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  • Question 1 - Before his initial occupational health visit, the clinic physician reviews the results of...

    Incorrect

    • Before his initial occupational health visit, the clinic physician reviews the results of a blood test taken by a 23-year-old medical student for hepatitis B serology.
      What is the significance of the following blood test results?
      - Positive anti-HBc IgG
      - Negative anti-HBc IgM
      - Negative anti-HBs
      - Positive HBsAg

      Your Answer: Immunity following previous vaccination to hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Chronic infection with hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      If a person has a positive anti-HBc IgG, negative anti-HBc IgM, and negative anti-HBc in the presence of HBsAg, it indicates that they have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In acute hepatitis B infection, HBsAg is usually the first positive marker, and if it remains positive for over 6 months, the patient has a chronic hepatitis B infection. The presence of HBsAg in this patient indicates either acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B. In response to infection, the body produces antibodies to the hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc), which remain indefinitely. In acute infection, IgM antibodies are produced, which are gradually replaced with IgG antibodies. This patient has negative anti-HBc IgM and positive anti-HBc IgG, indicating no acute infection. The absence of anti-HBs confirms chronic infection. In acute infection, anti-HBc IgM would also be positive, indicating exposure to the virus within the last 6 months. Over time, this is replaced with anti-HBc IgG, indicating resolved or chronic infection. Immunity following previous infection would be positive for anti-HBc IgG and anti-HBs, while previous vaccination would show positive anti-HBs only.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      58.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old boy is being seen in the paediatric asthma clinic for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is being seen in the paediatric asthma clinic for a review of his asthma. He was diagnosed with asthma 6 months ago and has been using a salbutamol 100mcg metered dose inhaler with a spacer. According to his mother, he has been using his inhaler about 4 times a week and has had 1 episode of waking up at night with difficulty breathing. There have been no recent respiratory infections or changes in his environment. On examination, he appears to be in good health. His inhaler technique is satisfactory. Do you recommend any changes to his asthma medication?

      Your Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)

      Correct Answer: Paediatric low-dose ICS

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      45.8
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  • Question 3 - A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and experienced convulsions for approximately 1 minute following the fall. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and has been experiencing headaches and swollen feet for the past 48 hours. Upon assessment, her heart rate is 87 bpm and blood pressure is 179/115 mmHg. What is the next best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In this case, the woman has been diagnosed with eclampsia due to her tonic-clonic seizure and her symptoms of pre-eclampsia for the past two days. The initial management should focus on preventing further seizures and providing neuroprotection to the fetus, followed by considering delivery. It is important to monitor both the mother and fetus for signs of hypermagnesaemia, such as hyperreflexia and respiratory depression, and to continuously monitor their cardiotocography. Emergency caesarean section is not the most appropriate initial management as the woman needs to be stabilized first, given her high risk of having further seizures. Intravenous anti-hypertensives should also be administered after magnesium sulphate to lower her blood pressure. Intravenous furosemide and monitoring cardiotocography are not recommended as furosemide does not lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Intramuscular steroids are not necessary in this case as the woman is 35 weeks pregnant, and fetal lungs should be fully developed by now. Steroids are also not the most important management at this stage, even if the woman was earlier in her pregnancy.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      80.7
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  • Question 4 - You assess a 75-year-old woman who is taking several medications. She reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • You assess a 75-year-old woman who is taking several medications. She reports experiencing hearing loss and bilateral tinnitus over the past few months. Which of the following medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have the potential to cause ototoxicity.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.4
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from both the Mantoux skin test and interferon release gamma assay confirm the presence of latent TB. What treatment options are available for the patient?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid + rifampicin + ethambutol + pyrazinamide + pyridoxine for 6 months

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid with pyridoxine for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis

      Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis.

      The first option is a combination of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for three months. This is recommended for people under the age of 35 who are concerned about the hepatotoxicity of the drugs. Before starting this treatment, a liver function test is conducted to assess the risk factors.

