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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?

      Your Answer: Adenovirus

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.

      The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      23
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man who suffered from distal radial fracture eight weeks ago visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man who suffered from distal radial fracture eight weeks ago visits his GP complaining of numbness in the lateral three and a half digits and atrophy of the thenar muscles. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Phalen’s test is utilized for evaluating carpal tunnel syndrome by holding the patient’s wrist in maximum flexion (reverse prayer sign) for 30-60 seconds. A positive result is indicated by numbness in the median nerve distribution.

      This scenario is typical of carpal tunnel syndrome, which affects the thenar muscles and provides sensory innervation to the lateral three and a half digits. The compression of the median nerve during Phalen’s test leads to the aforementioned presentation.

      In contrast, cubital tunnel syndrome results from ulnar nerve compression and causes hypothenar muscle wasting and numbness in the medial one and a half digits. Ulnar nerve injury leads to loss of sensation in the medial one and a half digit, while radial nerve palsy typically presents with wrist drop and loss of sensation in the first dorsal web-space.

      Finally, radial ganglion is characterized by a mass near the base of the thumb, usually above the wrist.

      Nerve Signs for Assessing Ulnar Nerve Palsy and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Nerve signs are important diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Two commonly used nerve signs are Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test. Froment’s sign is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy by testing the function of the adductor pollicis muscle. The patient is asked to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger, which is then pulled away. If the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it indicates ulnar nerve palsy.

      Phalen’s test is used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome and is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign. The patient’s wrist is held in maximum flexion, and the test is positive if there is numbness in the median nerve distribution. Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome by tapping the median nerve at the wrist. The test is positive if there is tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve.

      In summary, nerve signs are useful diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test are two commonly used nerve signs that can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old foster parent brings in her 7-year-old foster child to the GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old foster parent brings in her 7-year-old foster child to the GP. He has been complaining of pain when going to the toilet. The foster mother explains that he often has pain when urinating and as a younger child often cried when passing urine. He has only recently developed pain while defecating, however, the foster mother is clearly concerned and consents to the GP examining the child.

      What clinical findings are most likely to indicate child sexual abuse in a 7-year-old child who complains of pain when going to the toilet and has a history of crying while passing urine?

      Your Answer: Anal fissures and Candida infection

      Correct Answer: Anal fissures and recurrent urinary tract infections

      Explanation:

      Childhood sexual abuse may be indicated by the presence of anal fissures and recurrent UTIs in children.

      Signs of childhood sexual abuse can include various symptoms such as pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain. However, haemorrhoids and Candida infections are not specific clinical features that suggest a child may be at risk of sexual abuse.

      Understanding Sexual Abuse in Children

      Sexual abuse is a serious issue that affects many children, but unfortunately, adults often do not believe their allegations. Children with special educational needs are at a higher risk of being sexually abused. The abusers can be anyone, but statistics show that 30% of abusers are fathers, 15% are unrelated men, and 10% are older brothers.

      There are several features that may be present in a sexually abused child, including pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, recurrent UTIs, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain.

      It is important to recognize these signs and take action to protect children from sexual abuse. By understanding the signs and symptoms, we can work towards preventing and addressing this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports feeling a snapping sensation in his hip accompanied by deep groin and hip pain. The patient participated in a football game over the weekend. He has no prior history of such symptoms and is not on any regular medication. Upon further inquiry, he admits to consuming alcohol regularly, with an average of 70 units per week.

      During the examination, the man's large body habitus is noted. He is able to bear weight and move around the room without difficulty. However, his range of motion is restricted due to pain, particularly during external rotation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acetabular labral tear

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acetabular Labral Tears

      Acetabular labral tears are a common condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes in the hip joint. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of an injury, while older adults may develop it due to age-related wear and tear. The main symptoms of an acetabular labral tear include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking.
      Treatment options may include physical therapy, medication, or surgery, depending on the severity of the tear and your overall health. With proper care and management, most people with acetabular labral tears can find relief from their symptoms and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old patient is attending her routine check-up at the general practice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is attending her routine check-up at the general practice. She was prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder two years ago and reports a new symptom. The doctor suspects lithium toxicity. What might the patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Fine tremor

      Correct Answer: Polyuria

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is a symptom of lithium toxicity, which can also cause renal dysfunction, hypothyroidism, and benign intracranial hypertension (BIH). To monitor for toxicity, lithium serum levels should be tested regularly, along with renal function, thyroid function, calcium levels, and body weight. Abdominal discomfort is a common side effect of lithium but does not necessarily indicate toxicity. Fatigue is a common symptom in people with bipolar disorder, but it is not a reported symptom of lithium toxicity. While a fine tremor is an expected finding in people taking lithium, a coarse tremor may indicate toxicity and should prompt testing of lithium-serum levels.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and a painful finger that has been bothering her for the past 3 weeks. She has also discovered a soft lump at the base of her left calf and requests that it be examined. She denies any fever, weight loss, or trauma, and has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus.

