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  • Question 1 - A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives at the maternity department at 40 weeks gestation....

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives at the maternity department at 40 weeks gestation. The medical team decides to perform an artificial rupture of the membranes, but during an examination, they discover that the umbilical cord is palpable vaginally. What position should the woman assume in this situation?

      Your Answer: On all fours

      Explanation:

      The recommended position for women with cord prolapse is on all fours, with their knees and elbows on the ground. It is important to avoid pushing the cord back in, but to keep it warm and moist. This position helps to prevent compression of the presenting part of the fetus. However, immediate preparations for a caesarian section should also be made. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head end of the bed downwards, is not recommended for cord prolapse. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs, is also not recommended. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyper-flexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used for shoulder dystocia during vaginal delivery and is not appropriate for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups, is commonly used in obstetrics and gynaecology but is not recommended for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the hospital due to experiencing contractions. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal birth. Despite being in good health, alert, and stable, her cardiotocography indicates that the baby's heart rate has increased from 164/min to 170/min after 10 minutes. As the woman is at full term, the obstetrician has decided to perform a caesarean section. What classification of caesarean section is this considered to be?

      Your Answer: Category 4

      Correct Answer: Category 2

      Explanation:

      Category 2 caesarean sections are performed when there is a non-immediate life-threatening emergency concerning the mother or the baby. This may include an abnormality detected by cardiotocography that requires an emergency caesarean section within 75 minutes of the decision being made. It is not immediately life-threatening to either the mother or the baby.

      Category 1 caesarean sections are performed in immediately life-threatening situations, such as haemodynamic instability of the mother.

      Category 3 caesarean sections are not immediately life-threatening to the mother but are necessary for the non-immediate life-threatening condition of the baby, such as distress.

      Category 4 caesarean sections are elective and may be chosen by the mother or recommended based on past medical history.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy. She reports a decrease in fetal movement over the past few days and is concerned. She has no significant medical history or family history and has had two uncomplicated pregnancies in the past. Physical examination is normal, and vital signs are stable. A handheld Doppler scan reveals no fetal heartbeat.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Fetal blood sampling

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      If a woman reports reduced fetal movements and no heartbeat is detected with a handheld Doppler after 28 weeks of gestation, an immediate ultrasound should be offered according to RCOG guidelines. Repeating Doppler after an hour is not recommended. If a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for at least 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old woman on day one postpartum who is breastfeeding is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman on day one postpartum who is breastfeeding is concerned about the safety of her pain medication. When you arrive, you find that the patient was prescribed acetaminophen for pain relief, but when she was offered this, she told the midwife it cannot be used as it can have detrimental effects for her baby. She wants to know if there are any other options. You explain that acetaminophen is safe to use while breastfeeding. Which of the following analgesics is another safe first line treatment to use in women who are breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Safe Pain Relief Options for Breastfeeding Mothers: A Guide to Medications

      Breastfeeding mothers often experience pain and discomfort, and it is important to know which pain relief options are safe to use while nursing. Paracetamol and ibuprofen are considered safe and can be used as first-line medication for analgesia. Codeine and other opiates can be used sparingly as third-line medication, but caution must be taken as some women may be slow metabolizers and it can cause drowsiness and respiratory depression in the infant. Aspirin is contraindicated due to the risk of Reye’s disease and other side-effects. Naproxen is generally safe, but paracetamol and ibuprofen should be the mainstay of analgesia. Tramadol can be used with caution and should be prescribed by a specialist. It is important to advise the woman on the safe use of medication and to monitor for any signs of toxicity in the infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old G1P0 28 weeks pregnant African American woman presents for her antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old G1P0 28 weeks pregnant African American woman presents for her antenatal screening. Her BMI is 23 kg/m², her BP is 136/82 mmHg, her symphysis-fundal height is 29cm and her urine dipstick results are as follows:
      Test Results
      Ketones negative
      Blood negative
      Protein negative
      Glucose trace
      Nitrites negative
      Leukocytes negative
      What would be the most suitable course of action next?

      Your Answer: Request an oral glucose tolerance test

      Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased blood flow to the kidneys and an increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), allowing for more efficient filtering of the blood. The patient’s symphysis-fundal height is within the expected range, indicating that the baby is not macrosomic. The patient does not exhibit symptoms of gestational diabetes, such as polyuria, polydipsia, or nocturia, and does not have any risk factors for the condition. Therefore, arranging for a fasting glucose test is not the best option for diagnosing or excluding gestational diabetes. Instead, an OGTT should be considered the gold standard. Prescribing labetalol is not necessary as the patient does not exhibit any concerning signs of pre-eclampsia. Similarly, prescribing metformin is not indicated as the patient has not been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and does not require medication for diabetes at this time.

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy

      The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.

      The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.

      The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first pregnancy. Her baby is currently in a breech presentation. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Admit for induction of labour and trial of vaginal delivery

      Correct Answer: Refer for external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation (gravida 3,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation (gravida 3, parity 2). The patient reports no abdominal pain but is worried about the possibility of a miscarriage. She has a history of two uncomplicated caesarean sections. What is the recommended first step in diagnosing her condition?

      Your Answer: Transabdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The pain started two days ago and is not accompanied by any other symptoms. She is struggling with breastfeeding and thinks her baby is not feeding long enough.
      On examination, you notice an erythematosus, firm and swollen area, in a wedge-shaped distribution, on the right breast. The nipple appears normal.
      Her observations are stable, and she is apyrexial.
      Given the above, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast abscess

      Correct Answer: Mastitis

      Explanation:

      Breast Conditions in Lactating Women

      Lactating women may experience various breast conditions, including mastitis, breast abscess, cellulitis, engorged breasts, and full breasts.