      The second option is a six-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) for people who are at risk of interactions with rifamycins. This includes individuals with HIV or those who have had a transplant. The risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positivity, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for latent tuberculosis depends on the individual’s clinical circumstances and risk factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.6
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He mentions experiencing similar pains that occur during exercise and subside when he rests. The patient appears to be in distress, sweating, and having difficulty breathing. An ECG is conducted, revealing new T-wave inversion in V3-V6. His troponin and d-dimer levels are as follows:
      Troponin 223 ng/L (<5)
      D-Dimer 932 ng/mL (< 400)
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)

      Explanation:

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term that covers various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease, including ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the coronary arteries. ACS can cause chest pain, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. The two most important investigations for ACS are an ECG and cardiac markers. Treatment for ACS includes preventing worsening of presentation, revascularising the vessel is occluded, and treating pain. Patients who have had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to reduce the risk of a further event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother....

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
      Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
      Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.

      DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.

      Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.

      In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the single beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the single beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)?

      Your Answer: Dilatation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      The Mechanism of Action of GTN in Angina Treatment

      GTN is a prodrug that is denitrated to produce the active metabolite nitric oxide (NO). NO stimulates guanylate cyclase, which produces cGMP, leading to the relaxation of smooth muscle cells in blood vessels and dilatation of systemic veins. This reduces myocardial wall tension, increases oxygen transport to the subendocardium, and decreases the pressure of blood returning to the heart (preload). Additionally, NO activates calcium-regulated Na+/K+ ATPase pumps, reducing intracellular calcium levels and further relaxing muscle cells in the myocardium. Finally, widening of the large arteries reduces the pressure against which the heart has to pump (afterload), resulting in the heart needing less energy and oxygen. Overall, GTN’s mechanism of action in angina treatment involves reducing myocardial oxygen demand and increasing oxygen supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy, her GP diagnosed her with stage 2 hypertension after an ambulatory reading of 150/95 mmHg. She has been taking 10mg ramipril daily to manage her blood pressure since then. Currently, her sitting blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and monitor blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Switch to labetalol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present for five days. He reports no associated shortness of breath, cough, collapse, or pleuritic nature of the chest pain. The patient had a recent sore throat and headache last week, which has since resolved. There is no family history of sudden cardiac death in a first-degree relative, and the patient has never smoked.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 125/89 mmHg, heart rate is 95/min, temperature is 37.3ºC, and oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. Pulsus paradoxus is not present. Blood results reveal Hb of 154 g/L, platelets of 425 * 109/L, WBC of 11.5 * 109/L, Na+ of 137 mmol/L, K+ of 4.6 mmol/L, urea of 6.4 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, CRP of 40 mg/L, and Troponin T of 13 ng/L. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation in lead I, II, III, aVL, V5, and V6, and PR segment elevation in aVR.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Myocarditis

      Correct Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes in this patient suggest pericarditis, given their young age, widespread ST-segment elevation, and normal troponin levels. While PR segment depression is typically seen in pericarditis, note that the PR segment may be elevated in aVR. Myocarditis would be a possible diagnosis if the troponin levels were elevated. Infective endocarditis is less likely due to the absence of fever and ECG changes consistent with pericarditis. Although cardiac tamponade is a potential complication of pericarditis, it is unlikely in this case as the patient’s blood pressure is normal and pulsus paradoxus is not present.

      Understanding Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.

      To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.

      Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.

      Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      83.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP)...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain

      A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.

      Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.

      Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.

      Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During the examination, the doctor notices yellowing of the eyes and an enlarged liver. Blood tests reveal the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMAs).

      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer from the options below.

