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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) experiences colicky abdominal pain after eating...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) experiences colicky abdominal pain after eating a large meal; this has been happening consistently for the past 3 weeks, causing him to develop a fear of eating.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Chronic Pancreatitis, Diverticulitis, Gastric Cancer, and Acute Mesenteric Ischaemic Embolism

      Abdominal pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this article, we will discuss the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, including chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI), chronic pancreatitis, diverticulitis, gastric cancer, and acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism.

      CMI usually results from atherosclerotic disease of two or more mesenteric vessels, while chronic pancreatitis is characterised by a continuing, chronic, inflammatory process of the pancreas. Diverticulitis is an inflammation of one or more diverticula, while gastric cancer is the third most common cause of cancer-related death in the world. Acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism is characterised by pain that is disproportionate to physical examination findings.

      Each condition has its own unique set of symptoms and clinical presentation. By understanding the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old boy has arrived at the emergency department after overdosing on paracetamol....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy has arrived at the emergency department after overdosing on paracetamol. He has come in 3 days after taking the overdose due to feeling extremely ill. What liver disease patterns are most probable to be observed?

      Your Answer: High ALT. High ALP. ALT/ALP ratio high

      Correct Answer: High ALT. Normal ALP. ALT/ALP ratio high

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose leads to a liver disease characterized by hepatocellular symptoms. This type of liver disease is different from cholestatic (obstructive) or mixed liver diseases, which have distinct laboratory test results. Hepatocellular disease is indicated by raised ALT levels, while cholestatic disease is indicated by raised ALP levels. Mixed liver disease has raised levels of both ALT and ALP. AST and ALT are both produced by hepatocytes, and in hepatocellular disease, these enzymes are released into the bloodstream, causing raised ALT levels. ALP, on the other hand, is produced by the cells lining the bile ducts, and its levels rise in obstructive liver disease.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease

      Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.

      Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.

      Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.

      It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 3 - Helicobacter pylori infection is most commonly associated with which disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Helicobacter pylori infection is most commonly associated with which disorder?

      Your Answer: Reflux oesophagitis

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Association between H. pylori Infection and Gastric Diseases

      H. pylori infection is a common bacterial infection that affects approximately 50% of the global population. While it is primarily associated with peptic ulcer disease, it can also lead to other gastric diseases. Gastric malignancies, for instance, are often caused by chronic inflammation of MALT from H. pylori infection. MALTomas, which are extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphomas, are the most common type of gastric lymphoma and are associated with H. pylori infection in over 90% of cases.

      However, not all gastric diseases are associated with H. pylori infection. Coeliac disease, for example, is an autoimmune disorder related to gluten sensitivity. Non-ulcer dyspepsia, a group of upper gastrointestinal symptoms, is not generally associated with H. pylori infection. Reflux oesophagitis, a condition caused by the failure of relaxation of the lower end of the oesophagus, is also not associated with H. pylori infection.

      It is important to note that the development of gastric malignancies from H. pylori infection is a slow process that may stop at any step. The disease process starts with chronic gastritis, followed by atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, dysplasia, and eventually gastric malignancy (Correa’s cascade). However, other factors are also required for gastric cancers to develop, not just H. pylori infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the association between H. pylori infection and gastric diseases is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of these conditions. While H. pylori infection is a common cause of gastric malignancies, it is not associated with all gastric diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the GP...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the GP with symptoms of feeling unwell. He has been experiencing up to 8 bowel movements a day for the past 3 days, with blood present in his stool each time. He denies having a fever. Urgent blood tests reveal the following results:

      Hb 110 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 384 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 16 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 2.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 58 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 109 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the initial treatment plan for this patient, given the severity of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital for IV steroids

      Explanation:

      When dealing with a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, it is important to evaluate the severity of the condition. In this case, the patient is experiencing more than six bloody stools per day, as well as systemic upset indicated by raised inflammatory markers and anaemia. This places him in the severe category. The first line of treatment would be IV corticosteroids, with IV ciclosporin as a second-line option if the steroids do not induce remission. Hospital admission for IV steroids is the appropriate course of action to induce remission, after which maintenance treatment can be assessed. For moderate extensive disease, oral aminosalicylate and oral steroids can be used. It would be inappropriate to send this patient home without any treatment, as he is clearly unwell and experiencing a flare of UC.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of perianal abscess, but no other significant medical issues. Over the past few months, she has visited the Emergency Department twice due to persistent abdominal pain. She has also experienced occasional episodes of bloody diarrhea. Blood tests reveal microcytic anemia and mild hypokalemia. Her albumin levels are low, but her liver function tests are normal. Barium imaging shows a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration, as well as normal-looking mucosa and skip pattern lesions. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Chronic Diarrhoea with Abdominal Pain and Weight Loss

      Chronic diarrhoea with abdominal pain and weight loss can be indicative of various gastrointestinal disorders. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause.

      Crohn’s Disease: This inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and is characterized by prolonged diarrhoea with abdominal pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Diarrhoea is usually not bloody, but if the colon is involved, patients may report diffuse abdominal pain accompanied by mucus, blood, and pus in the stool. Serologic tests such as ASCA and p-ANCA can help differentiate Crohn’s disease from other conditions.

      Ulcerative Colitis: Unlike Crohn’s disease, UC involves only the large bowel and is characterized by rectal bleeding, frequent stools, and mucus discharge from the rectum. Sigmoidoscopy can confirm the diagnosis.

      Small Bowel Lymphoma: MALTomas can occur in various gastrointestinal sites, but most patients have no physical findings.

      Coeliac Disease: This chronic disorder results in an inability to tolerate gliadin and is characterized by electrolyte imbalances, evidence of malnutrition, and anaemia. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom, with characteristic foul-smelling stools.

      Tropical Sprue: This syndrome is characterized by acute or chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and nutrient malabsorption and occurs in residents or visitors to the tropics and subtropics. However, it is not suggestive in the absence of a history of foreign travel.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and diagnostic tests is necessary to differentiate between these gastrointestinal disorders and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 6 - A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.

      Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ºC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.

      What is the most likely cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of indigestion for the past three months. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of indigestion for the past three months. She denies any weight loss, anorexia, dysphagia, vomiting, or alteration in bowel habits. Her abdominal examination is normal. What factor could potentially reduce the reliability of a 13C-urea breath test?

      Your Answer: Course of amoxicillin stopping 3 weeks ago

      Explanation:

      To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

      Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash over his shins, which was dusky blue in appearance at first but has now faded to a bruise-like appearance. His past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, occasionally with blood. There is no other past history of note. On examination, there is minor tenderness on the left side of his abdomen, and proctoscopy reveals moderate inflammation of the rectum. Blood testing reveals a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) level and normochromic/normocytic anaemia.
      Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis (UC)

      Explanation:

      Erythema Nodosum and its Association with Various Diseases

      Erythema nodosum is a skin condition characterized by painful, red nodules on the legs. It can be associated with various underlying diseases. In patients with ulcerative colitis, erythema nodosum is a common extraintestinal manifestation, along with uveitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, ankylosing spondylitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum. However, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and mycoplasma infection can also cause erythema nodosum. It is important to consider the patient’s clinical presentation and other symptoms to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s gastrointestinal symptoms suggest inflammatory bowel disease, specifically ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 9 - You assess a 19-year-old female patient in the outpatient medical assessment unit. Over...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 19-year-old female patient in the outpatient medical assessment unit. Over the course of the last four months, she has been experiencing repeated episodes of severe vomiting lasting a few hours, preceded by intense sweating and nausea. She has also noticed a decrease in appetite and a slight loosening of her clothes. She was hospitalized once in the past four months due to dehydration. Her medical history includes migraines, but no psychiatric history. Routine blood tests with her GP and during her previous admission were unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Cyclical vomiting syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting that occurs in distinct episodes lasting from a few hours to a few days. This condition is often associated with migraine and may also result in reduced appetite and weight loss. Unlike Crohn’s disease, which typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome does not involve these symptoms. While nausea and weight loss may be present in Pheochromocytoma, this condition does not typically involve discrete episodes of vomiting. Symptoms such as headaches, tremors, palpitations, and anxiety may also be present in Pheochromocytoma. The episodes of vomiting in Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome are not related to food consumption, making bulimia an unlikely diagnosis.

      Understanding Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome

      Cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that is more commonly seen in children than adults. It affects females slightly more than males, and its cause is unknown. However, 80% of children and 25% of adults who develop CVS also have migraines. The condition is characterized by severe nausea and sudden vomiting that can last for hours to days. Patients may experience intense sweating and nausea before an episode, but they are typically well in between episodes. Other symptoms that may be present include weight loss, reduced appetite, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dizziness, photophobia, and headache.

      To diagnose CVS, doctors typically perform routine blood tests to exclude any underlying conditions. A pregnancy test may also be considered in women. Treatment for CVS involves avoiding triggers and using prophylactic medications such as amitriptyline, propranolol, and topiramate. During acute episodes, ondansetron, prochlorperazine, and triptans may be used.

      Overall, understanding cyclical vomiting syndrome is important for patients and healthcare providers alike. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man who was recently diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis presents to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who was recently diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis presents to his General Practitioner due to persistent central abdominal pain. This has been present ever since he was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis; however, he feels that the medication he was prescribed is losing its effects.
      The patient is currently on amlodipine, amitriptyline, perindopril and pancreatic enzyme replacement.
      Which of the following management options is the best next step to control the patient’s pain?
      Select the SINGLE best management plan from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Continue same medication and add duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Stop amitriptyline, start duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Managing Neuropathic Pain: Choosing the Right Medication

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when standard analgesia such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and paracetamol prove ineffective. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, the first-line management of neuropathic pain involves starting the patient on amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. However, if the first-line drug treatment does not work, one of the other drugs can be tried.

      It is important to note that drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy rather than in combinations. Therefore, if a drug does not achieve the desired clinical effect, it should be replaced by another drug rather than adding a new drug to it. Duloxetine is a good next option, but it should replace the amitriptyline rather than be added to it.

      Further management of neuropathic pain includes pain management clinics and tramadol as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. By choosing the right medication and following appropriate management strategies, patients with neuropathic pain can achieve better pain control and improved quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 11 - As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of loose stools, abdominal pain, and fatigue. She reports having bowel movements an average of 8 times a day, and in the last 24 hours, she has noticed blood mixed in with the stools. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, which is typically well controlled with rectal mesalazine. She has no allergies or other medical conditions.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16/min, oxygen saturation is 96%, and temperature is 37.9 ºC. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft with localized tenderness in the left iliac fossa. There is no guarding or peritonism, and bowel sounds are audible.

      The patient's Hb is 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets are 398 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC is 13.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), Na is 140 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145), K is 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0), urea is 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0), creatinine is 95 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120), and CRP is 35 mg/L (normal range: <5). Based on these findings, a flare of ulcerative colitis is suspected.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit + IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 12 - What is the most accurate description of a characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome...

    Correct

    • What is the most accurate description of a characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

      Your Answer: A low FODMAP diet is often prescribed for treatment of the syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome: Diagnosis and Management

      Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. While there is no specific organic pathology associated with IBS, it can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. Management of IBS involves providing psychological support and recommending dietary measures such as fibre supplementation, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. A low FODMAP diet, which involves avoiding consumption of garlic, onion, high fructose fruits, wheat, alcohol, and dairy, may also be helpful. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. However, if there are ‘red flag’ symptoms such as bleeding, anemia, chronic diarrhea, older age, history of colon polyps, cancer in the patient or first-degree relatives, or constitutional symptoms such as anorexia or weight loss, lower gastrointestinal endoscopy should be performed. Nocturnal symptoms are not consistent with IBS, and weight loss is a ‘red flag’ symptom that should alert the clinician to the possibility of an organic pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting blood earlier in the day. What is the most significant factor indicating an upper gastrointestinal bleed?