      Mastitis is typically caused by a blocked duct or ascending infection from nipple trauma during breastfeeding. Symptoms include unilateral pain, breast engorgement, and erythema. Treatment involves analgesia, reassurance, and continuing breastfeeding. Antibiotics may be necessary if symptoms persist or a milk culture is positive.

      Breast abscess presents as a painful lump in the breast tissue, often with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. Immediate treatment is necessary to prevent septicaemia.

      Cellulitis is an acute bacterial infection of the breast skin, presenting with erythema, tenderness, swelling, and blister formation. Non-specific symptoms such as rigors, fevers, and malaise may also occur.

      Engorged breasts can be primary or secondary, causing bilateral breast pain and engorgement. The skin may appear shiny, and the nipple may appear flat due to stretching.

      Full breasts are associated with lactation and cause warm, heavy, and hard breasts. This condition typically occurs between the 2nd and 6th day postpartum.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and had been taking care of her nephew who has chickenpox. The patient spent a considerable amount of time with her nephew and had close physical contact like hugging. The patient is feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had chickenpox before.
      What would be the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Correct Answer: Check antibody levels

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should be given varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). This can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed.

      If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given within 10 days of exposure. If she is more than 20 weeks pregnant and develops chickenpox, oral acyclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, specialist advice should be sought.

      It is important to take action if the woman is found to be non-immune, as providing only reassurance is not appropriate in this situation. By administering VZIG or antivirals, the risk of complications for both the woman and the fetus can be greatly reduced.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes for a routine check at 28 weeks gestation....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes for a routine check at 28 weeks gestation. During the examination, her symphysis-fundal height measures 23 cm. What is the most crucial investigation to confirm these findings?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The symphysis-fundal height measurement in centimetres should correspond to the foetal gestational age in weeks with an accuracy of 1 or 2 cm from 20 weeks gestation. Hence, it can be deduced that the woman is possibly experiencing fetal growth restriction. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct an ultrasound to verify if the foetus is indeed small for gestational age.

      The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is a measurement taken from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres. It is used to determine the gestational age of a fetus and should match within 2 cm after 20 weeks. For example, if a woman is 24 weeks pregnant, a normal SFH would be between 22 and 26 cm. Proper measurement of SFH is important for monitoring fetal growth and development during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old woman who is 39+0 weeks pregnant undergoes an artificial rupture of...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 39+0 weeks pregnant undergoes an artificial rupture of membranes to speed up slow labour. However, soon after the procedure, the CTG shows foetal bradycardia and the umbilical cord is palpable at the vaginal opening. What is the first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to 'go on all fours'

      Explanation:

      The appropriate action for a woman with a cord prolapse is to request that she assume an all-fours position on her knees and elbows. This condition occurs when the umbilical cord descends before the fetus’s presenting part, resulting in signs of fetal distress on a CTG after an artificial rupture of membranes. To prevent compression, the fetus’s presenting part may be pushed back into the uterus, and tocolytics may be used. If the cord is beyond the introitus, it should be kept warm and moist but not pushed back inside. The patient should be instructed to assume an all-fours position until an immediate caesarean section can be arranged. Applying external suprapubic pressure is not recommended, as it is part of the initial management of shoulder dystocia. Attempting to return the umbilical cord to the uterus is not recommended, as it may worsen fetal hypoxia and cause vasospasm. An episiotomy is not necessary for the initial management of cord prolapse and is typically used during instrumental vaginal deliveries or when the mother is at high risk of perineal trauma.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting a family. She and her partner are both diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and are currently undergoing weekly methotrexate treatment. The patient was informed about the need for pregnancy advice when she began taking the medication. What recommendations should you provide?

      Your Answer: The patient and her partner will both need to wait 6 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving

      Explanation:

      To avoid teratogenic effects, both men and women must discontinue the use of methotrexate for at least 6 months before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which affects DNA synthesis and can harm the rapidly dividing cells of the fetus. Additionally, methotrexate can damage various semen parameters. It is not enough for only the patient to stop taking methotrexate; both partners must cease use. Taking folic acid during pregnancy does not counteract the harmful effects of methotrexate on folate metabolism and does not address the partner’s use of the drug. Waiting for 3 months is insufficient; both partners must wait for 6 months to ensure that methotrexate will not cause teratogenic effects.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.

      During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.

      Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.

      NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of Atlantoaxial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

    On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

      On examination, her abdomen is non-tender with the uterus an appropriate size for her gestation. There is no visible rash, although she is mildly jaundiced. Her heart rate is 76/min, blood pressure 130/64 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturations are 99% in air, temperature 36.9°C.

      A set of blood results reveal:
      Hb 112g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 56 µmol/l Platelets 240 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 360 u/l WBC 8.5 109/l Urea 4.8 mmol/l ALT 86 u/l Neuts 5.9 109/l Creatinine 76 µmol/l γGT 210 u/l Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l Albumin 35 g/l

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which commonly causes itching in the third trimester. This condition is characterized by elevated liver function tests (LFTs), particularly alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), with a lesser increase in alanine transaminase (ALT). Patients may also experience jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, and steatorrhea. Treatment often involves ursodeoxycholic acid. Biliary colic is unlikely due to the absence of abdominal pain. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare and presents with a hepatic picture on LFTs, along with nausea, vomiting, jaundice, and potential encephalopathy. HELLP syndrome is characterized by haemolytic anaemia and low platelets, which are not present in this case. Pre-eclampsia is also unlikely as the patient does not have hypertension or other related symptoms, although late pre-eclampsia may cause hepatic derangement on LFTs.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - You are requested to evaluate a 28-year-old patient in a joint medical/obstetric clinic...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 28-year-old patient in a joint medical/obstetric clinic who has recently been diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Her pregnancy has been complicated by a diagnosis of gestational diabetes through routine screening and she now takes metformin 500 mg three times a day.

