin for a chest infection while on a recent trip to Italy. What is the most suitable test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound ankle

      Explanation:

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A General Practitioner (GP) sees a 28-month-old girl who is failing to thrive....

    Correct

    • A General Practitioner (GP) sees a 28-month-old girl who is failing to thrive. The GP carries out some tests and discovers antibody to tissue transglutaminase in the girl’s plasma.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Conditions Causing Malabsorption and Failure to Thrive

      Coeliac Disease, Cystic Fibrosis, Ulcerative Colitis, Crohn’s, and Phenylketonuria are all conditions that can cause malabsorption and failure to thrive. However, they differ in their causes and associated autoantibodies.

      Coeliac Disease is an autoimmune disease of the small intestine that can occur at any age. It is characterized by the presence of antibodies to α-gliadin, tissue transglutaminase, and anti-endomysial. Duodenal biopsy confirms the diagnosis.

      Cystic Fibrosis is a genetic condition that can cause malabsorption and failure to thrive, but it is not associated with autoantibodies.

      Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s are inflammatory bowel diseases that can cause malabsorption and weight loss. However, they typically present at 15-30 years and are not associated with the autoantibodies found in Coeliac Disease.

      Phenylketonuria is another genetic condition that can cause failure to thrive but is not associated with autoantibodies. It is caused by absent phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme activity, leading to the accumulation of phenylalanine and production of neurotoxic byproducts.

      In summary, while these conditions share some similarities in their presentation, they differ in their underlying causes and associated autoantibodies. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man visits the police station complaining about his wife. He tells...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the police station complaining about his wife. He tells the police she regularly physically beats their 5-year-old daughter with a belt and that she often slaps the girl. The woman is arrested by the police for hitting and brutally beating her 5-year-old daughter. When the woman is asked why she does this, she responds that, ‘This is how my mother treated me, it’s how women should act’.

      Which of the following types of learning behaviour in the woman does this represent?

      Your Answer: Imprinting

      Correct Answer: Social learning

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Learning

      Learning is a complex process that can occur in various ways. Here are some of the different types of learning:

      Social Learning: This type of learning occurs when individuals observe and assimilate the behaviors of others. It is non-verbal and not dependent on reinforcement, which can make it resistant to change.

      Classical Conditioning: This type of learning occurs through associations between an environmental stimulus and a naturally occurring stimulus.

      Cognitive Learning: This theory explains how mental processes are influenced by internal and external factors to produce learning in individuals.

      Imprinting: This type of learning occurs at a particular age or life stage and is rapid and apparently independent of the consequences of behavior.

      Operant Conditioning: This type of learning occurs when the strength of a behavior is modified by its consequences, such as reward or punishment.

      Understanding these different types of learning can help us better understand how individuals acquire and modify behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of urinary symptoms such as...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of urinary symptoms such as difficulty starting to urinate, increased frequency of urination at night, and post-void dribbling. He also reports experiencing back pain for the past few months and has unintentionally lost some weight. During a digital rectal exam, the doctor observes a prostate with an overall rough surface and loss of the medium sulcus. The patient's prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is within normal range. What should be the next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy

      Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI

      Explanation:

      When a man presents with typical urinary symptoms of prostate cancer, such as hesitancy, nocturia, and post-void dribbling, along with back pain and unintentional weight loss, it may indicate metastatic disease. Even if the PSA level is normal, the presence of findings consistent with prostate cancer on examination warrants further assessment through the suspected cancer pathway. Nowadays, multiparametric MRI is the preferred first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer, even if metastasis is suspected. Depending on the results, an MRI-guided biopsy may or may not be recommended. While CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis can detect metastasis, it is not the primary investigation for prostate cancer. Transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy used to be the traditional first-line investigation for prostate cancer, but due to the risk of complications such as sepsis or long-term pain, it is no longer the preferred option. Repeating PSA levels is unnecessary in suspected prostate cancer, as a single elevated level is sufficient to warrant further investigation.