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder that causes progressive cholestasis and can lead to end-stage liver disease. Symptoms include fatigue, pruritus, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Laboratory tests typically show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, g-glutamyl transpeptidase, and immunoglobulins, as well as the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid to slow disease progression. Autoimmune hepatitis, diffuse systemic sclerosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are other potential differential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 48-year-old man is admitted with right-sided pneumonia. According to the patient he...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man is admitted with right-sided pneumonia. According to the patient he has been unwell for 3–4 days with malaise, fever, cough and muscular pain. He also has a rash on his abdomen and neck pain. He was previously fit and has not travelled abroad. He is a plumber and also keeps pigeons. According to his wife, two of his favourite pigeons died 2 weeks ago.
      Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for his pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia psittaci

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci, which is typically transmitted to humans through exposure to infected birds. Symptoms include fever, cough, headache, and sore throat, as well as a characteristic facial rash. Diagnosis is confirmed through serology tests, and treatment involves the use of tetracyclines or macrolides. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another bacterium that can cause atypical pneumonia, with symptoms including fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, while Legionella pneumophila can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which presents with fever, cough, dyspnea, and systemic symptoms. Coxiella burnetii is the bacterium responsible for Q fever, which can be transmitted by animals and arthropods and presents with non-specific symptoms. In the scenario presented, the patient’s history of exposure to infected birds and the presence of a rash suggest a diagnosis of psittacosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      16.7
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. During the examination, you observe a rash on his nose and detect 2+ protein in his urine upon dipping. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this individual are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), as evidenced by the presence of the butterfly rash, joint pain, and proteinuria. In SLE, the impaired kidney function is responsible for the proteinuria. It is worth noting that SLE is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.7
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old patient complains of a painful swollen left knee that has not...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old patient complains of a painful swollen left knee that has not improved after a week of rest. The patient denies any history of injury. Upon examination, a moderate-sized effusion is observed. A plain radiograph reveals the following findings: some joint space loss and linear calcification of the articular cartilage. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Chondrocalcinosis is a useful indicator for differentiating between pseudogout and gout.

      The presence of chondrocalcinosis can be observed in an x-ray, which helps to distinguish between pseudogout and gout. In older individuals, joint space loss and osteoarthritic-like changes are common and may be caused by pseudogout.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      69171.3
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right flank pain radiating...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right flank pain radiating to her groin. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood. You suspect a possible ureteric stone.
      What is the most suitable imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non contrast abdominopelvic/kidney, ureters and bladder (KUB) computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Nephrolithiasis Diagnosis

      Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, can be diagnosed through various imaging modalities. Non-contrast abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) scans are the preferred imaging modality due to their high sensitivity and specificity. Contrast scans are not recommended for initial assessment as they can obscure calcific densities. CT scans can also reveal other pathologies. Seriated X-rays, specifically KUB X-rays, can be used in conjunction with CT scans for follow-up of stone patients. Intravenous urography, while widely available and inexpensive, is less sensitive than CT scans and requires IV contrast material and multiple delayed films. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not recommended for acute renal colic evaluation as it is more expensive and less effective in stone detection. Renal ultrasonography is mainly used in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB X-ray for determining hydronephrosis or ureteral dilatation associated with a urinary tract calculus, but is less accurate in diagnosing ureteral stones and not reliable for stones smaller than 5 mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      11.3
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  • Question 17 - A middle-aged man is concerned that the lump he has discovered in his...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is concerned that the lump he has discovered in his neck may be due to Hodgkin's disease. A routine work-up is completely negative, but he continues to worry about it.
      Which of the following is the most likely condition here?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypochondriasis from Other Disorders

      Hypochondriasis is a condition characterized by persistent preoccupation with having a serious physical illness. However, it is important to differentiate it from other disorders with similar symptoms.

      Conversion disorder is a neurological condition that presents with loss of function without an organic cause. Delusional disorder-somatic type involves delusional thoughts about having a particular illness or physical problem. In somatisation disorder, patients present with medically unexplained symptoms and seek medical attention to find an explanation for them. Factitious disorder involves deliberately producing symptoms for attention as a patient.