      Your Answer: Urea = 15.4 mmol/l on a background of normal renal function

      Explanation:

      A temporary and disproportionate increase in blood urea can be caused by an upper gastrointestinal bleed, which can function as a source of protein.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.

      For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of bloating and vomiting after meals. She reports that her blood glucose levels have been fluctuating more frequently lately. Which medication is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lansoprazole

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Gastric emptying dysfunction can cause upper gastrointestinal symptoms and disrupt glucose control. Metoclopramide, a pro-kinetic medication, can help improve gastric emptying and alleviate these issues.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.

      On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?

      Your Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 16 - As a healthcare professional, you are providing dietary recommendations to a middle-aged patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional, you are providing dietary recommendations to a middle-aged patient who has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and is struggling with obesity. According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should not be promoted?

      Your Answer: Low-fat dairy products

      Correct Answer: Food products specifically targeted at diabetics

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, it is not recommended to consume foods that are marketed exclusively for individuals with diabetes.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old man is recuperating on the ward after an emergency laparotomy and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man is recuperating on the ward after an emergency laparotomy and ileocolic resection for Crohn's disease. The nursing staff has raised concerns about his abdominal wound on the fifth day post-operation. Upon review, you observe a clear wound dehiscence in the central area of his laparotomy incision, with a small portion of the bowel visible.

      What are the initial steps that should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: Cover the wound with sterile saline-soaked gauze and administer antibiotics while awaiting a senior review

      Explanation:

      When an abdominal wound reopens after surgery, it is called wound dehiscence. This can happen for various reasons, including infection, poor surgical technique, and malnutrition. As a junior doctor, it is important to know how to manage this emergency situation. The initial steps involve administering broad-spectrum antibiotics intravenously, covering the wound with sterile gauze soaked in sterile saline to prevent the abdominal contents from drying out, and arranging for the patient to undergo wound repair in the operating theatre. It is not advisable to attempt to close the wound on the ward, as this can be unsafe and increase the risk of infection or bowel injury. A nasogastric tube is not necessary, and simply redressing the wound without moist gauze can lead to fluid loss from the abdominal contents. It is also not necessary to arrange a CT scan, as the problem is evident and requires immediate management. While antibiotics and surgery are necessary, leaving the wound open and uncovered can lead to fluid loss and infection.

      Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.

      Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.

      When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has reported a recent worsening of his indigestion and an unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 2 months. He has been referred for a 2-week wait and scheduled for an endoscopy in 3 weeks. What guidance should he receive regarding his omeprazole usage?

      Your Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 2 weeks before endoscopy

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of masking serious underlying pathology like gastric cancer, patients who are taking proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers should discontinue their use at least two weeks before undergoing an endoscopy.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 19 - A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for the past 2 months. He works as a construction worker and has had two colds in the past 2 months since the new building project started - despite his cold symptoms resolving, he reports an ongoing painful swallow. He has noticed some hoarseness in his voice, but attributes this to drinking less water than usual due to his painful swallow. He has no past medical history. He has a 25 pack-year smoking history and does not drink alcohol.
      What should be the GP's next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The presence of odynophagia in a patient with risk factors such as smoking and age is a concerning symptom that may indicate oesophageal cancer. In this case, the patient should be referred for a 2 week wait upper GI endoscopy and questioned about other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, reflux, weight loss, and nausea. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and advise over-the-counter medications without further investigation. A chest x-ray is unlikely to show any clear oesophageal pathologies and a barium swallow is only useful if a benign pathology is suspected. As the patient has two features of oesophageal cancer and a smoking history, she should be worked up as a potential cancer patient. There are no emergency symptoms that warrant referral to the emergency department for same-day investigation and blood tests are unlikely to indicate malignancy in a clear and obvious manner.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old female complains of abdominal discomfort accompanied by alternating episodes of constipation...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female complains of abdominal discomfort accompanied by alternating episodes of constipation and diarrhea. What symptom is the least indicative of irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Waking at night due to the pain

      Explanation:

      It is not typical for irritable bowel syndrome to cause pain that disrupts a patient’s sleep.

      Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.

      It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      19.6
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