      Investigation for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.

      Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results of the MRI are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are working in the pediatric unit and examine a 6-month-old infant. On...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the pediatric unit and examine a 6-month-old infant. On examination, you observe a small left-sided hematoma over the parietal bone. The hematoma is soft to touch and does not extend beyond the margins of the parietal bone. The infant is otherwise healthy. The infant was born at term via spontaneous vaginal delivery, and there were no prenatal or labor complications. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subaponeurotic haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Cephalhaematoma

      Explanation:

      Medical students may mistake a cephalhaematoma for a caput succedaneum, but there are distinguishing features. Cephalhaematomas typically develop after birth and do not cross the skull’s suture lines, as the blood is contained between the skull and periosteum. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is an extraperiosteal collection of blood that can cross over the suture lines and may be present at birth. Subaponeurotic haemorrhages are a serious condition caused by bleeding in the potential space between the periosteum and subgaleal aponeurosis. They typically present as a boggy swelling that grows insidiously and is not confined to the skull sutures. In severe cases, the neonate may experience haemorrhagic shock. Chignons are birth traumas that occur after the use of a ventouse device during delivery, while a cranial abrasion usually occurs after a caesarean section or instrumental delivery.

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left flank pain and haematuria...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left flank pain and haematuria that has persisted for 3 weeks. She also reports a dry cough that has worsened over the past month. The patient has a history of smoking for 10 pack years. During the examination, a palpable mass is detected in the left flank. The patient is prescribed pembrolizumab and axitinib for treatment. What stage of cancer is likely to have been present at the time of diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stage 4

      Explanation:

      The patient’s renal cell carcinoma had progressed to stage 4, which is metastatic and often presents with symptoms. This was supported by the fact that the patient was treated with pembrolizumab and axitinib, which are the first-line options for stage 4 disease. Stage 1 and 2 were ruled out as they are typically treated with surgical resection, surveillance, or local ablation. Stage 3 was also ruled out as it involves nearby structure invasion but no distant metastases, and is treated with radical nephrectomy.

      Understanding Renal Cell Cancer

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first pregnancy. Her baby is currently in a breech presentation. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for radiological pelvimetry

      Correct Answer: Refer for external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old male with a history of Ulcerative colitis (UC) presents with fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male with a history of Ulcerative colitis (UC) presents with fatigue, abdominal pain, and generalized itching. During the examination, he is found to be jaundiced, and his blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. An MRCP indicates the presence of multiple strictures in the biliary tree.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between liver conditions: Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis, Wilson’s Disease, Cholangitis, Cholecystitis, and Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition characterized by inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the bile ducts. MRCP can show multiple strictures in the biliary tree and a characteristic beaded appearance. PSC is often associated with ulcerative colitis.

      Wilson’s disease is a rare inherited disorder that causes an accumulation of copper in various organs, particularly the liver and brain. Symptoms usually appear in teenage years and can include neuropsychiatric conditions or coagulopathy and hepatic encephalopathy. This does not fit with the case history given.

      Cholangitis is an ascending infection of the biliary tree, but the absence of signs of infection and the presence of strictures make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, often caused by gallstones. If the gallstones become lodged in the common bile duct, obstructive signs may be seen, but the finding of strictures on MRCP is more suggestive of PSC.

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an autoimmune disorder that causes destruction of the small interlobular bile ducts, leading to intrahepatic cholestasis, fibrosis, and ultimately cirrhosis of the liver. However, the patient’s history of ulcerative colitis makes PSC a more likely diagnosis. Additionally, strictures in the biliary tree would not be seen on MRCP in PBC.

      In summary, the presence of strictures on MRCP and a history of ulcerative colitis suggest a diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis, while other liver conditions such as Wilson’s disease, cholangitis, cholecystitis, and primary biliary cholangitis can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a 3 days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a 3 days history of painful swelling in the right eye.