      It is important to note that in hypochondriasis, the patient’s beliefs are not as fixed as they would be in delusional disorder-somatic type, and worry dominates the picture. In somatisation disorder, the emphasis is on the symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis, while in hypochondriasis, the patient puts emphasis on the presence of a specific illness. Factitious disorder involves deliberate production of symptoms, which is not present in hypochondriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is a contraindication to using a triptan for treating...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to using a triptan for treating migraines in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Triptan use is contraindicated in individuals with cardiovascular disease.

      Triptans for Migraine Treatment

      Triptans are medications that act as agonists for 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors and are commonly used in the acute treatment of migraines. They are often prescribed in combination with NSAIDs or paracetamol and are typically taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache, rather than at the onset of an aura. Triptans are available in various forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.

      While triptans are generally well-tolerated, some patients may experience triptan sensations, such as tingling, heat, tightness in the throat and chest, heaviness, or pressure. It is important to note that triptans are contraindicated in patients with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease.

      In summary, triptans are a commonly used medication for the acute treatment of migraines. They should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache and are available in various forms. However, patients should be aware of potential adverse effects and contraindications before taking triptans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - At a practice meeting, you are discussing strategies to increase the rate of...

    Incorrect

    • At a practice meeting, you are discussing strategies to increase the rate of early cancer detection. Which of the following patients is most likely to need screening for hepatocellular carcinoma, given that they are 50 years old?

      Your Answer: A 52-year-old woman with alcohol-related liver cirrhosis who is still drinking

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks as the third most common cause of cancer worldwide. The leading cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the most common cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B and C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

      HCC tends to present late, and patients may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, decompensation may occur in patients with chronic liver disease. Raised AFP levels are also common. Screening with ultrasound and alpha-fetoprotein may be necessary for high-risk groups, including patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B and C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol.

      Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. It is important to note that Wilson’s disease is an exception to the typical causes of liver cirrhosis and HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of a severe headache...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of a severe headache on the right side of her head. Upon further inquiry, the doctors discover that she experiences pain while chewing. During the examination, there are no neurological impairments, and her visual fields appear normal. However, she does exhibit tenderness on her right scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is likely the cause of a constant throbbing headache, pain while chewing, and tenderness in the scalp. These symptoms are not typical of a migraine, which usually involves pain on one side of the head, sensitivity to light, nausea/vomiting, and sometimes an aura. A subarachnoid hemorrhage typically presents with a sudden, severe headache in the occipital region. Tension headaches are often described as a dull, band-like pain across the forehead. Cluster headaches are characterized by intense pain around the eye, accompanied by tearing, redness, and a stuffy nose.

      Understanding Temporal Arteritis

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). It is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. This condition typically affects individuals who are over 60 years old and has a rapid onset, usually occurring in less than a month. The most common symptoms include headache and jaw claudication, while vision testing is a crucial investigation for all patients.

      Temporal arteritis can lead to various ocular complications, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common. This results from the occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Patients may experience temporary visual loss or even permanent visual loss, which is the most feared complication of this condition. Other symptoms may include diplopia, tender and palpable temporal artery, and features of PMR such as aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers such as an ESR of over 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to check for skip lesions. Urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected, and an ophthalmologist should review patients with visual symptoms on the same day. Treatment may also involve bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

      In summary, temporal arteritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible visual damage. Patients who experience symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances should seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      73.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following extra-intestinal symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease is more prevalent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following extra-intestinal symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease is more prevalent in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn's disease, with a slight variation in age and maintaining paragraph breaks?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is often associated with ulcerative colitis.

