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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
The lesion is 45 mm Ć 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
You suspect malignant melanoma.
Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?Your Answer: Irregular border
Correct Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy
Explanation:Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis
When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old diabetic patient presents with an abscess on the nape of his neck with multiple discharging sinuses.
Which one of the following terms would you use to describe the presentation?Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis
Correct Answer: Carbuncle
Explanation:Common Skin Infections and Conditions
Carbuncles, cellulitis, furuncles, infected sebaceous cysts, and necrotising fasciitis are all common skin infections and conditions that can cause discomfort and pain. Carbuncles are collections of pus that discharge to the surface via multiple sinuses and are usually caused by staphylococcal infection. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the lower dermis and subcutaneous tissue, presenting with a localised area of painful, red, swollen skin and fever. Furuncles are perifollicular abscesses, also typically caused by staphylococcal infection. Infected sebaceous cysts are round, dome-shaped, encapsulated lesions containing fluid or semi-fluid material. On the other hand, necrotising fasciitis is a serious bacterial infection of the soft tissue and fascia that can result in extensive tissue loss and death if not promptly recognised and treated with antibiotics and debridement. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these conditions are suspected, especially in patients with diabetes or those who are immunosuppressed. Clinical assessment and appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted to ensure proper treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy with worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces on his arms, attends a routine GP clinic with his mother. Despite regular liberal use of emollient cream, the symptoms have not improved significantly. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the child's eczema?
Your Answer: Refer to the dermatology clinic
Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Referral Considerations
When a child presents with eczema, the first step is often to use emollient cream to manage the symptoms. However, if the eczema persists or worsens, a topical corticosteroid cream may be necessary. It is important to use this sparingly and in conjunction with emollients. While oral corticosteroids may be considered in severe cases, they should be used with caution and ideally under the guidance of a dermatologist. Emollient ointments may also be helpful, but a short course of topical corticosteroids is often more effective for managing flare-ups. If symptoms continue to worsen despite treatment, referral to a dermatology clinic may be necessary. Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about atopic eczema?
Your Answer: Does not have a genetic basis
Correct Answer: Usually starts in the first year of life
Explanation:Atopic Eczema
Atopic eczema is a skin condition that is more likely to occur in individuals who have a family history of asthma, hay fever, and eczema. One of the common causes of this condition is cow’s milk, and switching to a milk hydrolysate may help alleviate symptoms. The condition typically affects the face, ears, elbows, and knees.
It is important to note that topical steroids should only be used sparingly if symptoms cannot be controlled. Atopic eczema often develops in the first year of life, making it crucial for parents to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary. By the causes and symptoms of atopic eczema, individuals can take steps to manage the condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Telangiectasia
Explanation:Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Characteristics and Warning Signs
Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of skin cancer, typically found in sun-exposed areas such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. A basal cell carcinoma often appears as a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, or fine vessels on the surface. It may also be an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. While basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize, they can be locally invasive and destructive. Pigmentation is a feature of melanocytic lesions, but basal cell carcinomas may rarely show pigmentation. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden increases in size should be referred for further assessment. Other warning signs include crusted edges and unprovoked bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies
Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.
Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.
Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.
Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.
Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.
Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents. She had a fever for four days, and as this disappeared she was noted to have a rash.
On examination, she is apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Common Rashes and Their Characteristics
Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash that appears as small, pink, flat spots on the skin. The rash usually starts on the trunk and spreads to the limbs, neck, and face. Along with the rash, the infected person may also experience fever and swollen lymph nodes.
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes red, raised, and blistering lesions on the skin. The lesions are usually circular or oval in shape and have a target-like appearance. They can appear on any part of the body, but are most commonly found on the hands, feet, and face. The condition is often triggered by an infection or medication.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a blood disorder that causes a low platelet count. This can lead to easy bruising and bleeding, and in some cases, a petechial rash. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots on the skin that are caused by bleeding under the skin.
Henoch-Schƶnlein purpura is a condition that causes inflammation of the blood vessels. This can lead to a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs, as well as joint pain and abdominal pain. The condition is most commonly seen in children.
Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This means that the rash does not fade when pressure is applied to it. Other symptoms of the infection include fever, headache, and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135ā175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 Ć 109/l 4ā11 Ć 109/l
Platelets 220 Ć 109/l 150ā400 Ć 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135ā145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5ā5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50ā120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?Your Answer: Insect bites
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis
Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Regular emollient plus a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent
Correct Answer: Permethrin cream
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old accountant is referred to Dermatology after developing some patches of hypopigmentation. The patient reports a 2-month history of patchy areas of discolouration over her chest and back. She is feeling extremely distressed and self-conscious about these areas. The patient has stopped going to the beach due to the lesions, which she previously enjoyed.
During examination, the patient has multiple patches of flaky, discoloured hypopigmented lesions distributed over the chest and back.
What is the most likely cause of hypopigmented skin in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:Skin Conditions and Pigmentation Changes
Pigmentation changes in the skin can be caused by various factors, including skin conditions and hormonal imbalances. Here are some examples:
Pityriasis versicolor: This common skin complaint is characterized by flaky, discoloured, hypopigmented patches that mainly appear on the chest and back. It is caused by the overgrowth of a yeast called Malassezia furfur.
Whipple’s disease: This rare bacterial infection can cause hyperpigmentation in some cases.
High oestriol: Elevated levels of this hormone, which can occur during pregnancy, are associated with hyperpigmentation.
Neurofibromatosis type I: This genetic disorder causes numerous cafƩ-au-lait patches, which are hyperpigmented patches.
Urticaria pigmentosa: This condition, which typically develops in childhood, causes hyperpigmented patches that usually fade by the teenage years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma
When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.
A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.
In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of thick, well-defined, red patches with silvery scales on the extensor surfaces of his elbows and knees. He has been experiencing these skin lesions intermittently for the past 3 years. The lesions tend to improve during the summer months, worsen during times of stress, and reappear at the site of trauma, particularly where he scratches. A skin biopsy specimen reveals epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils present within the epidermis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plaque psoriasis
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview
Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by a rash with typical histology and location. The Koebner phenomenon, where lesions occur at sites of trauma, is a common feature of psoriasis. Treatment involves exposure to ultraviolet light, tar-based treatments, and immunosuppressant drugs. Pruritus is not always present.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis presents as itchy, ill-defined erythema and greasy scaling on the scalp, nasolabial folds, or post-auricular skin in adults and adolescents.
Lichen planus is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by itchy, red rashes often found in the flexor areas of joints.
Tinea corporis is a ringworm infection characterized by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematosus, and scaly, with papules, vesicles, and pustules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching on his face and hands. He has been to another GP for similar issues in the past two years and has been on sick leave from his job as a builder. He is currently receiving benefits and is in the process of making an insurance claim for loss of earnings. He mentions that there was one ointment that worked for him, but he has not been able to find it again. On examination, there are no visible skin lesions or rash. The patient appears unconcerned and requests that his GP sign his insurance claim paperwork. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Somatoform Disorders, Malingering, and Munchausen’s Syndrome
Somatoform disorders are characterized by the unconscious drive to produce illness and the motivation to seek medical attention. On the other hand, malingering involves a conscious effort to fake or claim a disorder for personal gain, such as financial compensation. Meanwhile, Munchausen’s syndrome is a chronic condition where patients have a history of multiple hospital admissions and are willing to undergo invasive procedures.
In somatoform disorders, patients are not intentionally faking their symptoms. Instead, their unconscious mind is producing physical symptoms as a way to cope with psychological distress. This can lead to a cycle of seeking medical attention and undergoing unnecessary tests and procedures. In contrast, malingering is a deliberate attempt to deceive medical professionals for personal gain. Patients may exaggerate or fabricate symptoms to receive compensation or avoid legal consequences.
Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare condition where patients repeatedly seek medical attention and undergo invasive procedures despite having no actual medical condition. This behavior is driven by a desire for attention and sympathy from medical professionals. Patients with Munchausen’s syndrome may go to great lengths to maintain their deception, including intentionally harming themselves to produce symptoms.