      On examination, the girl appears agitated and is crying continuously. Her temperature is 38.5°C and other vital signs are within normal limits. On examination of the affected eye, the eyelid is swollen and red. Proptosis of the right eye is observed, and there seems to be limited ocular movement as well. The globe is unaffected, and the other eye is normal. There are no signs of systemic involvement.

      What imaging modality should be performed to confirm the most probable diagnosis and assess for potential complications?

      Your Answer: CT venography

      Correct Answer: Contrast enhanced-CT scan of the orbits, sinuses and brain

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of orbital cellulitis, a CT scan with contrast should be conducted to evaluate the potential spread of infection to the posterior region. The presence of symptoms such as limited ocular movement and proptosis indicates a higher likelihood of orbital cellulitis rather than periorbital cellulitis. In cases where orbital cellulitis is suspected, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the sinuses, brain, and orbits should be considered to confirm the diagnosis and identify any potential complications, such as abscesses that may require surgical drainage. Plain skull X-rays are typically used to detect facial bone fractures or metallic foreign bodies in trauma cases. Optical coherence tomography (OCT) is not relevant in this scenario as it is a non-invasive imaging test used to take cross-sectional images of the retina. Ultrasound scans of the eye and orbit are commonly used in cases of eye area injury or trauma. CT venography is performed when cavernous sinus thrombosis is suspected.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and anhedonia. She has previously undergone cognitive behavioural therapy and art therapy, but with limited success. The doctor prescribes citalopram and refers her for additional talk therapy.
      What medication should be avoided while taking citalopram?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Rasagiline

      Explanation:

      Combining SSRIs and MAOIs is not recommended due to the potential danger of developing serotonin syndrome.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain, swelling, and bruising after an inversion injury while playing football. What clinical signs would indicate the need for an ankle X-ray?

      Your Answer: Inability to weight-bear alone

      Correct Answer: Inability to weight-bear and pain over the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules for X-rays in Ankle and Foot Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are used to determine whether an X-ray is necessary for ankle and foot injuries. If there is pain in the malleolar zone plus bony tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or inability to weight-bear immediately post-injury and in the ED, an ankle X-ray is required. However, inability to weight-bear alone is not an indication for an X-ray, but a thorough assessment is necessary to rule out a bony injury. For foot X-rays, pain in the midfoot and bony tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal or navicular bone, or inability to weight-bear, are indications. Pain alone is not an indication for an ankle X-ray, and bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal does not warrant an X-ray. Understanding these rules can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about X-rays for ankle and foot injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 22-year-old woman has been experiencing symptoms of the flu for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman has been experiencing symptoms of the flu for the past four days and has had to take time off work from her job as a receptionist. She would like a sick note to give to her employer. How long can she self-certify before needing to obtain a note from her GP?

      Your Answer: Three months

      Correct Answer: Seven days

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fit Notes: When They’re Required and for How Long

      Fit notes are an important aspect of managing employee sickness, but it can be confusing to know when they’re required and for how long. Here’s a breakdown:

      – Seven days: A fit note is not required until after seven days of sickness. Employees can self-certify with their employer up until this time.
      – 14 days: A fit note would be required if an employee has been absent for 14 days.
      – Three days: Employers should allow employees to self-certify for up to three days of sickness absence.
      – One month: A fit note is required for an absence of one month. A doctor should assess the patient’s need for absence and determine if they are unfit for work or able to work with adjustments.
      – Three months: A fit note is required for prolonged sickness. In the first six months, the maximum time for a fit note is three months. After this, a doctor can extend the note as needed.

      Understanding these guidelines can help employers and employees manage sickness absence effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-RNP antibody

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases

      Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:

      1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).

      2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.

      4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.

      5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.

