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Question 1
Incorrect
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At 32 weeks gestation, a woman is in labour and the baby's head is delivered. However, after a minute of gentle traction, the shoulders remain stuck. What is the initial step that should be taken to address shoulder dystocia once it has been identified?
Your Answer: Zavanelli manoeuvre
Correct Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.
If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.
Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with chest pain in the center. Upon conducting an ECG, it is discovered that there is ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The cardiology team admits him and performs primary coronary intervention. He is prescribed 75mg of aspirin as part of his regular medication.
What is the mechanism of action for this drug?Your Answer: Direct thrombin inhibitor
Correct Answer: Non-reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
Explanation:Aspirin irreversibly inhibits both COX 1 and 2, suppressing the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes. ADP receptor antagonists like clopidogrel and prasugrel prevent platelet aggregation by blocking the P2Y12 receptors. Direct thrombin inhibitors such as dabigatran directly inhibit thrombin to prevent clotting. However, NOACs like dabigatran are not commonly used for ACS. Selective COX 2 inhibitors like celecoxib and rofecoxib target COX-2 to reduce inflammation and pain. It should be noted that aspirin’s COX enzyme inactivation cannot be reversed.
How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.
Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient complains of headache, confusion, and lethargy. During the examination, he has a fever and exhibits weakness on the right side. A CT scan reveals a ring-enhancing lesion that affects the motor cortex on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metastatic renal adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess
Explanation:The presence of fever, headache, and rapidly worsening neurological symptoms strongly indicates the possibility of cerebral abscess. A CT scan can confirm this diagnosis by revealing a lesion with a ring-enhancing appearance, as the contrast material cannot reach the center of the abscess cavity. It is important to note that HSV encephalitis does not typically result in ring-enhancing lesions.
Understanding Brain Abscesses
Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.
To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform after drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered, along with intracranial pressure management using dexamethasone.
Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that require prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Correct
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Which one of the following muscles is not located in the posterior compartment of the lower leg?
Your Answer: Peroneus brevis
Explanation:The lateral compartment contains the peroneus brevis.
Fascial Compartments of the Leg
The leg is divided into compartments by fascial septae, which are thin layers of connective tissue. In the thigh, there are three compartments: the anterior, medial, and posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the femoral nerve and artery, as well as the quadriceps femoris muscle group. The medial compartment contains the obturator nerve and artery, as well as the adductor muscles and gracilis muscle. The posterior compartment contains the sciatic nerve and branches of the profunda femoris artery, as well as the hamstrings muscle group.
In the lower leg, there are four compartments: the anterior, posterior (divided into deep and superficial compartments), lateral, and deep posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery, as well as the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneus tertius muscles. The posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the deep and superficial muscles. The lateral compartment contains the superficial peroneal nerve and peroneal artery, as well as the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. The deep posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents to the consultant's office with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination for the past month. He has a history of physical injuries due to a motor vehicle accident that occurred 4 months ago. The patient is currently not on any medications and is in good health. Urinalysis reveals a decreased sodium concentration and urine osmolarity of 90 mOsm/L. What renal tubular changes would be anticipated in this patient due to his current condition?
Your Answer: Decreased expression of aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting ducts
Explanation:The insertion of aquaporin-2 channels by antidiuretic hormone promotes water reabsorption, which is compromised in central diabetes insipidus (DI) caused by physical trauma to the pituitary gland. Symptoms include increased thirst, polydipsia, and polyuria, with urinalysis showing decreased urine osmolality and sodium concentration. Aldosterone regulates epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) and K+/H+ exchanger, while angiotensin II regulates Na+/H+ exchanger in proximal tubules. Loop diuretics decrease activity of Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the loops of Henle. However, none of these are relevant to this patient’s presentation.
Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.
ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.
Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What structure is located posterior to the femoral artery that you use to compress the artery during examination of the leg?
Your Answer: Iliac bone
Correct Answer: Psoas tendon
Explanation:The Femoral Artery and its Relations
The femoral artery is a major blood vessel that can be felt at the mid inguinal point, which is located halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic symphysis. It is the continuation of the external iliac artery and passes through the femoral triangle, where it gives off the deep femoral artery before entering the adductor canal. The femoral artery is located laterally to the femoral nerve and medially to the femoral vein, with the psoas tendon being its posterior relation.
As the femoral artery continues down the leg, it enters the popliteal fossa and becomes the popliteal artery. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the lower leg and foot. the location and relations of the femoral artery is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for arterial catheterization and other procedures. By knowing the anatomy of this artery, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy.
Can you explain the mechanism behind a urinary pregnancy test?Your Answer: Enzymatic degradation
Correct Answer: ELISA
Explanation:Techniques in Biochemistry
Over-the-counter urine pregnancy tests use ELISA to detect beta-HCG in a woman’s urine. The test stick contains antibodies that react with beta-HCG, producing a color change that confirms pregnancy. The urinary pregnancy test is a solid-phase ELISA, where the antibody is immobilized on a specialized filter paper. The fluid travels laterally across the paper to bind with the antibody, and if beta-HCG is present, the line turns blue. Electrophoresis characterizes the electrical charge and size of substances, while PCR identifies specific sequences of DNA or RNA. Radioimmunoassay uses radioactivity to identify specific proteins. Enzymatic degradation breaks down large proteins into smaller subunits for which target antibodies may already exist. This method is used to characterize large proteins for which the structure has not yet been described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the equivalent of cardiac preload?
Your Answer: Peak systolic arterial pressure
Correct Answer: End diastolic volume
Explanation:Preload, also known as end diastolic volume, follows the Frank Starling principle where a slight increase results in an increase in cardiac output. However, if preload is significantly increased, such as exceeding 250ml, it can lead to a decrease in cardiac output.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is having a left hemicolectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons come across a tubular structure located at the inferior aspect of psoas major. What is the most probable identity of this structure?
Your Answer: Left common iliac artery
Correct Answer: Left ureter
Explanation:The left colon is positioned anterior to the left ureter. The iliac vessels are usually in closer proximity to the sigmoid colon and upper rectum, which are not typically located above the L4 vertebrae.
Anatomy of the Ureter
The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and swelling in the central abdomen.
During his last visit to his family doctor two weeks ago, he experienced colicky abdominal pain and was diagnosed with gallstones after further testing. He was scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy in 8 weeks.
The patient is administered pain relief and scheduled for an urgent abdominal X-ray (AXR).
What is the most probable finding on the AXR that indicates a cholecystoenteric fistula?Your Answer: Pneumoperitoneum
Correct Answer: Pneumobilia
Explanation:The presence of air in the gallbladder and biliary tree on an abdominal X-ray is most likely caused by a cholecystoenteric fistula. This is a serious complication of gallstones, particularly those larger than 2 cm, and can result in symptoms of small bowel obstruction such as severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. While pneumoperitoneum may also be present in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula, it is not a specific finding and can be caused by other factors that weaken or tear hollow viscus organs. On the other hand, the presence of an appendicolith, a small calcified stone in the appendix, is highly indicative of appendicitis in patients with right iliac fossa pain and other associated symptoms, but is not seen in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula on an abdominal X-ray.
Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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