      She is currently 26 weeks pregnant and has just undergone a scan that revealed an estimated foetal weight of 900g (99th percentile). She reports feeling well and has been tolerating the metformin without any issues. A fasting blood glucose level is taken at the clinic and compared to her previous results:

      6 weeks ago: 6.0mmol/L
      4 weeks ago: 6.1 mmol/L
      Today: 7.5mmol/L

      Based on the above information, what changes would you make to the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue metformin and add insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be added to the treatment plan. This patient was initially advised to make lifestyle changes and follow a specific diet for two weeks, as her fasting blood glucose was below 7 mmol/L. However, since she did not meet the targets, she was started on metformin monotherapy. Insulin therapy was not initiated earlier because her fasting blood glucose was below 7 mmol/L. According to NICE guidelines, if metformin monotherapy fails to achieve the desired results, insulin should be started, and lifestyle changes should be emphasized. Therefore, the correct answer is to continue metformin and add insulin to the patient’s treatment plan. The other options, such as increasing the dose of metformin, stopping metformin and starting insulin, adding gliclazide, or prescribing high-dose folic acid, are incorrect.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The radiographer calls you in to speak to the patient, as the gestational sac is small for dates and she is unable to demonstrate a fetal heart rate. On further questioning, the patient reports an episode of bleeding while abroad at nine weeks’ gestation, which settled spontaneously.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incomplete miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Miscarriage: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Miscarriage is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks’ gestation. There are several types of miscarriage, each with its own symptoms and diagnosis.

      Missed miscarriage is an incidental finding where the patient presents without symptoms, but the ultrasound shows a small gestational sac and no fetal heart rate.

      Complete miscarriage is when all products of conception have been passed, and the uterus is empty and contracted.

      Incomplete miscarriage is when some, but not all, products of conception have been expelled, and the patient experiences vaginal bleeding with an open or closed os.

      Inevitable miscarriage is when the pregnancy will inevitably be lost, and the patient presents with active bleeding, abdominal pain, and an open cervical os.

      Threatened miscarriage is when there is an episode of bleeding, but the pregnancy is unaffected, and the patient experiences cyclical abdominal pain and dark red-brown bleeding. The cervical os is closed, and ultrasound confirms the presence of a gestational sac and fetal heart rate.

      It is important to seek medical attention if any symptoms of miscarriage occur.

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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends clinic for pre-pregnancy counselling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends clinic for pre-pregnancy counselling with regard to her glycaemic control.
      Which one of the following is the best test that will help you to advise the patient?

      Your Answer: 2-h GTT

      Correct Answer: HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Tests During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important for diabetic mothers to have good glycaemic control to prevent complications such as increased miscarriage rate, birth defects, and perinatal mortality. One way to measure glycaemic control is through the HbA1c test, which measures the average blood glucose concentration over the lifespan of a haemoglobin molecule. A level below 6% is considered good. Folic acid supplementation is also important to prevent neural tube defects in the baby.

      The 2-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) is used to screen for diabetes in pregnant women. However, there is no such thing as a 30-minute GTT. Random blood sugar tests only provide a snapshot measurement and do not take into account overall control or other factors that could be affecting sugar levels at that moment. Sugar series tests are not useful for pre-pregnancy counselling as they do not provide information about overall control. Diabetic mothers should be cared for by a joint obstetric-endocrine team of clinicians throughout their pregnancies.

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  • Question 17 - Your next patient in an antenatal clinic is a woman who is 32...

    Correct

    • Your next patient in an antenatal clinic is a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant. What examination findings would cause you to be concerned?

      Your Answer: Fundal height growth of 2 cm per week

      Explanation:

      The expected fundal height growth per week after 24 weeks is 1 cm, not 2 cm. If the fundal height is increasing by 2 cm per week, there may be a multiple pregnancy or the baby may be larger than expected, requiring further investigation. The fundus should be palpable at the umbilicus by 20 weeks and at the xiphoid sternum by 36 weeks. The head is typically free on palpation until around 37 weeks for nulliparous women, but may engage earlier in multiparous women. Breech presentation is common before 34 weeks and only becomes a concern if preterm labor occurs.

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman attends her regular antenatal check at 16 weeks gestation. It...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman attends her regular antenatal check at 16 weeks gestation. It is her second pregnancy and she has had no complications.
      The nurse is discussing the results of previous tests, checking her urine and measuring her blood pressure. The patient has no protein in her urine and her blood pressure is 102/70 mmHg.
      Which of the following describes a normal physiological change in this patient?

      Your Answer: An increase in heart rate and stroke volume lead to an increase in cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes in Pregnancy

      Pregnancy is a time of significant physiological changes in a woman’s body. These changes are mainly driven by progesterone rather than oestrogen. One of the changes is vasodilation, which leads to a drop in blood pressure initially, but it normalizes by term. However, an increase in heart rate and stroke volume leads to an increase in cardiac output.

      Another change is a decrease in lower oesophageal sphincter tone and vascular resistance, which causes a drop in blood pressure. This decrease occurs over the first trimester but starts to increase to normal by term. Oestrogen is responsible for this change, and it also causes symptoms of reflux.

      Pregnancy also causes a mild anaemia due to a drop in red cell volume. However, this is a dilutional anaemia caused by an increase in plasma volume. Additionally, there is an increase in clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which makes pregnancy a hypercoagulable state.

      The functional residual capacity (FRC) increases in pregnancy, leading to more rapid breathing and smaller tidal volumes. This decrease in FRC means that oxygen reserve is less in pregnant women. Minute ventilation increases due to increased oxygen consumption and increased CO2 production. This is by increased tidal volume rather than respiratory rate.

      Finally, the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases secondary to progesterone, facilitating an increase in fluid retention and an increase in plasma volume. However, there is also an increase in aldosterone, which acts on the kidneys producing water and sodium retention, therefore causing an increase in plasma volume.