      By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who works in a factory presents with lower back pain. She says that she has had the pain for past two years and that it started gradually. The patient has no past medical history. There is no evidence or history of trauma. Upon examination the patient has normal power in the lower and upper limbs, and sensation is intact. She denies any fever or weight loss and has no significant family history. She is discharged with analgesia.
      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Referral to physiotherapy and sign off work

      Correct Answer: Mobilisation

      Explanation:

      Management of Lower Back Pain: Explained

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. In managing lower back pain, it is important to identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s back pain is most likely mechanical in nature. Mobilisation has been shown to be effective in reducing back pain, and bed rest is not advised as it can worsen the pain and affect the patient’s daily activities. A lumbar X-ray is not necessary unless there is suspicion of a fracture. Referral to physiotherapy or alternative therapies may be considered if initial management is not effective. An MRI would be indicated if there are any ‘red flags’ in the history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      54.1
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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old G1P0 28 weeks pregnant African American woman presents for her antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old G1P0 28 weeks pregnant African American woman presents for her antenatal screening. Her BMI is 23 kg/m², her BP is 136/82 mmHg, her symphysis-fundal height is 29cm and her urine dipstick results are as follows:
      Test Results
      Ketones negative
      Blood negative
      Protein negative
      Glucose trace
      Nitrites negative
      Leukocytes negative
      What would be the most suitable course of action next?

      Your Answer: Prescribe metformin

      Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased blood flow to the kidneys and an increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), allowing for more efficient filtering of the blood. The patient’s symphysis-fundal height is within the expected range, indicating that the baby is not macrosomic. The patient does not exhibit symptoms of gestational diabetes, such as polyuria, polydipsia, or nocturia, and does not have any risk factors for the condition. Therefore, arranging for a fasting glucose test is not the best option for diagnosing or excluding gestational diabetes. Instead, an OGTT should be considered the gold standard. Prescribing labetalol is not necessary as the patient does not exhibit any concerning signs of pre-eclampsia. Similarly, prescribing metformin is not indicated as the patient has not been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and does not require medication for diabetes at this time.

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy

      The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.

      The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.

      The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented areas of skin in the axillae) and multiple ovarian cysts, demonstrated on ultrasound scan of both ovaries, has been trying to conceive for six months, but her periods are irregular. She has lost 2 stones in weight and attends clinic for further advice on management.
      What is the most appropriate step in the management of this 28-year-old patient with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, multiple ovarian cysts, irregular periods, and a desire to conceive, who has lost 2 stones in weight?

      Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate and metformin

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene citrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Infertility in Women with PCOS

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of infertility in women. Clomiphene citrate is the first-line medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It works by binding to hypothalamic estrogen receptors, inhibiting the negative feedback on follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and triggering ovulation. However, it is important to counsel women about the increased risk of multiple pregnancy when treated with Clomiphene. Metformin, once considered a viable option for PCOS-related infertility, is now considered inferior to Clomiphene. However, it can be used in combination with Clomiphene to increase the success of ovulation induction. Gonadotrophins are recommended as second-line treatment for women who do not respond to Clomiphene. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is a surgical option reserved for cases where Clomiphene has failed. It involves destroying ovarian stroma to reduce androgen-secreting tissue and induce ovulation. The choice of treatment depends on individual patient factors and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. He had an uneventful procedure, but was re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain. He is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on his chest X-ray (CXR). His blood tests show C-reactive protein (CRP) 200 mg/litre, white cell count (WCC) 16 × 109/litre, creatine 150 µmol/litre, urea 8 mmol/litre, phosphate 1.1 mmol/litre, calcium 0.7 mmol/litre.
      What is his most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: He has passed another stone and has cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Managing Complications of ERCP: A Case Study

      A patient presents with abdominal pain, hypocalcaemia, and a pleural effusion several hours after undergoing an ERCP. The most likely diagnosis is pancreatitis, a known complication of the procedure. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Severe cases may require transfer to intensive care. Intestinal and biliary perforation are unlikely causes, as they would have presented with immediate post-operative pain. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. Another possible complication is ascending cholangitis, which presents with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain, but is unlikely to cause hypocalcaemia or a pleural effusion. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage complications of ERCP to prevent severe complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old woman visits the booking clinic for her 8-week pregnancy check-up. It...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits the booking clinic for her 8-week pregnancy check-up. It is revealed during the consultation that she has a history of two deep vein thrombosis. What will be necessary for her management considering her previous VTEs?

