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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and reduced hearing in the left ear. She has had these attacks for the last 1-2 years. She has a feeling of aural fullness and discomfort in the left ear in advance of an attack which persists during an attack. Attacks can last up to 2-3 hours each time and occur in clusters over a few weeks. After an attack she feels worn out for a day or two and slightly unsteady.

      When seen she is asymptomatic and head and neck examination is normal. No current hearing impairment is reported or apparent.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate management approach?

      Your Answer: Refer her for audiological assessment

      Correct Answer: Refer her to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      This patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with Meniere’s disease, including episodic spontaneous vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness. Meniere’s disease is characterized by acute attacks lasting a few hours, occurring in clusters, and followed by periods of remission. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for the condition, audiometric testing can be helpful in demonstrating sensorineural low-to-mid frequency hearing loss. Referral to ENT services is recommended to confirm the diagnosis.

      Brandt-Daroff exercises are not recommended for managing Meniere’s disease, as they are used for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. An MRI brain scan would not be an appropriate next step in primary care based on this presentation. While audiometric assessment can be useful, it is not the best option as ENT services can arrange any necessary testing and appropriately investigate the condition. Attacks in Meniere’s disease typically settle within 24 hours, and prolonged attacks should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Referral to ENT services can provide support and input on a multidisciplinary level, which can be key if worsening symptoms, such as persistent hearing impairment, develop over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      322.9
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  • Question 2 - You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, you notice around 5 small and shallow aphthous ulcers on the inner lining of his mouth.

      What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive use is a risk factor of aphthous mouth ulcers

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking is a risk factor for aphthous mouth ulcers

      Explanation:

      There are various factors that can contribute to the development of oral ulcers. These include smoking, deficiencies in iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12, and local trauma to the oral mucosa. Additionally, anxiety and exposure to certain foods such as chocolate, coffee, peanuts, and gluten products may also play a role. However, hormonal factors are not typically associated with the development of oral ulcers.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      189.2
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node on the left side of her neck. She reports first noticing it during a cold she had about four weeks ago, and it has since increased in size, causing her to become more worried. During the examination, you observe a cervical lymph node with a diameter of 3 cm. There are no other abnormal findings. Routine blood tests reveal mild normochromic normocytic anemia and an elevated ESR of 72, but are otherwise normal.

      What is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent suspected cancer referral

      Correct Answer: CXR

      Explanation:

      Suspected Hodgkin’s Lymphoma in Primary Care

      This patient’s presentation of a solitary enlarged lymph node, mild anaemia, and raised ESR falls within the age range for possible Hodgkin’s lymphoma. While constitutional symptoms are only present in a minority of cases, it is important to consider this diagnosis and refer urgently for excision biopsy of the lymph node. CXR and CT are important for staging, but not for confirming the diagnosis in primary care. Rapidly enlarging neck masses of greater than three weeks duration should be referred urgently to a specialist without first arranging imaging. Upper GI pathology is less likely given the absence of symptoms, and routine referral to haematology is not appropriate. NICE guidelines recommend considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma in adults presenting with unexplained lymphadenopathy, taking into account any associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
      He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
      Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Request an urgent ultrasound scan of his neck

      Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer

      Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.

      In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      218.9
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's palsy three months ago. The patient was treated with prednisolone and has seen some improvement in their facial weakness, but still experiences some weakness in their left facial muscles (power 4/5). The patient is interested in knowing if there are any additional tests or referrals that could be beneficial.

      What is the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer: Reassure that persistent symptoms always go away eventually

      Correct Answer: Reassure, but explain that if symptoms persist in four months' time you will refer to plastic surgery

      Explanation:

      If a patient with Bell’s palsy experiences residual weakness after six months, it is appropriate to refer them to a plastics specialist. It is important to provide reassurance and safety netting regarding the referral. However, ordering an MRI head is not necessary if the symptoms are consistent with Bell’s palsy and the patient has responded to treatment. Neurology referral is also not necessary unless there is doubt about the initial diagnosis or if there are other clinical features suggestive of stroke. It is important to monitor patients with persistent symptoms and refer them to a specialist if necessary. Simply reassuring the patient may not be appropriate in cases where specialist review is required.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      147.1
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  • Question 6 - You encounter a 45-year-old man who complains of a painful mouth. He reveals...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 45-year-old man who complains of a painful mouth. He reveals that he has been experiencing a mouth ulcer for about 3 weeks. It started as a small painless sore but has now grown in size and is causing him discomfort. Despite trying various mouthwashes, he has not found any relief. He is in good health and has no other symptoms. Although he is not overly concerned about the ulcer, he would like you to prescribe something to help it heal.