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 36-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She has a medical history of complicated pelvic inflammatory disease that resulted in scarring of her right fallopian tube. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. Upon examination, her heart rate is 93 bpm, and her blood pressure is 136/76 mmHg. Palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain. A urinary pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy, and further investigations reveal a 45 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat detected. Her serum b-hCG level is 5200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring

      Explanation:

      For women with risk factors for infertility, such as contralateral tube damage, salpingotomy should be considered as the preferred surgical management for ectopic pregnancy. In the case of this patient, who presented with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding 6-8 weeks after her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming ectopic pregnancy, surgical intervention is necessary. Given the size of the ectopic pregnancy and beta-hCG levels, either laparoscopic salpingectomy or salpingotomy is appropriate. However, since the patient has a history of PID and scarring of the contralateral tube, salpingotomy is the preferred option as it preserves the affected tube and her fertility. Expectant management, laparoscopic salpingectomy, and medical management with methotrexate are not appropriate for this patient’s case.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of excessive thirst and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. Her BMI is 30 kg/m². The GP decides to conduct an oral glucose tolerance test to investigate the possibility of gestational diabetes.
      What finding would confirm the suspicion of gestational diabetes in this case?

      Your Answer: 2-hour glucose level 7.6 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: Fasting glucose 5.9 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, a fasting glucose level of >= 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/L can be used. A patient with a BMI of >30 kg/m² and symptoms of polydipsia and polyuria should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test during 24-28 weeks of pregnancy. In this test, the patient fasts for 8-10 hours, then drinks a glucose solution and has blood samples taken before and 2 hours after. A fasting glucose level of 5.9mmol/L or higher confirms the diagnosis of gestational diabetes.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old female is brought in under Section 2 of the Mental Health...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female is brought in under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She was discovered at home, sitting on her bedroom floor in filthy clothes and in unsanitary conditions. Her attire indicated significant weight loss and she appeared severely dehydrated. She did not cooperate with the evaluation, seeming to ignore the team.

      Upon admission, her blood tests revealed hyperkalaemia and an acute kidney injury. While receiving treatment for this, she made no effort to eat or drink, remove her cannula, or leave the ward, nor did she show any signs of distress. She did not communicate with any staff, instead spending hours lying in bed staring into space.

      According to her GP, she has no prior medical history and has never been prescribed psychiatric medication before. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy

      Explanation:

      When a patient is suffering from life-threatening major depressive disorder and is exhibiting catatonia, ECT is recommended. In this case, the patient is experiencing severe dehydration, suicidal thoughts, and catatonia, indicating the need for urgent treatment. While the patient has not previously taken any psychiatric medication, an SSRI like citalopram, even with augmentation, would not be suitable due to the severity of the illness. ECT is the best option for achieving rapid results.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and genitals. He has observed the same rash around a recent scar on his forearm. During examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman and her partner present to the GP clinic due to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman and her partner present to the GP clinic due to difficulty conceiving their first child. At what point should investigations begin after a period of regular sexual intercourse?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      If a woman is over 35 years old and has been having regular intercourse for 6 months without conceiving, she should be investigated for infertility earlier. Regular sexual intercourse is defined as having intercourse every 2-3 days. However, if a woman is under 35 years old, investigation should wait until after 12 months of regular intercourse. It is important to consider early referral when the female has amenorrhea, previous pelvic surgery, abnormal genital examination, or is suffering from significant systemic illness. Similarly, early referral should be considered for males who have had previous surgery on genitalia, previous STI, varicocele, or abnormal genital examination.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old male experiences a cardiac arrest during coronary angiography in the catheter...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male experiences a cardiac arrest during coronary angiography in the catheter laboratory. His heart rate is 164 beats per minute and the 12-lead ECG monitor displays ventricular tachycardia. As you begin to assess him, you are unable to detect a pulse and immediately call for assistance.