      Your Answer: VTE prophylaxis starting from 35 weeks of pregnancy until 6 weeks postnatal

      Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin, starting immediately until 6 weeks postnatal

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a history of VTE should receive LMWH throughout their pregnancy and up to 6 weeks after giving birth to prevent clotting. Warfarin is not recommended during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects, and LMWH is preferred due to its lower side effect profile and reduced need for monitoring.

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the eye emergency department with complaints of blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the eye emergency department with complaints of blurred vision and sensitivity to bright lights. She has a medical history of asthma, polymyalgia rheumatica, and gout. During the examination, the ophthalmologist identifies a subcapsular cataract in her left eye, located just beneath the lens in the visual axis.

      What is the most significant risk factor for subcapsular cataracts?

      Your Answer: Myopia

      Correct Answer: Steroids

      Explanation:

      Steroid use may be linked to the development of subcapsular cataracts, which are located behind the capsule in the visual axis and have a rapid progression. These cataracts are often accompanied by glare from bright lights and appear as a central granular lens opacity during examination. Dot cataracts are associated with myotonic dystrophy, while nuclear cataracts are linked to myopia. Nuclear cataracts with a stellate morphology are typically associated with ocular trauma, but this depends on the mechanism of the injury.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38.5
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first child. Following reviewing the patient in prenatal clinic, you are interested to find out more about stages of fetal development.
      During the fifth (gestational) month of human development, which organ is the most active site of formation of formed elements of the blood?

      Your Answer: Lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The Sites of Haematopoiesis in the Fetus and Adult

      Haematopoiesis, the process of blood cell formation, occurs in various sites throughout fetal development and in adults. The dominant site of haematopoiesis changes as the fetus develops and bones are formed. Here are the different sites of haematopoiesis and their significance:

      Bone Marrow: From four months into childhood and adulthood, bone marrow becomes the primary source of hematopoiesis. Red blood cells and immune effector cells are derived from pluripotent haematopoietic cells, which are first noted in blood islands of the yolk sac. By 20 weeks, almost all of these cells are produced by the bone marrow.

      Yolk Sac: Haematopoiesis begins in the yolk sac and in angiogenic cell clusters throughout the embryonic body. This involves the formation of nucleated red blood cells, which differentiate from endothelial cells in the walls of blood vessels. Yolk sac haematopoiesis peaks at about one month and becomes insignificant by three months.

      Liver: By the sixth week, the fetal liver performs haematopoiesis. This peaks at 12-16 weeks and continues until approximately 36 weeks. Haematopoietic stem cells differentiate in the walls of liver sinusoids. In adults, there is a reserve haematopoietic capacity, especially in the liver.

      Spleen: The spleen is a minor site of haematopoiesis, being active between the third and sixth months.

      Lymph Nodes: Lymph nodes are not a significant site of haematopoiesis.

      In patients with certain conditions, such as haemolytic anaemia or myeloproliferative disease, hepatic haematopoiesis may be reactivated, leading to hepatomegaly. Understanding the different sites of haematopoiesis is important for understanding blood cell formation and certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - As a doctor on the renal ward, you come across a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor on the renal ward, you come across a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is experiencing pain in their right calf. The patient reports that they noticed the pain after waking up this morning. Upon examination, you notice that the calf is mildly erythematosus, painful, and hard to touch. The circumference of the right leg is 3.5 cm more than the left. The patient's physical observations are recorded, which show a respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 99% on air, blood pressure of 110/85 mmHg, heart rate of 64 beats per minute, and a temperature of 36.7ºC. The patient is alert and well orientated.

      You review the patient's most recent blood results, which indicate the following: Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 184 µmol/L (55 - 120), and eGFR 12 ml/min (>90).