      Upon examination, you notice a 4mm ulcer in his oral cavity, surrounded by a white plaque. There is no lymphadenopathy.

      How would you approach the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently (for an appointment within 2 weeks) to ENT

      Explanation:

      If a person has had a mouth ulcer for more than three weeks, it is important to refer them to secondary care urgently. In cases where there is unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered for an appointment within two weeks. This is also true for patients with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity, or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia, who should be urgently referred for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist within two weeks. In this particular case, the patient with a solitary ulcer for more than three weeks should be seen by an ENT specialist within two weeks.

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      150.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her mother to request a referral for an adenotonsillectomy. She has experienced 3 severe episodes of acute tonsillitis in the past year and 4 episodes the year before, resulting in her missing a total of 5 days of school. Despite this, she has been informed that she doesn't meet the criteria for an adenotonsillectomy. What is the reason for her not meeting the referral criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needs 5 or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding 2 years

      Explanation:

      The criteria for adenotonsillectomy in recurrent tonsillitis, as recommended by SIGN, state that a patient should have at least five or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding two years. Jodie, who has had three and four bouts of acute tonsillitis over the past two years, doesn’t meet this minimum requirement.

      Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications

      Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.

      Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 8 - You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease. She has been suffering from tinnitus and mild hearing loss on the right side for nearly 2 years. Every 2 months, she has an episode of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, which lasts up to 7 days and causes her significant distress. While under the care of the ENT team, she is curious about any available treatments to prevent Meniere's disease attacks.

      What would be your initial recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      To prevent recurrent attacks of Meniere’s disease, doctors often prescribe betahistine. While prochlorperazine and promethazine teoclate can be used to treat acute attacks, they are not effective in preventing them. Betahistine, taken at an initial dose of 16 mg three times a day, can help reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Diuretics are not recommended for treating Meniere’s disease in primary care. Although some other drugs, such as corticosteroids, have been used historically to treat Meniere’s disease, there is limited evidence to support their use and they should only be used under the supervision of an ENT specialist.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 9 - You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman,...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman, who reports sudden onset of dizziness that started four days ago. The dizziness has been constant since then and causes her to feel unsteady while walking. She has a medical history of migraines and rheumatoid arthritis but has never experienced similar episodes before. She consumes 21 units of alcohol per week and has never smoked.

      During the examination, she can stand and walk but requires support from furniture. You attempt to perform a Romberg test, but she starts to sway as soon as she closes her eyes. Both tympanic membranes appear normal. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable except for marked nystagmus on vertical gaze. The rest of her neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrovascular accident

      Explanation:

      When experiencing sudden dizziness, it can be challenging to determine if it is caused by a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). To differentiate between central (related to the central nervous system) and peripheral (related to the inner ear) causes of vertigo, doctors look for the presence of vertical nystagmus. If present, it indicates a central cause. Other signs of a central cause include the presence of other neurological symptoms and risk factors for CVAs. Labyrinthitis and benign paroxysmal positional vertigo are peripheral causes of vertigo that would cause lateral nystagmus. A space occupying lesion may cause central vertigo, but symptoms would likely have a more gradual onset. Vestibular migraines are a central cause that can cause vertical nystagmus, but the vertigo typically lasts for 4-72 hours, so the persistence of symptoms would not fit this diagnosis.

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man who is a smoker presents with a 6-week history of hoarseness of voice. He is otherwise well with no weight loss or sore throat, and has a normal-looking oropharynx and oral cavity.
      What is the MOST APPROPRIATE management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the local hospital ENT department under the 2-week-wait criteria

      Explanation:

      Importance of Prompt Referral for Laryngeal Carcinoma

      Laryngeal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications and even death. One of the most common symptoms of laryngeal carcinoma is persistent hoarseness, which is why it is important to seek medical attention if you experience this symptom.

      In addition to hoarseness, an unexplained lump in the neck is another sign that you may be at risk of laryngeal carcinoma. If you experience either of these symptoms, it is important to seek a 2-week-wait cancer referral as soon as possible.

      The priority in diagnosing laryngeal carcinoma is to exclude it by direct visualisation of the larynx, which can only be done in an ENT department. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention and get referred to an ENT department for further evaluation and treatment. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/6) 17%
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