      What is the next appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer: Deliver a maximum of three successive shocks

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences cardiac arrest in VF/pulseless VT and is monitored, such as in a coronary care unit, critical care unit, or catheter laboratory, they should receive a maximum of three successive shocks instead of one shock followed by two minutes of CPR. After the shocks, chest compressions should be administered for two minutes. Once compressions restart, adrenaline 1mg IV and amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given for shockable rhythms (VT/pulseless VF). Adrenaline 1mg IV should be given after alternate shocks (every 3-5 minutes). For non-shockable rhythms (pulseless electrical activity/asystole), adrenaline 1mg IV should be given as soon as venous access is achieved and administered alongside CPR. Pulseless electrical activity is a type of cardiac arrest where there is electrical activity (other than ventricular tachycardia) that would normally have an associated pulse. Asystole is a complete cessation of any electrical and mechanical heart activity.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - After expressing discomfort in their chest, a 75-year-old patient suddenly collapses on the...

    Correct

    • After expressing discomfort in their chest, a 75-year-old patient suddenly collapses on the surgical ward with no detectable pulse. The medical team initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and calls for immediate assistance.
      Once the defibrillator is connected, the team pauses to check the rhythm. Although there is organised electrical activity, there is still no pulse or signs of life.
      In addition to continuing CPR with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths, what other actions should the team take at this stage?

      Your Answer: Give intravenous adrenaline

      Explanation:

      In the case of pulseless electrical activity, which is a non-shockable rhythm, the ALS algorithm requires the administration of adrenaline as soon as intravascular access is achieved. This should be done immediately after the rhythm check, following two more minutes of CPR. The recommended dose is 1mg IV, which should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. It is important to note that intramuscular adrenaline is not appropriate for cardiac arrest, and IV amiodarone is not indicated for non-shockable rhythms. While it is correct to avoid shocking the patient, it is incorrect to delay drug administration until the next rhythm check. The most recent Resuscitation Council Guidelines (2021) support the immediate administration of adrenaline in non-shockable rhythms.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort over the past 3–4 days. She was prescribed amoxicillin two days ago and has developed a rash. She has lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsillitis. Her white cell count shows abnormal lymphocytosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Common Viral Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as the kissing disease, is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and adenopathy. It is primarily transmitted through intimate contact with body secretions, particularly oropharyngeal secretions. Pharyngitis is caused by the proliferation of infected B lymphocytes in the lymphatic tissue of the oropharynx. It is most common in young adults and can be mistaken for streptococcal pharyngitis.

      German measles, or rubella, is a communicable exanthematous disease that is generally benign. However, pregnant women who contract the disease in the early weeks of gestation can experience teratogenic effects. The exanthema of rubella consists of a rose-pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours. It typically fades by the end of the third day.

      Chickenpox is a childhood illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is characterized by a vesicular exanthem and is typically self-limited and mild.

      Herpes simplex viruses are host-adapted pathogens that cause a wide variety of disease states. HSV-1 is associated with orofacial disease, while HSV-2 is associated with genital disease. Oropharyngeal HSV-1 infection causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis more often than gingivostomatitis. Herpes labialis, or cold sores, is the most common manifestation of recurrent HSV-1 infection.

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is prevalent in developed countries, with at least 60% of the population having been exposed. It typically causes an asymptomatic infection or produces mild flu-like symptoms, with few clinical findings on physical examination. High-risk groups, such as fetuses whose mothers become infected during pregnancy or people with HIV, are more susceptible to severe complications.

      Overview of Common Viral Infections and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman presents to you for a discussion on contraception options. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to you for a discussion on contraception options. She is hesitant about getting an implant or coil and prefers to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, she is uncertain if she is eligible for the pill due to a family history of breast cancer in her mother and grandmother, both of whom were diagnosed in their 50s. She has undergone genetic testing privately and tested negative for the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene. She has no significant medical history, is normotensive, and has a BMI of 22 kg/m². What method of contraception would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Prescribing the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for women with a family history of breast cancer associated with a BRCA mutation. However, for those with a family history of breast cancer but no BRCA mutation, the contraceptive pill is considered safe and has no restrictions (UKMEC 1). Therefore, if a patient with this medical history requests the combined oral contraceptive pill, it should be prescribed to her as the preferred contraceptive method.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      40.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (1/4) 25%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (2/5) 40%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/3) 33%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed