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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year old woman with chronic upper extremity lymphoedema is suspected to have thoracic outlet syndrome secondary to thoracic duct obstruction.
Regarding the thoracic duct, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: Lies anterior to the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm
Correct Answer: Crosses the midline at the level of T5
Explanation:The Thoracic Duct: Anatomy and Function
The thoracic duct is a vital component of the lymphatic system, responsible for draining lymph from the lower body, left thorax, and left head and neck regions. Here are some key facts about the thoracic duct:
– Crosses the midline at the level of T5: The thoracic duct ascends behind the right crus and to the right of the aorta and oesophagus. It crosses the midline to the left, posterior to the oesophagus, at the level of T5.
– Drains into the confluence of the right internal jugular and subclavian veins: Correction – the thoracic duct enters the confluence of the left subclavian and internal jugular veins, not the confluence of the right subclavian and internal jugular veins.
– Lies to the right of the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm: The thoracic duct does not lie anterior to the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm. The thoracic duct ascends to the right of the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm.
– Has valves: Valves are present along the duct and encourage the propagation of chyle along the duct. These valves may be unicuspid, bicuspid or tricuspid but are most commonly bicuspid.
– May result in a chylothorax if injured: Injury to the thoracic duct may occur after trauma or during insertion of a central venous catheter on the left-hand side. This can result in a chylothorax (a collection of lymph within the thoracic cavity).In summary, the thoracic duct plays a crucial role in the lymphatic system, and understanding its anatomy and function is essential for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, severe chest pain, radiating to the intrascapular area, which he describes as a tearing-type pain.
The patient is usually well, with the only other medical history of note being a diagnosis of Ehlers–Danlos syndrome. He is a non-smoker and rarely drinks.
On examination, the patient appears to be in a significant amount of pain. He is apyrexial, with oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Of note, the patient has a blood pressure of 175/100 mmHg in the right arm and 150/80 mmHg in the left. An early diastolic murmur is also heard in the aortic area.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Aortic Dissection
Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a tear in the aortic intima, creating a false lumen between the intima and media. This condition is more likely to occur in men, older individuals, and those with hypertension or connective tissue disorders such as Marfan and Ehlers-Danlos syndromes.
The classic presentation of aortic dissection includes abrupt chest pain that is often described as a shearing or tearing-type pain that may radiate to the back. Other symptoms may include differences in blood pressure between the right and left arm, aortic regurgitation, and signs of malperfusion.
While a chest X-ray may show widening of the mediastinal shadow, imaging such as computed tomography (CT) or transoesophageal echocardiography is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves stabilizing the patient’s heart rate and blood pressure to prevent further damage, followed by surgical repair.
Although myocardial infarction is a differential diagnosis, the classical history of presentation, age, and connective tissue disorder diagnosis make aortic dissection more likely in this scenario. Other differentials, such as ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, acute pancreatitis, and pulmonary embolism, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings.
In conclusion, aortic dissection should be considered in any patient presenting with sudden-onset chest pain, especially those with risk factors for the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a cigarette habit of 30 per day is being evaluated for operability of his lung carcinoma. One of the parameters being assessed is the angle of bifurcation of the trachea at the carina. In the cadaveric position, where is the typical location of the carina?
Your Answer: The joint between the body and xiphoid process of the sternum
Correct Answer: T4–T5 intervertebral disc
Explanation:Anatomy of the Thoracic Spine: Levels and Structures
The thoracic spine is composed of twelve vertebrae, each with an intervertebral disc between them. Here are some important levels and structures to note:
T4-T5 Intervertebral Disc: This level is significant as it marks the manubriosternal angle of Louis, the bifurcation of the trachea, and the carina. Other structures found here include the undersurface of the arch of the aorta, the ligamentum arteriosum, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve, the division of the pulmonary trunk, and the entrance of the azygos vein into the superior vena cava. However, the carina can descend as low as the sixth thoracic vertebra when the subject is standing erect and inspires fully.
T6-T7 Intervertebral Disc: This level is too inferior to be significant.
The Sternoclavicular Joints: This level is too superior to be significant.
The Joint Between the Body and Xiphoid Process of the Sternum: This level is too inferior to be significant.
The First Rib: This level is too superior to be significant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 4
Correct
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A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung cancer. A chest drain is inserted at the time of surgery to allow full lung reinflation. Three days after the operation, you notice that air bubbles escape through the chest drain into the water seal whenever the patient coughs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Air leak from the area of resected lung
Explanation:Causes of Air Leak from the Area of Resected Lung
Following a lung resection, air may escape through the chest drain due to an air leak from the edge of the resected lung. This can be worsened by talking or coughing, which increases airway pressure. If the chest drain is removed, the patient is at risk of developing a pneumothorax. Conservative management is the first-line approach, which involves leaving the existing chest drain in place and on suction. If significant air leakage occurs, a second drain may be inserted. If the air leak persists, a second operation may be necessary to repair the defect.
Other potential causes of bubbling in the chest drain when the patient coughs include a blocked chest drain, empyema with gas-forming organisms, and recurrent lung cancer. However, these conditions would present differently and have additional symptoms that are absent in cases of air leak from the area of resected lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 5
Incorrect
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At the bifurcation of the trachea, a lesion of the carina is observed during bronchoscopy. Can you determine the vertebral level where this lesion is located?
Your Answer: T3/4
Correct Answer: T4/5
Explanation:The Vertebral Levels of the Trachea and Suprasternal Notch
The trachea is a flexible tube that starts at the C7 vertebral level in the lower neck and ends at the T4/5 vertebral level in the mediastinum. At this level, it splits into the right and left main bronchi, which can be seen during bronchoscopy at the carina. The suprasternal notch is located at the T2/3 vertebral level. None of the other choices provided are correct for the vertebral levels of the trachea and suprasternal notch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man undergoes surgery to remove his left lung due to advanced non-small cell lung cancer. What is the most fatal complication that may arise from this treatment?
Your Answer: Anastomotic dehiscence
Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:After a pneumonectomy, patients may experience various complications. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema affects a small percentage of patients but can be fatal. Treatment involves supportive measures and may require mechanical ventilation or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Pneumonia is a common complication but does not have a high mortality rate. Anastomotic dehiscence, particularly in right pneumonectomies involving the carina, is the most significant cause of mortality. Arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, can occur but are not typically fatal. Pulmonary embolism affects a small percentage of patients but can be deadly if not recognized early. Mortality rates can be reduced to 10% or less with prompt treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old retired teacher is found to have a 5.7 cm aortic aneurysm, following her abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ultrasound screening test. She is referred to the vascular surgeon to discuss surgical repair of the aneurysm. Which of the following is correct regarding surgical repair of AAAs?
Your Answer: Long-term mortality rates are significantly improved in patients undergoing EVAR, compared to open repair
Correct Answer: EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries
Explanation:Myth-busting EVAR: Clarifying Misconceptions About Endovascular Aneurysm Repair
Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) is a minimally invasive alternative to open repair for treating abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA). However, there are several misconceptions about EVAR that need to be clarified.
Contrary to popular belief, EVAR cannot be performed for aneurysms that occur above the renal arteries. In such cases, open repair is the only option as there is not enough normal aorta to attach the graft, increasing the risk of endoleaks.
Another myth is that the risk of immediate post-operative complications is higher for EVAR than open repair. In reality, EVAR is associated with shorter recovery times and reduced lengths of stay, making it a preferred method for treating AAA.
However, the graft attachment is less secure following EVAR, and approximately 1 in 10 patients may need further intervention after the procedure. Additionally, long-term mortality rates do not differ significantly between EVAR and open repair.
Finally, while both EVAR and open surgical methods can be used to treat a ruptured aortic aneurysm, EVAR is not currently recommended for such cases, except in the context of research.
In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths and clarify the facts about EVAR to ensure that patients receive the most appropriate treatment for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired ship dockland worker presents to the Medical Outpatient Department with a history of difficulty breathing, hoarse voice, weight loss and occasional night sweats. He also complains of difficulty in swallowing, although this happens very infrequently. He has also noticed that, in the past month, he has become easily tired when performing his daily activities.
On examination, there is unilateral dullness to percussion at the right lung base, decreased breath sounds on the right side, asymmetrical chest wall expansion and scoliosis are observed. A chest X-ray demonstrates diffuse pleural thickening on the right side and decreased right lung volume. A positron emission tomography (PET) scan and video-assisted thoracoscopy (VAT) are performed to obtain the pleural biopsy, and a histopathological diagnosis is made.
Which of the treatments could achieve the best possible outcome in this patient?Your Answer: Radiotherapy
Correct Answer: Combination therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Malignant Pleural Mesothelioma
Malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) is an aggressive tumor that arises from the mesothelial cells of the pleural cavity, pericardium, mediastinum, and tunica vaginalis. Treatment options for MPM include non-surgical (chemotherapy, radiotherapy), surgical (macroscopic complete resection or MCR), and combined therapies.
Combination therapy, which includes systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, has been shown to prolong the relative survival time of MPM patients compared to chemotherapy alone. The choice of MCR procedure depends on the tumor characteristics, surgeon’s expertise, and local institutional protocols. Cisplatin plus pemetrexed is used in systemic chemotherapy for patients with unresectable tumors or those who do not qualify for curative surgery.
Immunotherapeutic drugs, such as anti-programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) antibodies like pembrolizumab and nivolumab, have shown promising results in a few randomized controlled trials. However, the first line of treatment for unresectable MPM is pemetrexed and platinum-based compounds.
Radiotherapy poses technical challenges due to the limited ipsilateral side involvement of MPM and the potential for radiation toxicity. Prophylactic doses of radiation are used before systemic chemotherapy and surgery, and three-dimensional techniques like intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) can deliver effective radiation doses while sparing healthy tissues. However, exposure of the contralateral lung to radiation can lead to pneumonitis.
In conclusion, a combination of therapies, including systemic chemotherapy, MCR, and radiotherapy, can prolong the survival time of MPM patients. The choice of treatment depends on the tumor characteristics, patient selection, and institutional protocols. Immunotherapy and radiotherapy are also potential treatment options, but their use depends on the patient’s individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance following a knife altercation in the city on a Saturday evening. He sustained a chest wound from the stabbing. Upon resuscitation and stabilization, it was observed that he had left scapular winging. Which nerve was affected to result in this injury?
Your Answer: Intercostobrachial nerve
Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Explanation:Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Shoulder Movement
The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to facilitate movement. Injuries to specific nerves can have a significant impact on the ability to move certain parts of the body. Here are some examples of nerve injuries and their effects on shoulder movement:
1. Long Thoracic Nerve: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for protracting the scapula and holding it against the thoracic wall. Damage to this nerve can lead to difficulty in lifting the arm above the head.
2. Axillary Nerve: The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle, which is a powerful shoulder abductor. Injury to this nerve can cause problems with shoulder abduction, making it difficult to lift the arm away from the body.
3. Intercostobrachial Nerve: This nerve provides sensation to the armpit area. Damage to this nerve can cause pain and tingling in the armpit.
4. Thoracodorsal Nerve: The thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle, which is responsible for adduction, extension, and medial rotation of the arm. Injury to this nerve can lead to paralysis of the latissimus dorsi, making it difficult to perform these movements.
5. Medial Pectoral Nerve: This nerve innervates the pectoralis major and minor muscles, which are responsible for adduction, flexion, and medial rotation of the arm. Damage to this nerve can cause paralysis of these muscles, leading to difficulty in performing these movements.
In conclusion, nerve injuries can have a significant impact on shoulder movement. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of nerve damage to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man with advanced-stage non-small cell lung carcinoma, after completing chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is referred to the Surgical Department by his oncologist. He has been experiencing difficulty breathing and right-sided chest pain for the past two weeks. A chest X-ray and CT scan of the chest are ordered. The chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion on the right side with a mediastinal shift on the same side, while the CT scan shows thickening of the mediastinal pleura with nodular areas. The patient undergoes pleural aspiration, and the sample is sent for laboratory analysis.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment to alleviate the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Pleurodesis
Correct Answer: Thoracocentesis
Explanation:Management Options for Malignant Pleural Effusions
Malignant pleural effusions are a common complication of lung tumors and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The management of these effusions should focus on improving symptoms and providing palliative care, as it does not affect overall survival rates. Here are some management options for malignant pleural effusions:
Thoracocentesis: This is the first-line management for providing symptomatic relief. It involves using an ultrasound-guided needle and/or catheter to draw around 1-1.5 liters of pleural fluid while monitoring patient symptoms.
Pleurectomy: This invasive procedure involves a thoracotomy followed by total pleurodectomy and decortication of the parietal fibrous coat. However, it carries a high risk of mortality and morbidity, and there is little evidence to justify the high risk-to-benefit ratio.
Pleurodesis: This method involves inducing pleural inflammation to ultimately lead to fibrosis and obliteration of the pleural space. It can be done using a chemical sclerosant or talc and is effective in most clinical settings. It can be the next line of management in recurrent malignant pleural effusions with expandable lungs.
Pleuroperitoneal shunt: This procedure involves creating a shunt between the pleural and peritoneal cavities to drain the pleural fluid. It is performed in refractory malignant pleural effusions as a last resort of treatment following thoracocentesis and pleurodesis.
Radiotherapy: This treatment is indicated for malignant pleural effusions in lymphomas and lymphomatous chylothorax. However, it is unlikely to provide symptomatic relief for patients who have already received a course of radiotherapy for their primary tumor.
In conclusion, the management of malignant pleural effusions should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and goals, with a focus on improving symptoms and providing palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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