      In conclusion, pregnancy causes significant physiological changes in a woman’s body, which are mainly driven by progesterone. These changes affect various systems, including the cardiovascular, respiratory, and renal systems.

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  • Question 19 - A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
      What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Introduction:
      Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.

      Continue Sodium Valproate:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
      Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
      Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
      Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman is concerned about the risk of measles, mumps, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman is concerned about the risk of measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) infection for her unborn baby. She has never been vaccinated for MMR and is currently 14 weeks pregnant. There are no sick contacts around her.

      What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Advise her to come back at 24 weeks pregnant to receive a one-off dose MMR vaccine

      Correct Answer: Refrain from giving her any MMR vaccination now and at any stage of her pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The MMR vaccine, which contains live attenuated virus, should not be given to women who are pregnant or trying to conceive. It is recommended that women avoid getting pregnant for at least 28 days after receiving the vaccine. If a pregnant woman is not immune to MMR, she should avoid contact with individuals who have the disease. In the event that a woman receives the MMR vaccine unintentionally during the periconception period or early pregnancy, termination of pregnancy is not necessary. This information is based on the guidelines provided by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

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  • Question 21 - You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first child. Take a brief history of this patient.

      The patient has a past medical history of coeliac disease and hypothyroidism. She takes no regular medications and has no known drug allergies. Her family history is relevant for her father has type 1 diabetes. She has never smoked and since pregnancy, has stopped drinking alcohol.

      What additional tests, if any, should be arranged for this patient based on her medical history?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 18-22 weeks

      Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a first-degree relative with diabetes should be screened for gestational diabetes with an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. No further tests are required, but thyroid function tests should be done in each trimester for those with an existing diagnosis of hypothyroidism. OGTT should not be done at 18-22 weeks.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department at 37 weeks of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department at 37 weeks of pregnancy with a chief complaint of feeling unwell and having a fever. Upon examination, she is found to have a temperature of 38ºC and a heart rate of 110 bpm. The fetus is also tachycardic. The patient reports experiencing urinary incontinence three weeks ago, followed by some discharge, but denies any other symptoms. What is the probable cause of her current condition?

      Your Answer: Chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM), it’s important to consider the possibility of chorioamnionitis in women who exhibit a combination of maternal pyrexia, maternal tachycardia, and fetal tachycardia. While other conditions like pelvic inflammatory disease and urinary tract infections may also be considered, chorioamnionitis is the most probable diagnosis. Immediate cesarean section and intravenous antibiotics will likely be necessary.

      Understanding Chorioamnionitis

      Chorioamnionitis is a serious medical condition that can affect both the mother and the foetus during pregnancy. It is caused by a bacterial infection that affects the amniotic fluid, membranes, and placenta. This condition is considered a medical emergency and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is more likely to occur when the membranes rupture prematurely, but it can also happen when the membranes are still intact.

      Prompt delivery of the foetus is crucial in treating chorioamnionitis, and a cesarean section may be necessary. Intravenous antibiotics are also administered to help fight the infection. This condition affects up to 5% of all pregnancies, and it is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may have chorioamnionitis.

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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus and is referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus and is referred to the joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. She is currently 25 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. Her family has no history of pregnancy-related problems, but her father has type 1 diabetes mellitus. On examination, her BMI is 32 kg/m² and otherwise normal. What diagnostic test would confirm her condition?

      Your Answer: Glucose >=7.8 mmol/L 1-hour after mealtime

      Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose >= 5.6 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed if the patient has a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L or higher, or a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L or higher. This diagnosis is typically made during an oral glucose tolerance test around 24 weeks into the pregnancy for women with risk factors, such as a high BMI or a first-degree relative with diabetes mellitus. In this patient’s case, she was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus during her first pregnancy due to her risk factors. Therefore, the correct answer is a fasting plasma glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L. It is important to note that a 2-hour glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L is not diagnostic of gestational diabetes mellitus, and random plasma glucose tests are not used for diagnosis. Glucose targets for women with gestational diabetes mellitus include a 2-hour glucose level of 6.4 mmol/L after mealtime and a 1-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L after mealtime.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 24 - As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the...

    Correct

    • As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the delivery of a patient when suddenly, shoulder dystocia occurs. You quickly call for senior assistance and decide to perform McRobert's manoeuvre by hyper flexing and abducting the mother's hips, moving her onto her back and bringing her thighs towards her abdomen.

      What other action can be taken to enhance the effectiveness of the manoeuvre?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      According to the shoulder dystocia guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, utilizing suprapubic pressure can enhance the efficacy of the McRoberts manoeuvre.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus, well controlled on insulin, attends...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus, well controlled on insulin, attends the Fetal Medicine Clinic for a growth scan at 36 weeks. The scan has been unremarkable, and the consultant will discuss the mode and timing of delivery today. The baby is cephalic, and the placenta is posterior and high.
      Which of the following statements regarding the mode and timing of delivery in patients with diabetes is correct?

      Your Answer: Delivery is indicated by induction between 37+0 and 39+6 weeks’ gestation

      Correct Answer: Women with gestational diabetes should give birth no later than 40+6 weeks’ gestation

      Explanation:

      Managing Delivery in Women with Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Women with diabetes during pregnancy require special attention during delivery to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Here are some important considerations:

      Delivery should not be delayed beyond 40+6 weeks’ gestation to avoid the risk of stillbirth.

      Delivery before 37 weeks is not recommended unless there are metabolic or other maternal or fetal complications.

      Vaginal delivery is not recommended in the presence of a macrosomic fetus, but the woman should be informed of the risks and make an informed decision.

      Induction or elective Caesarean section should be considered between 37+0 and 38+6 weeks’ gestation to minimize the risk of stillbirth and fetal macrosomia.

      Women with a previous Caesarean section can opt for vaginal birth after Caesarean section (VBAC) if the indication for the previous Caesarean section is not recurring.

      During delivery, intrapartum glucose levels should be monitored closely, and appropriate interventions should be taken to maintain glucose levels between 4 and 7 mmol/l.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure a safe delivery for women with diabetes during pregnancy.

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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old, 16 week pregnant, female arrives at the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old, 16 week pregnant, female arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that has been persistent for the last 2 hours. She denies any vaginal bleeding. What are the risk factors linked to an elevated chance of placental abruption?

      Your Answer: Maternal trauma, multiparity and increased maternal age

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is more likely to occur in older mothers, those who have had multiple pregnancies, and those who have experienced maternal trauma. Pre-eclampsia, characterized by protein in the urine and high blood pressure, is also a risk factor.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 27 - A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is performed on a 29-year-old female at 37 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is performed on a 29-year-old female at 37 weeks gestation who has arrived at labour ward in spontaneous labour. The CTG shows a foetal heart rate of 120 bpm and variable decelerations and accelerations are present. There are no late decelerations. However, the midwife notices a 15 minute period where the foetal heart rate only varies by 2-3bpm. The mum is worried as she has not felt her baby move much for about 15 mins and would like to know what the likely cause is. She starts crying when she tells you that she took some paracetamol earlier as she was in so much pain from the contractions and is concerned this has harmed her baby. What is the most probable reason for this reduced variability?

      Your Answer: Foetal acidosis

      Correct Answer: Foetus is sleeping

      Explanation:

      Episodes of decreased variability on CTG that last less than 40 minutes are often attributed to the foetus being asleep. However, if the decreased variability persists for more than 40 minutes, it can be a cause for concern. Other factors that can lead to decreased variability in foetal heart rate on CTG include maternal drug use (such as benzodiazepines, opioids or methyldopa – but not paracetamol), foetal acidosis (usually due to hypoxia), prematurity (which is not applicable in this case), foetal tachycardia (heart rate above 140 bpm, which is also not the case here), and congenital heart abnormalities.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old primigravida woman, at 10 weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravida woman, at 10 weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department with heavy vaginal bleeding. She reports passing large clots and experiencing cramping for the past 2 hours.

      Upon examination, her blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg and her heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Pelvic examination reveals blood clots in the vaginal canal. A speculum exam shows active vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and a uterus consistent in size with a 9-week gestation. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals small amounts of fluid in the endometrium with an intrauterine sac measuring 22mm in crown-rump length, but no fetal cardiac activity is detected.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Dilation and curettage

      Explanation:

      If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of hemorrhage, expectant management is not appropriate for a miscarriage. A patient with first-trimester vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and an intrauterine sac without fetal cardiac activity is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage. Miscarriages can be managed through expectant, pharmacological, or surgical means. Expectant management involves bed rest, avoiding strenuous physical activity, and weekly follow-up pelvic ultrasounds. This approach is typically recommended for patients with a threatened miscarriage that presents as vaginal bleeding. The threatened miscarriage may resolve on its own or progress to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete miscarriage. However, in this case, the open cervical os and absent fetal cardiac activity indicate that the miscarriage is inevitable, and the fetus is no longer viable. Medical management involves using drugs like misoprostol or methotrexate to medically evacuate retained products of conception in inevitable or incomplete miscarriages. Nevertheless, this patient is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which has caused hypotension and tachycardia, making her hemodynamically unstable. In all cases of early pregnancy loss with hemodynamic instability, urgent surgical evacuation of products of conception is necessary to minimize further blood loss. Dilation and curettage is a common and controlled method of uterine evacuation.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her risk of developing Down syndrome was calculated as 1 in 8, and she was offered a diagnostic test. Amniocentesis confirms Down syndrome. Following long discussions with her and her partner, she decides on termination of the pregnancy.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an inpatient

      Explanation:

      Medical and Surgical Management of Termination of Pregnancy

      Medical and surgical management are two options for termination of pregnancy. Medical management involves the use of oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. This method is recommended for termination of pregnancy before 13 weeks’ gestation and can be performed in an inpatient setting. The patient is administered the medication in hospital and will stay in the clinic or hospital to pass the pregnancy. Appropriate analgesia and antiemetics are given to take home, as required. The patient should be advised that there is a possibility medical management will fail and surgical management will need to take place.

      Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone for the progesterone receptor. It promotes degradation of the decidualised endometrium, cervical ripening and dilation, as well as increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. Misoprostol, a synthetic prostaglandin E1, in turn, binds avidly to myometrial cells, promoting contraction of the uterus, and therefore expulsion of the products of conception. If this fails to empty the uterus, then a surgical procedure to manually evacuate the uterus is the next appropriate step in the patient’s management.

      Surgical termination of pregnancy is first line for women presenting after 14 weeks’ gestation, women who have a preference over medical management and patients where medical termination has failed.

      In cases where the patient has decided to proceed with termination of pregnancy, delaying the procedure is unethical and does not benefit the patient in any way. The patient should be fully informed of the risks associated with the procedure and given the necessary support.

      Vaginal misoprostol can also be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour.

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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an appointment for her first scan at 12+4 weeks’ gestation. She wants to know what the appointment will involve.
      Regarding the 11–13 week appointment, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: It is also described as the ‘quadruple test’

      Correct Answer: It can also include the ‘combined test’

      Explanation:

      Understanding Down Syndrome Screening Tests

      Down syndrome screening tests are important for pregnant women to determine the likelihood of their baby having the condition. One of the most common tests is the combined test, which is performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation. This test involves a blood test and an ultrasound scan to measure serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and β-hCG, as well as nuchal translucency. The results are combined to give an individual risk of having a baby with Down syndrome.

      If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she can opt for the quadruple test, which is performed between weeks 15 and 16 of gestation. This test measures four serum markers: inhibin, aFP, unconjugated oestriol, and total serum hCG. Low aFP and unconjugated oestriol, as well as raised inhibin and hCG, are associated with Down syndrome.

      It is important to note that these tests are not diagnostic, but rather provide a risk assessment. Women who are classified as high risk may opt for a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, to confirm the presence of an extra chromosome. All pregnant women in the UK should be offered Down syndrome screening and given the opportunity to make an informed decision about participating in the test.

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  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding and has no significant medical history. However, she is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. On examination, her abdomen is tender and tense, and cardiotocography reveals late decelerations. Her vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 98%, heart rate 125 beats/min, blood pressure 89/56 mmHg, and temperature 35.9 ºC. What is the initial management for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Category 1 caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A category 1 caesarean section is necessary in cases of suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse, fetal hypoxia, or persistent fetal bradycardia. In this scenario, the most likely diagnosis is a major placental abruption due to intense abdominal pain and haemodynamic shock. Guidelines recommend a category 1 caesarean section if the foetus is alive and >36 weeks with foetal distress, as indicated by late decelerations on cardiotocography. This is because the presentation of placental abruption, haemodynamic shock, and late decelerations poses an immediate threat to the lives of both the mother and baby. Administering corticosteroids and observation is not applicable in this scenario, as the foetus is >36 weeks and foetal distress is present. Category 2 and 4 caesarean sections are also inappropriate, as they are not immediately life-threatening and are elective, respectively.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 32 - A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties breastfeeding. She has exclusively breastfed her other two children. She tells you her baby has problems latching, is feeding for a long time and is always hungry. She has sore nipples as a result of the poor latch.
      On examination, you notice that the baby cannot bring his tongue past the lower lip and there is restriction in movement. On lifting the tongue, it acquires a heart shape with a central notch, but you cannot visualise the frenulum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cleft lip

      Correct Answer: Posterior tongue tie

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Abnormalities in Infants: Tongue Tie, Upper Lip Tie, Cleft Lip, and Cleft Palate

      Tongue tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a condition that affects up to 10% of live births, more commonly in boys than girls. It is characterized by a short, thickened frenulum attaching the tongue to the floor of the mouth, limiting tongue movements and causing difficulties with breastfeeding. Mothers may report that their infant takes a long time to feed, is irritable, and experiences nipple injury. Examination findings include limited tongue movements, inability to lift the tongue high or move it past the lower lip, and a characteristic heart-shaped notch when attempting to lift the tongue. Tongue tie can be anterior or posterior, with the latter being deeper in the mouth and more difficult to see.

      Upper lip tie is a similar condition, with a frenulum attaching the upper lip to the gum line. This can also cause difficulties with breastfeeding due to limited movement of the upper lip.

      Cleft lip and cleft palate are congenital malformations that occur when the facial structures fail to fuse properly during development. Cleft lip presents as a gap in the upper lip, while cleft palate is a gap in the roof of the mouth. Both can cause difficulties with feeding and require surgical intervention.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common oral abnormalities in infants and provide appropriate management and referrals to ensure optimal feeding and development.

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  • Question 33 - A woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the maternity assessment unit with...

    Correct

    • A woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the maternity assessment unit with complaints of reduced fetal movements (RFM). She reports that she has not felt her baby move for the past 10 hours. There is no history of vaginal bleeding or pain. The midwife is unable to detect a fetal heartbeat using the handheld Doppler. What further investigations would be carried out to assess the reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypertension during her first prenatal visit at 12 weeks with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Her urine test reveals +++ protein. What is the best course of action to manage her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous labetalol with target blood pressure < 135/85 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old female (P0 G1) is 28 weeks pregnant and has just been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female (P0 G1) is 28 weeks pregnant and has just been informed that her baby is in the breech position. She is considering the external cephalic version (ECV) and wants to know when she can be offered this procedure?

      Your Answer: 37 weeks

      Correct Answer: 36 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to wait until the lady reaches 36 weeks of pregnancy to check if the baby has changed position, as she is currently only 30 weeks pregnant. For nulliparous women, such as the lady in this case, ECV should be provided at 36 weeks if the baby remains in the breech position. However, if the lady had previous pregnancies, ECV would be offered at 37 weeks.

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

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  • Question 36 - A 28-year-old woman with gestational diabetes delivered at 39+2 weeks’ gestation by an...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with gestational diabetes delivered at 39+2 weeks’ gestation by an uncomplicated elective Caesarean section for macrosomia. The baby weighed 4.8 kg at delivery. The Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes was 10. Eight hours later, she pulls the emergency alarm because her baby became lethargic and started shaking.

      What is the most probable reason for this newborn's seizure activity and lethargy?

      Your Answer: Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Seizures: Likely Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Neonatal seizures can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. The most common cause of neonatal seizures is hypoglycaemia, which can occur in neonates born to mothers with gestational diabetes. Hypoglycaemia can lead to significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated. Other possible causes of neonatal seizures include hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy, neonatal sepsis, intracranial haemorrhage, and benign familial neonatal seizures. However, in the absence of prematurity or complicated delivery, hypoglycaemia is the most likely cause of neonatal seizures in a term baby born to a mother with gestational diabetes. Diagnosis and treatment should be prompt to prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a significant obstetric hemorrhage due to uterine atony....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a significant obstetric hemorrhage due to uterine atony. What is the initial medical management after stabilization and general measures?

      Your Answer: Misoprostol

      Correct Answer: Syntocinon

      Explanation:

      To treat postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony, medical options include oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol.

      The leading cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.52) for managing primary PPH due to uterine atony. The first-line treatment recommended is 5U of IV Syntocinon (oxytocin), followed by 0.5 mg of ergometrine.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old woman is seen in the epilepsy clinic. She has been effectively...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seen in the epilepsy clinic. She has been effectively managing her epilepsy with carbamazepine 400 mg twice daily. She is expecting a baby girl soon and is eager to breastfeed. What guidance should be provided to the patient?

      Your Answer: Switch carbamazepine to lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: No changes required

      Explanation:

      There is no need to increase the dose of medication as the patient’s epilepsy is well controlled on the current regimen. Switching from carbamazepine to lamotrigine is also unnecessary and not safer.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

      A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

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  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full blood count reveals a serum Hb of 104 g/L and MCV of 104 fL. Hypersegmented neutrophils are observed on a blood film. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. What is the probable reason for her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Correct Answer: Folate deficiency

      Explanation:

      The macrocytic anaemia revealed by the full blood count is indicative of a megaloblastic anaemia, as per the blood films. This type of anaemia can be caused by a deficiency in folate or B12. Given that folic acid deficiency is prevalent during pregnancy, it is the most probable cause in this instance. Additionally, the likelihood of coeliac disease exacerbating malabsorption further supports this conclusion.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to her antenatal check-up and asks for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to her antenatal check-up and asks for a screening test to detect any chromosomal abnormalities. She is in her 16th week of pregnancy and wants the most precise screening test available. She is worried about Edward's syndrome due to her family's medical history.
      What outcome from the screening test would suggest a high probability of Edward's syndrome?

      Your Answer: ↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↑ hCG ↑ inhibin A

      Correct Answer: ↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↓ hCG ↔ inhibin A

      Explanation:

      The correct result for the quadruple test screening for Edward’s syndrome is ↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↓ hCG ↔ inhibin A. This test is offered to pregnant women between 15-20 weeks gestation and measures alpha fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A levels. A ‘high chance’ result would require further screening or diagnostic tests to determine if the baby is affected by Edward’s syndrome. The incorrect answers include a result indicating a higher chance of Down’s syndrome (↑ hCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency), neural tube defects (↑AFP ↔ oestriol ↔ hCG ↔ inhibin A), and a higher chance of Down’s syndrome (↓ AFP ↓ oestriol ↑ hCG ↑ inhibin A). It is important to note that the combined test for Down’s syndrome should not be given to women outside of the appropriate gestation bracket.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 41 - A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several instances of tonic-clonic seizures. They plan to start a family within the next year and seek advice. She is currently controlling her epilepsy with sodium valproate. What is the most appropriate recommendation for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to an epilepsy specialist for evaluation and recommendation of antiepileptic medication changes

      Explanation:

      Minimizing Teratogenicity in Antiepileptic Medications for Women Wishing to Start a Family

      For women with epilepsy who wish to start a family, it is crucial to minimize exposure to teratogenic antiepileptic medications while still controlling their seizures. Sodium valproate, a commonly used antiepileptic drug, is highly teratogenic and associated with congenital malformations and neural tube defects. Therefore, it is recommended to change medication prior to conception, as advised by an epilepsy specialist after a thorough evaluation of risks and benefits.

      One option may be to add levetiracetam to the current medication regimen, as it is a pregnancy category C drug that may help control seizures. However, carbamazepine or lamotrigine may be preferred based on limited evidence.

      Stopping sodium valproate and starting phenytoin is not recommended, as phenytoin also carries a significant risk of teratogenicity and has toxic and side effects.

      Increasing the dose of sodium valproate is not advised, as it can negatively affect fetal neurodevelopment.

      Similarly, stopping sodium valproate and adding phenobarbital is not indicated, as phenobarbital is also associated with an increased risk of teratogenicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy who wish to start a family to consult with an epilepsy specialist to evaluate and recommend appropriate antiepileptic medication changes to minimize teratogenicity while still controlling seizures.

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  • Question 42 - A 22-year-old woman comes to your clinic at 14 weeks into her second...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to your clinic at 14 weeks into her second pregnancy. Her pregnancy has been going smoothly thus far, with a regular dating scan at 10 weeks. She came in 24 hours ago due to severe nausea and vomiting and was prescribed oral cyclizine 50 mg TDS. However, she is still unable to consume any oral intake, including fluids. Her urine dip shows ketones.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Advise bed rest and arrange for the district nurses to provide IM antiemetics

      Correct Answer: Arrange admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      Referral to gynaecology for urgent assessment and intravenous fluids is necessary if a pregnant woman experiences severe nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and positive ketones in her urine. This is especially important if the woman has a pre-existing condition that may be affected by prolonged nausea and vomiting, such as diabetes. Caution should be exercised when prescribing metoclopramide to young women due to the risk of extrapyramidal side effects. In this case, hospital management and assessment for intravenous fluids are necessary, and it would not be appropriate to simply reassure the patient and discharge her.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 43 - A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with painless vaginal bleeding. She had her second baby three years ago, which was delivered via a c-section, but otherwise was a normal pregnancy. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus was non-tender, however, her baby was in breech presentation. The foetal heart rate was also normal, and she denied experiencing any contractions during the bleeding episode. What is the recommended next investigation for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 44 - A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion

      Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:

      Trophoblastic Disease
      This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.

      Ectopic Pregnancy
      This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.

      Threatened Miscarriage
      This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.

      Confirmed Miscarriage
      After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.

      Septic Abortion
      This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.

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  • Question 45 - A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency and mild lower abdominal pain. A urine dipstick was performed, showing 2+ blood, and is positive for nitrites. There is no glycosuria or proteinuria. The patient has previously had an allergic reaction to trimethoprim.
      What is the most appropriate antibiotic for treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Urinary Tract Infections in Pregnancy: A Guide

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in pregnancy and require prompt treatment to prevent complications. When choosing an antibiotic, it is important to consider its safety for both the mother and the developing fetus. Here is a guide to some commonly used antibiotics for UTIs in pregnancy.

      Nitrofurantoin: This is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE guidelines for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use, but should be avoided near term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. It should also not be used during breastfeeding. Side-effects may include agranulocytosis, arthralgia, anaemia, chest pain and diarrhoea.

      Erythromycin: This antibiotic is not routinely used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is considered safe for both mother and fetus.

      cephalexin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is licensed as second-line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use and has no documented fetal complications.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic is not used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is safe for both mother and fetus.

      Trimethoprim: This antibiotic is no longer recommended for UTIs in pregnancy due to its interference with folate metabolism. If no other options are available, it can be given with increased folate intake.

      Remember to always consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 46 - A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department, worried about her pregnancy. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department, worried about her pregnancy. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications. However, during a shopping trip a few hours ago, she felt a sudden rush of fluid from her vagina and noticed that her underwear was wet.
      The triage nurse has already taken her vital signs, which are all within normal limits.
      What is the initial test that should be performed based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Speculum examination

      Explanation:

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 47 - A 29-year-old primiparous woman presented to Labour Ward triage at 34+1/40 with upper...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primiparous woman presented to Labour Ward triage at 34+1/40 with upper back/chest pain and a headache. The pregnancy had been uncomplicated up to this point, with only some lower back pain over the past 2 weeks.
      Obs: blood pressure 151/102, respiratory rate 18, sats 100% room air, heart rate 60 bpm, afebrile. On examination, she appeared well – PERL. Heart sounds were normal, chest was clear, and there was no shortness of breath (SOB). Her abdomen and uterus were soft and non-tender (SNT), and her calves were also SNT. Reflexes were normal. A urine dip showed nitrate +, leukocytes +, protein 1+. Electrocardiography (ECG) and cardiotocography (CTG) were both normal. Blood tests were taken, and results were pending.
      Considering the likely diagnosis, what would be your first step in management?

      Your Answer: Start po labetalol and admit for monitoring

      Explanation:

      Management of Pre-eclampsia with Hypertension in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a common condition affecting pregnant women, with hypertension and proteinuria being the main clinical features. The first line of management for hypertension is oral labetalol, with close monitoring of blood pressure. In cases of mild hypertension, induction of labor is not necessary. However, admission for monitoring and commencement of labetalol is recommended. IV magnesium sulfate may be needed later on, but not initially. Discharge home is not appropriate for women with pre-eclampsia. Early recognition and management of pre-eclampsia is crucial for the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the Acute Gynaecology Ward with per vaginum...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the Acute Gynaecology Ward with per vaginum bleeding. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has had a scan confirming an intrauterine pregnancy. She reports lower abdominal cramping and bleeding for the last two days, which prompted admission to await an ultrasound scan. You are an FY1 doctor and are called to see her as she has increasing pain and is crying in distress. On examination, she is sweaty and uncomfortable. Abdomen is soft in the upper region, but firm and very tender suprapubically. Observations show temperature 38.7 °C, heart rate 130 bpm, blood pressure 95/65, respiratory rate 22 and oxygen saturations 97% on air. Checking her pad shows fresh bleeding and speculum examination is difficult due to pain, but there is a smelly discharge and you think you see tissue sitting in the os. You manage to get IV access and starts fluid resuscitation.
      What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Call your registrar

      Explanation:

      Immediate Management of Septic Miscarriage: Steps to Take

      Septic miscarriage is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. If a patient presents with increasing pain, bleeding, and fever, along with clinical signs of sepsis, it is important to inform senior doctors immediately. Here are the steps to take:

      1. Call your registrar: Senior doctors need to know about the patient urgently, coming to review and liaising with coordinators to get the patient to theatre as soon as possible.

      2. Bloods and blood cultures: This is the most important thing to do after informing seniors. She is already shocked, so getting IV access now is essential. Bloods such as a group and crossmatch need to be sent, along with blood cultures.

      3. Transvaginal ultrasound scan: Transvaginal ultrasound scan has no place in the immediate management. The diagnosis is obvious from the history and examination.

      4. Ultrasound abdomen: Abdominal ultrasound can be performed after the patient is initially managed and is out of danger. For the current scenario, it is important to inform a senior registrar as the condition may deteriorate. After giving the call to registrar emergency management should be initiated according to A-E assessment.

      5. Give analgesia and try to repeat the speculum examination: She is already shocked, and to delay treatment to try and examine again would be dangerous.

      By following these steps, you can ensure that the patient receives the urgent care she needs to manage septic miscarriage.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 49 - A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational diabetes presents in her second pregnancy. She is at eight weeks’ gestation and attends the midwife booking visit.
      What is the most suitable test to diagnose gestational diabetes in this patient?

      Your Answer: HbA1c at booking and then at 24–28 weeks

      Correct Answer: A 2-hour OGTT as soon as possible following the booking visit

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a condition where pregnant women experience high blood sugar levels. It is diagnosed through a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. Women with risk factors such as a BMI over 30, a previous macrosomic baby, a family history of diabetes, or from an area with high diabetes prevalence should be offered the test. Random serum glucose, fasting serum glucose, HbA1c, and urinalysis are not recommended for diagnosis. Gestational diabetes can have negative effects on both the mother and fetus, including fetal macrosomia, stillbirth, neonatal hypoglycemia, and an increased risk of type II diabetes and obesity in the baby’s later life. Women with pre-existing diabetes should have their HbA1c monitored monthly and at booking to assess pregnancy risk, but HbA1c is not used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Early detection and management of gestational diabetes is crucial to prevent complications.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 50 - A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Advise to take time off work

      Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is the appropriate medication to prescribe for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as it is a first-line antiemetic. Metoclopramide should be avoided due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects if used for more than 5 days. While alternative methods such as ginger and acupressure bands may be discussed, as the patient has requested medication, it is appropriate to prescribe promethazine. It is also important to support the patient’s decision to continue working if that is her preference.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (22/50) 44%
Passmed