      Based on the patient's symptoms and medical history, what is the most appropriate initial treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      Patients with severe renal impairment are more likely to experience bleeding when treated with LMWH compared to UFH for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). NICE guidelines recommend specific anticoagulants based on the patient’s eGFR. For patients with an eGFR of 15-50 ml/min, a DOAC is recommended, while for those with an eGFR of <15 ml/min, UFH or dose-adjusted LMWH is recommended. In this case, UFH is the appropriate choice as it is the only NICE-recommended treatment for a DVT in patients with an eGFR <15 ml/min and has a lower risk of bleeding than LMWH at treatment dose. Rivaroxaban is the first-line treatment for a DVT in patients with an eGFR >15 ml/min. An inferior vena cava filter is not used in the acute management of a DVT but may be considered for patients with recurrent DVTs and difficulty with conventional anticoagulation. While a reduced dose of LMWH or UFH may be used in patients with an eGFR <15 ml/min, treatment dose LMWH is not recommended. Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used. Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen left knee that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He is running a fever. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was recently diagnosed and is being treated with NSAIDs and low-dose oral corticosteroids. He reports that he visited his general practitioner 5 days ago for a painful right ear, and was prescribed antibiotics for an ear infection. Upon examination, the left knee is swollen, red, tender, and slightly flexed, leading to a diagnosis of septic arthritis. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis can be caused by a variety of bacterial organisms. Among them, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common aetiological agent in Europe and the United States. Streptococcus pyogenes is the next most commonly isolated bacteria, often associated with autoimmune diseases, chronic skin infections, and trauma. Gram-negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, account for approximately 10-20% of cases, with a higher prevalence in patients with a history of intravenous drug abuse, extremes of age, or immunocompromised status. Historically, Haemophilus influenzae, S. aureus, and group A streptococci were the most common causes of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years, but the overall incidence of H. influenzae is decreasing due to vaccination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a less common cause, may affect children, the elderly, intravenous drug users, and immunocompromised patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      38.4
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old female soccer player presents to the clinic with intense left knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female soccer player presents to the clinic with intense left knee discomfort. She reports that she landed awkwardly on her knee while playing soccer and heard a 'snapping sound' followed by significant swelling around the left knee joint. During the physical examination, there was an increase in laxity on anterior drawer of the left tibia compared to the femur. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left knee x-ray

      Correct Answer: Left knee magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a knee ligament that is frequently injured, with non-contact injuries being the most common cause. However, a lateral blow to the knee or skiing can also cause ACL injuries. Symptoms of an ACL injury include a sudden popping sound, knee swelling, and a feeling of instability or that the knee may give way. To diagnose an ACL injury, doctors may perform an anterior draw test or a Lachman’s test. During the anterior draw test, the patient lies on their back with their knee at a 90-degree angle, and the examiner pulls the tibia forward to assess the amount of anterior motion in comparison to the femur. An intact ACL should prevent forward translational movement. Lachman’s test is a variant of the anterior draw test, but the knee is at a 20-30 degree angle, and it is considered more reliable than the anterior draw test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following does not result in feeding challenges during the neonatal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not result in feeding challenges during the neonatal phase?

      Your Answer: Physiological jaundice

      Explanation:

      Feeding Difficulty and Physiological Jaundice

      Feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, but it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Physiological jaundice is a benign condition that is short-lived and does not generally cause any symptoms. This means that it is not related to feeding difficulties that infants may experience.

      It is important for parents to be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty in their infants, such as difficulty latching, poor weight gain, and excessive crying during feeding. These symptoms may indicate an underlying medical condition that requires prompt attention. On the other hand, physiological jaundice is a normal occurrence in many newborns and typically resolves on its own without any treatment.