In summary, somatoform disorders, malingering, and Munchausen’s syndrome are all conditions that involve the production or faking of physical symptoms. However, the motivations behind these behaviors differ. these conditions can help medical professionals provide appropriate care and support for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man without prior history of skin issues comes in with severe itching that worsens at night. The rash is made up of small, red, extremely itchy bumps on the limbs and torso. His girlfriend is also experiencing itching. Upon closer examination of his skin, what finding would most likely confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Burrows
Explanation:Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Characteristics
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, variety hominis. The female mite burrows into the skin, creating characteristic lesions known as burrows. However, the absence of burrows does not rule out a diagnosis of scabies. Other symptoms include erythema, or redness and scaling of the skin, and excoriations, or skin abrasions caused by scratching. In severe cases, crusting patches may develop, particularly in crusted scabies, a highly contagious variant of the condition. Prurigo nodules, or small bumps on the skin, may also occur in scabies, especially in young children. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies, as prompt treatment can prevent the spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presented with numerous blisters on his trunk and limbs. Linear IG deposits were observed along the basement membrane in direct immunofluorescence studies. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation:Bullous Pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of tense bullae, which are filled with clear fluid and appear on normal or erythematosus skin. Unlike pemphigus vulgaris, which causes blisters at the dermal-epidermal junction, bullous pemphigoid causes blistering at the subepidermal level, resulting in the formation of tense blisters. In contrast, pemphigus vulgaris causes thin-walled and fragile blisters that are rarely intact.
To differentiate bullous pemphigoid from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence is necessary. This test helps to identify the presence of linear basement membrane zone deposition of immunoglobulin and complement, which are of the IgG type.
In summary, bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that causes the formation of tense bullae on normal or erythematosus skin. It is important to differentiate it from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, through a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which measures 1.5 cm. He is booked in to have surgery to remove it.
During the excision biopsy what margin size will be taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 mm
Explanation:Surgical Margins for Skin Cancer Excision
When removing skin cancer through excision biopsy, it is important to use appropriate surgical margins to ensure complete removal of the cancerous cells. The size of the margin depends on the type and thickness of the cancer.
For melanomas, a 2 mm margin is used for the initial excision biopsy. After calculating the Breslow thickness, an additional wide excision is made with margins ranging from 1 cm to 2 cm, depending on the thickness of the melanoma. A 1 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring 1.0ā4.0 mm, while a 2 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring >4 mm.
Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) requires a 4 mm excision margin, while basal-cell carcinoma (BCC) requires a 3 mm margin.
Using appropriate surgical margins is crucial for successful removal of skin cancer and preventing recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic ulcer on his left forearm. On enquiry by the consultant, he revealed that he suffered full-thickness burn at the site of the ulcer nearly 20 years ago. The consultant told the patient he had a Marjolinās ulcer.
Which of the following statements best describes a Marjolinās ulcer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is often painless
Explanation:Understanding Marjolin’s Ulcer: A Squamous Cell Carcinoma in Scar Tissue
Marjolin’s ulcer is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that develops in scar tissue. This condition is often associated with chronic wounds and scar tissues, which are prone to an increased risk for skin cancer. While it most frequently occurs in old burn scars, it can also develop in relation to other types of injuries and wounds.
One of the unique characteristics of Marjolin’s ulcer is that it grows slowly due to the scar tissue being relatively avascular. Additionally, it is painless because the tissue contains no nerves. While it typically appears in adults around 53-59 years of age, the latency period between the initial injury and the appearance of cancer can be 25-40 years.
Contrary to popular belief, Marjolin’s ulcer is not a sarcoma. Instead, it is a squamous cell carcinoma that can invade normal tissue surrounding the scar and extend at a normal rate. While secondary deposits do not occur in the regional lymph nodes due to the destruction of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes can become involved if the ulcer invades normal tissue.
In conclusion, understanding Marjolin’s ulcer is crucial for individuals who have experienced chronic wounds or scar tissue. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy rash on his arm. During the examination, you observe polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner part of his forearm. Some of these papules have merged to form plaques. He has no history of skin disorders and is not presently taking any medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Dermatological Disorders: Characteristics and Differences
Lichen planus is a skin disorder that is believed to be autoimmune in nature. It is characterized by a purple, polygonal, and papular rash that is often accompanied by itching. This condition is rare in both young and elderly populations and typically appears acutely on the flexor aspect of the wrists, forearms, and legs.
Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a condition that usually presents as a red, itchy rash on the flexural areas of joints such as the elbows and knees. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 5. As the patient in question has no history of skin disease, it is unlikely that he has eczema.
Scabies is a contagious skin condition that is most commonly seen in children, young adults, and older adults in care homes. It causes widespread itching and linear burrows on the sides of fingers, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrists.
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that typically presents with itchy white spots. It is most commonly seen on the vulva in elderly women or on the penis in men.
Plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that presents as itchy white or red plaques on the extensor surfaces of joints such as the elbows.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tinea versicolor
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes
Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:
Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.
Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.
Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.
Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.
Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of erythematous papulo-pustular lesions on the convexities of her face for the past two years. She also has a history of erythema and telangiectasia. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rosacea
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions
Skin conditions can be easily differentiated based on their characteristic symptoms. Acne is identified by the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. On the other hand, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, along with other systemic symptoms. Meanwhile, polymorphous light eruption (PLE) does not cause telangiectasia.
One telltale sign of acne is the presence of papules, pustules, and comedones. These are often accompanied by background erythema and telangiectasia. In contrast, SLE is identified by a photosensitive erythematosus rash on the cheeks, which may be accompanied by other systemic symptoms. PLE, on the other hand, does not cause telangiectasia. By the unique symptoms of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff. He also reports the presence of scaling lesions on his face. Upon examination, there is waxing scale with underlying erythema on his eyebrows, scalp, and nasolabial fold. The patient has a history of HIV for the past 3 years and is currently taking retroviral medication. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a superficial fungal infection, Malassezia furfur. It typically affects the scalp and face, presenting as yellow papules and scaling plaques with underlying erythema. Treatment involves topical steroid and anti-fungal drugs.
Contact Dermatitis: Hypersensitivity reactions to substances like latex, jewellery, soap, and detergents can cause pruritic erythematous rashes with papulo-vesicular lesions at the site of contact.
Atopic Dermatitis: Patients with atopic dermatitis have high levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and present with scaly, erythematosus, pruritic skin lesions, most commonly on the flexor surfaces.
Acne: More common in women than men, acne presents as papulo-pustular lesions on the face and other body areas. Rupture of these lesions releases free fatty acids, which further irritate the skin and extend the lesions. Both black open comedones and closed white comedones may be present.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease causes discrete, smooth, circular areas of hair loss on the scalp, without associated scaling, inflammation, or broken hair. It can involve a single or multiple areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient expresses concerns about her hair loss. She has noticed patches of hair loss for the past three months without any associated itching. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. She also takes the combined oral contraceptive and has regular withdrawal bleeds. On physical examination, the patient appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region. What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions
Hair loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including autoimmune conditions and thyroid disease. In the case of alopecia areata, which is a type of hair loss characterized by discrete patches of hair loss, about 1% of cases are associated with thyroid disease. However, this type of hair loss is not typically seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which often presents with scarring alopecia. Androgenic alopecia, which is the most common type of hair loss in both men and women, typically causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas rather than discrete patches of hair loss. Over-treatment with thyroxine to cause hyperthyroidism or the use of oral contraceptives can also lead to general hair loss. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hair loss in order to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman injures her arm on a sharp object while hiking. Within a few days, a small blister forms at the site of the injury, which eventually turns into an open sore. The sore has an uneven purple edge and quickly becomes wider and deeper. The woman experiences severe pain at the site of the sore.
What is the probable medical diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohnās disease
Explanation:Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition associated with Crohn’s disease. It is diagnosed based on clinical history and examination, and treatment options include topical or systemic steroid therapy. Coeliac disease is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to dermatitis herpetiformis, which causes itchy papules on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, or knees. Pretibial myxoedema is a skin condition associated with Grave’s disease, characterized by waxy, discolored induration on the Pretibial areas. SLE is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to a facial butterfly rash. T1DM is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to necrobiosis lipoidica and granuloma annulare, which cause tender patches and discolored plaques, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a 28-year-old IT consultant who has been diagnosed with plaque psoriasis confined to his elbows?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DovobetĀ®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Localised Plaque Psoriasis
Localised plaque psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that causes red, scaly patches on the skin. There are several treatment options available, including DovobetĀ®, Infliximab, Methotrexate, Photochemotherapy (PUVA), and Retinoids.
DovobetĀ® is an ointment or gel that contains both calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate. It works synergistically to relieve the symptoms of localised plaque psoriasis. However, it is contraindicated for patients with certain conditions and precautions should be taken in prescribing for certain patients.
Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha biologic agent that is used in systemic arthritis, particularly psoriatic arthritis. It is not used for localised plaque psoriasis.
Methotrexate is an antifolate immunosuppressant and chemotherapy agent. It would not be a first-line therapy for localised psoriasis.
Photochemotherapy (PUVA) is a type of ultraviolet radiation treatment that can be used for localised psoriasis but would not be first line.
Retinoids are derived from vitamin A and cause proliferation and reduced keratinisation of skin cells. They would not be first line for localised psoriasis.
In conclusion, the choice of treatment for localised plaque psoriasis depends on the severity of the condition, the patient’s medical history, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous vesicles on her shoulders, back, and buttocks. She is also currently experiencing several mouth ulcers.
What is the probable diagnosis for her skin rash?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare skin condition that is linked to gluten sensitivity. It causes clusters of blisters to appear symmetrically on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. Treatment involves a gluten-free diet and medication to reduce itching.
Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic and itchy skin condition that is very common. It can appear anywhere on the body and is often treated with topical steroids and moisturizers.
Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp and face. It causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin. Treatment involves medicated shampoos and topical creams.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, teardrop-shaped plaques all over the body. It often follows a streptococcal throat infection and is treated with topical steroids and phototherapy.
Eczema pompholyx, also known as hand/foot eczema, is characterized by blisters on the hands and feet. Treatment involves avoiding irritants and using topical steroids and moisturizers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male patient complains of a sudden worsening of his pre-existing psoriasis over the past three days. Is it possible that one of his medications is responsible for this acute deterioration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications that can worsen psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by certain medications. Beta-blockers, commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart conditions, are known to induce psoriasis or make existing psoriasis worse. Other medications that can exacerbate psoriasis include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antimalarials, and lithium. These medications can contribute to erythrodermic and pustular eruptions, which can be severe and require medical attention. It’s important to note that reactions to these medications can occur anywhere from less than a month to a year after starting the medication. Additionally, tapering doses of steroids can also lead to a worsening of psoriasis symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. He has had these skin lesions on and off over the last 2 years. The lesions become less severe during summer, aggravate at the time of stress and recur at the site of skin trauma. Histopathological examination of the skin biopsy specimen shows epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils inside the epidermis.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Psoriasis, Lichen Planus, Seborrheic Dermatitis, Lichen Simplex Chronicus, and Tinea Corporis are all common skin conditions with distinct characteristics.
Psoriasis is identified by thick, well-defined, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. The Koebner phenomenon, the occurrence of typical lesions at sites of trauma, is often seen in psoriasis. Exposure to ultraviolet light is therapeutic for psoriatic skin lesions, which is why the lesions become less severe during summer. Pruritus is not always present in psoriasis.
Lichen Planus is characterised by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red to violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.
Seborrheic Dermatitis manifests with itching, ill-defined erythema, and greasy scaling involving the scalp, nasolabial fold or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.
Lichen Simplex Chronicus is characterised by skin lichenification in the area of chronic itching and scratching. Epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis with intraepidermal neutrophils are features of psoriasis, not lichen simplex chronicus.
Tinea Corporis is a ringworm characterised by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined, active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematous and scaly with papules, vesicles and pustules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the skin. She is usually healthy but has been taking regular ibuprofen for the past two days due to a headache.
On examination, the patient has numerous tense bullae across the trunk and limbs. There is no involvement of the mouth. The dermatologist suspects bullous pemphigoid and wonders which adhesive structure is disrupted by autoimmune mechanisms in this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemidesmosome
Explanation:Cell Junctions: Types and Functions
Cell junctions are specialized structures that connect adjacent cells and play a crucial role in maintaining tissue integrity and function. There are several types of cell junctions, each with a unique structure and function.
Hemidesmosome: Hemidesmosomes are structures that anchor cells of the stratum basale of the skin to the underlying epidermal basement membrane. Autoantibodies to hemidesmosome components can cause bullous pemphigoid, a disease characterized by large, fluid-filled blisters.
Desmosome: Desmosomes bind cells together in the more superficial layers of the epidermis. Desmogleins are important proteins for desmosome integrity. Autoantibodies to desmogleins can cause pemphigus vulgaris and other types of pemphigus.
Zonula occludens: The zonula occludens is a tight junction that fuses the outer leaflets of the plasma membrane, preventing the passage of small molecules between cells.
Zonula adherens: The zonula adherens is an intercellular adhesion site that contains small gaps between adjacent plasma membranes in the junctional complex. It is reinforced by intracellular microfilaments.
Gap junction: Gap junctions create an aqueous channel between adjacent cells, allowing the passage of small signaling molecules for the coordination of various physiological activities.
In summary, cell junctions are essential for maintaining tissue integrity and function. Each type of junction has a unique structure and function, and disruptions in their integrity can lead to various diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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