      In summary, while feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Parents should be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty and seek medical attention if necessary, but they can rest assured that physiological jaundice is a benign condition that does not generally cause any symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old woman presents with acute lower back pain of one week duration....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with acute lower back pain of one week duration. The pain is localized to her lower back, rates 9/10 in severity, and has not improved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. She has a medical history significant for stage 3 chronic kidney disease, hypertension, osteoporosis, and hypercholesterolemia. The patient has a 30-pack-year smoking history and is currently taking bendroflumethiazide, amlodipine, alendronic acid, vitamin D supplements, calcium tablets, omeprazole, and atorvastatin. On physical examination, the patient has lumbar lordosis, decreased mobility, and spasm of the paravertebral muscles. Tenderness to palpation is noted at L4-L5. A previous DEXA scan taken 6 months ago shows a T-score of −3.0 in the lumbosacral spine and −3.2 in the left hip. What is the recommended first-line investigation?

      Your Answer: CT spine

      Correct Answer: X-ray spine

      Explanation:

      X-ray of the spine is the first-line investigation for a suspected osteoporotic vertebral fracture, while CT spine, MRI spine, repeat DEXA scan, and skeletal survey are not indicated or necessary.

      Understanding Osteoporotic Vertebral Fractures

      Osteoporotic vertebral fractures are a common consequence of osteoporosis, a condition where bones gradually decrease in bone mineral density, leading to an increased risk of fragility fractures. These fractures often present with acute onset back pain, but patients can also be asymptomatic. Osteoporosis is more prevalent in females than males, with a male-to-female ratio of 1:6. Advancing age is a major risk factor for osteoporotic fractures, with women over 65 and men over 75 being at increased risk. Other risk factors include a previous history of fragility fractures, frequent or prolonged use of glucocorticoids, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, alternative causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, tobacco smoking, and high alcohol intake.

      Patients with osteoporotic vertebral fractures may present with acute back pain, breathing difficulties, gastrointestinal problems, loss of height, kyphosis, and localised tenderness on palpation of spinous processes at the fracture site. X-ray of the spine is the first investigation ordered, which may show wedging of the vertebra due to compression of the bone. Other investigations such as CT spine and MRI spine may be used to visualise the extent/features of the fracture more clearly and differentiate osteoporotic fractures from those caused by another pathology.

      To assess the likelihood of future fractures, risk factors are taken into account, and a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be considered. The FRAX tool or QFracture tool can be used to estimate the 10-year risk of a fracture. These tools require the clinician to input patient information into a form, which is then used by the programme to calculate the risk. Understanding osteoporotic vertebral fractures and their risk factors is crucial in preventing and managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for an elective total hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for an elective total hip replacement. Thromboprophylaxis with dalteparin is administered before the surgery. After eight days, the patient complains of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. The full blood count results reveal a pulmonary embolism. The following are the patient's blood count results: Hb 124 g/L (Female: 115-160; Male: 135-180), Platelets 76 * 109/L (150-400), and WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0-11.0). What is the most probable cause of the pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a possible side effect of heparin. HIT occurs when heparin binds to platelet factor 4 (PF-4) on inactivated platelets, forming a heparin-PF4 complex that triggers an immune response. Some individuals develop IgG antibodies that recognize the heparin-PF4 complex and destroy it in the spleen. This process activates platelets, leading to clot formation and a decrease in platelet count. HIT can cause serious conditions such as pulmonary embolism, stroke, and myocardial infarction. Treatment involves discontinuing heparin and starting a non-heparin anticoagulant.

      DIC is a severe condition where blood clots form throughout the body, blocking small blood vessels. It can be caused by sepsis, trauma, or malignancy and presents with multiple petechiae, ecchymosis, hypoxia, and hypotension. The patient would be severely unwell and present acutely.

      Hypersplenism is characterized by splenomegaly, which is not present in this scenario.

      ITP is a condition that is more common in children and typically occurs 1-2 weeks after an infection. It is the least likely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This type of thrombocytopenia is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that can cause this condition include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate, and heparin.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will develop drug-induced thrombocytopenia. However, those who do may experience symptoms such as easy bruising, bleeding gums, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding from cuts. In severe cases, the condition can lead to life-threatening bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/3) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/2) 50%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Passmed