      During the examination, the GP observes erythema and swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joint of the left index finger. The patient can move the joint independently, but pain limits her range of motion. Arthrocentesis reveals yellow fluid without crystal formation or gram stain, but a high level of leukocytes (40,000/μL) and a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils in the cytology.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      A joint aspiration is recommended for this patient who presents with new-onset monoarticular arthritis and no confirmed diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. In cases of rheumatoid arthritis, the synovial fluid will typically appear yellow and have increased opacity due to the quantity of leukocytes present. The leukocyte count can range from 2,000 to 50,000 per microlitre, with a predominance of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). There will be no crystals present. Despite the patient’s atypical history of rheumatoid arthritis, the arthrocentesis findings, along with their past medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and the presence of constitutional symptoms and an Achilles tendon nodule, support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Gout, osteoarthritis, and pseudogout can be ruled out based on the absence of their characteristic arthrocentesis findings.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentations

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. The typical features of rheumatoid arthritis include swollen and painful joints in the hands and feet, with stiffness being worse in the morning. The condition gradually worsens over time, with larger joints becoming involved. The presentation of rheumatoid arthritis usually develops insidiously over a few months, and a positive ‘squeeze test’ may be observed, which causes discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints.

      Late features of rheumatoid arthritis include Swan neck and boutonnière deformities, which are unlikely to be present in a recently diagnosed patient. However, other presentations of rheumatoid arthritis may include an acute onset with marked systemic disturbance or relapsing/remitting monoarthritis of different large joints, known as palindromic rheumatism. It is important to recognize the symptoms and presentations of rheumatoid arthritis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      101.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman visits a gynaecologist to discuss her options for contraception. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits a gynaecologist to discuss her options for contraception. The doctor suggests the insertion of a copper-bearing intrauterine device (IUD) and explains its mechanism of action and potential risks. What is the frequency of uterine perforations as a complication of IUD placement?

      Your Answer: 1 in 100 000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 1000

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risks and Mechanisms of Copper-Bearing IUDs

      Copper-bearing intrauterine devices (IUDs) are a popular form of reversible contraception that work through various mechanisms, including thickening cervical mucous, inhibiting sperm mobility, and reducing the likelihood of implantation. However, there are absolute contraindications to their use, such as pregnancy or recent childbirth, irregular vaginal bleeding, and gynecological cancer. Complications can include bleeding, pain, infection, discharge, and rare occurrences of uterine perforation, pelvic infection, expulsion, and ectopic pregnancy. The risk of uterine perforation is quoted as 1 in 1000 insertions, making it a rare but important consideration for those considering copper-bearing IUDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss. Despite feeling well, he is worried about his ability to drive and grade his students' math assignments. He has no medical history but has a smoking history of 25 packs per year and does not drink alcohol. During the examination, drusen is observed and visual acuity is reduced. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravitreal anti-VEGF agents

      Correct Answer: High-dose beta-carotene and vitamins C and E

      Explanation:

      The use of high-dose corticosteroids is not recommended for the treatment of wet or dry AMD due to their anti-inflammatory properties, which are not effective in managing the disease. Additionally, these drugs can cause side effects such as cataracts and glaucoma. High-dose vitamin D and omegas 3 and 6 are also not associated with the treatment of dry AMD. Antioxidants such as beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc have been shown to slow the progression of dry AMD by approximately 25 percent. Intravitreal anti-VEGF agents are used to manage wet AMD, which is characterized by rapid onset and the growth of abnormal, leaky vessels in the subretinal space. The goal of intravitreal treatment is to slow the progression of the disease, but it is not indicated for the management of dry AMD.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a cycling accident where...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a cycling accident where he fell a few hours ago. He is holding onto his right shoulder and appears to be in significant pain. The patient denies experiencing any fever or other systemic symptoms, and there is no visible redness around the joint. An anteroposterior x-ray is performed, revealing that the humeral head has become dislodged from the glenoid cavity of the scapula anteriorly. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kocher-technique reduction

      Explanation:

      For selected patients with a recent anterior shoulder dislocation, the Kocher technique can be used for shoulder reduction without the need for analgesia or sedation. This technique involves bending the affected arm at the elbow, pressing it against the body, and rotating it outwards until resistance is felt. The arm is then lifted in the sagittal plane as far as possible forwards and slowly turned inwards. Intra-articular lidocaine and intravenous morphine are not necessary for this procedure. Shoulder immobilisation may be considered after immediate reduction, but timely management is crucial to prevent unstable reduction and damage to neurovascular structures.

      Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.

      There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with urinary retention. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with urinary retention. Upon examination, a catheter is inserted and 900 ml of residual urine is drained. The patient also complains of upper back pain over the spinal vertebrae. The patient has a history of metastatic prostate cancer and has recently started treatment. What type of prostate cancer treatment is the patient likely receiving?

      Your Answer: Prostate radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Goserelin (GnRH agonist)

      Explanation:

      Starting management for metastatic prostate cancer with GnRH agonists may lead to a phenomenon called tumour flare, which can cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. This was observed in a 78-year-old man who presented with urinary retention and bone pain after recently starting treatment. GnRH agonists work by overstimulating the hormone cascade to suppress testosterone production, which initially causes an increase in testosterone levels before subsequent suppression. Bicalutamide is not the best answer as it does not cause the testosterone surge seen with GnRH agonist use. Bilateral orchidectomy is not typically associated with tumour flare as it aims to rapidly decrease testosterone levels. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, may be a better option as they avoid the risk of tumour flare by avoiding the testosterone surge.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.8
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  • Question 11 - A 24-year-old male victim of an acid attack has been brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male victim of an acid attack has been brought to the resus department. He has sustained burns on approximately 25% of his body surface area and weighs 60kg. The medical team needs to determine the amount of fluid resuscitation required for the next 24 hours using the Parkland formula based on his weight and the extent of burns. What is the volume of fluid resuscitation that should be administered to this patient over the next 24 hours?

      Your Answer: 3000mls

      Correct Answer: 6000mls

      Explanation:

      Fluid Resuscitation for Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.

      The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.

      It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in walking. He first noticed the onset of symptoms around eight months ago and has been finding it increasingly difficult to walk, although he has no problems in standing still. He has also noticed that he often loses his balance and feels rather unsteady of late. He has been researching his symptoms online and is worried that he may have Parkinson's disease.
      With regard to Parkinson's disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) occurs as a result of degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a type of motor neurone disease (MND) that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex. MND is a progressive disorder that leads to only motor deficits and affects middle-aged individuals, with a slight predominance in males. Neuronal loss occurs at all levels of the motor system, from the cortex to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The prognosis for MND is poor, with a mean survival of 3-5 years from disease onset. Management is mainly symptomatic and requires a multidisciplinary approach, with early involvement of palliative care. The only licensed pharmacological agent in the UK is riluzole, which can increase survival by 3 months. Physical signs include both upper and lower motor neurone signs, with patients often developing prominent fasciculations. Sensation remains entirely intact, as this disease only affects motor neurones.

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      74.7
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms of diarrhea. He has been experiencing profuse watery diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain for the past week. He has been going to the toilet approximately 10 times a day and occasionally feels nauseated, but has not vomited. He has lost around 5 kg in weight due to this illness. On examination, he has a temperature of 37.7°C and appears slightly dehydrated. There is some slight tenderness on abdominal examination, but no specific abnormalities are detected. PR examination reveals watery, brown feces. What investigation would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Correct Answer: Stool microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Giardiasis in Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common condition that can occur when travelling to different parts of the world. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from giardiasis, which is caused by a parasite that can be found in contaminated water or food. The best way to diagnose giardiasis is through microscopic examination of the faeces, where cysts may be seen. However, in some cases, chronic disease may occur, and cysts may not be found in the faeces. In such cases, a duodenal aspirate or biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

      The treatment for giardiasis is metronidazole, which is an antibiotic that is effective against the parasite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal bleeding for the past 2 weeks. What would be your initial investigation in the clinic?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      TVUS is the recommended initial investigation for PMB, unless there are contraindications. This is because it provides the most accurate measurement of endometrial thickness, which is crucial in determining if the bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding

      Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.

      To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.

      Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining of severe pain and discoloration in his right leg. He reports feeling pins and needles in the same leg, and the pain is present even when he is at rest. Upon examination, you notice that his right foot is pale, cold, and painful to the touch. You cannot feel any palpable pedal pulses. The patient has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes mellitus, and is a current smoker. What initial investigation should be performed to aid in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bedside handheld doppler

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, such as pain, pallor, pulselessness, a perishingly cold limb, paresthesia, and paralysis, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be the first-line investigation. This quick and easy test can be performed at the bedside and can help diagnose acute limb ischaemia by detecting an absent or reduced signal. Other investigations, such as ABPI, CT angiogram, and invasive angiography, may not be as readily available or appropriate for immediate use in an emergency situation. While ABPI is useful for assessing peripheral arterial perfusion in chronic peripheral arterial disease, it does not identify the site of arterial occlusion in acute limb ischaemia. CT angiogram and invasive angiography may be necessary to provide more detailed imaging and locate the arterial occlusion, but they are not the first-line investigation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old primiparous woman is 33+6 weeks pregnant. At her last antenatal appointment,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primiparous woman is 33+6 weeks pregnant. At her last antenatal appointment, she had a blood pressure reading of 152/101 mmHg. She mentions experiencing some swelling in her hands and feet but denies any other symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no protein. She has a history of asthma, which she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed, and depression, for which she discontinued her medication upon becoming pregnant. What is the optimal course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral methyldopa

      Correct Answer: Oral nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Gestational hypertension is a condition where a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without significant protein in the urine. This woman has moderate gestational hypertension, with her systolic blood pressure ranging between 150-159 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ranging between 100-109 mmHg.

      Typically, moderate gestational hypertension does not require hospitalization and can be treated with oral labetalol. However, as this woman has a history of asthma, labetalol is not recommended. Instead, NICE guidelines suggest nifedipine or methyldopa as alternatives. Methyldopa is not recommended for patients with depression, so the best option for this woman is oral nifedipine, which is a calcium channel blocker.

      In cases of eclampsia, IV magnesium sulphate is necessary. It’s important to note that lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is not safe for use during pregnancy.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.4
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and worries she is a bad mother. Her midwife reassures her that this is most likely postpartum blues or ‘baby blues’.
      What is the incidence of this condition in new mothers?

      Your Answer: 1-5%

      Correct Answer: 50-75%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders: From Baby Blues to Postpartum Psychosis

      Postpartum mood disorders are common among new mothers, but they can range from mild and transient to severe and potentially life-threatening. The most common form of postpartum mood disorder is postpartum blues, which affects an estimated 50-75% of mothers in the days following childbirth. Symptoms include crying, fatigue, anxiety, irritability, and labile mood, and typically last from hours to a few days. Postpartum blues is thought to be caused by hormonal changes in the body after labor and can be managed with supportive, non-pharmacological measures.

      Postpartum depression is a more serious condition that can occur up to a year after birth and affects 10-15% of pregnancies. It is similar to major depression and requires screening by midwives and at the 6-week postnatal check. The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a screening questionnaire used to identify women with postnatal depression, and it is important to follow up with mothers who may be depressed on a regular basis.

      Postpartum psychosis is a rare but very serious mental health condition that usually develops in the days or weeks following childbirth and affects 0.1-0.5% of mothers. Symptoms may include mania, severe depression, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, and delusions. It is a medical emergency and typically requires inpatient psychiatric treatment.

      Understanding the different types of postpartum mood disorders and their symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37.8
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of bone pain that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of bone pain that has been bothering him for a few weeks. He has also noticed a decline in his hearing ability lately. Upon examination, his blood work reveals an isolated increase in alkaline phosphate levels. Based on this information, which bone is most likely causing his pain?

      Your Answer: Humerus

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the bone typically impacts the skull, spine/pelvis, and the long bones in the lower extremities.

      Based on the symptoms presented, it is likely that this patient is suffering from Paget’s disease of the bone. A helpful way to remember which bones are most commonly affected by this condition is to imagine a line running down the center of the patient’s body. The bones on either side of this line, including the skull, vertebral bones, pelvis, femur, and tibia, are frequently impacted by Paget’s disease. In contrast, the radius, humerus, carpal bones, and rib bones are less commonly affected.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.6
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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever and headache accompanied by a change in personality. During fundal examination, papilloedema is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontal bone osteomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe abscess

      Explanation:

      Sinusitis and Brain Abscess

      A previous occurrence of sinusitis can increase the likelihood of developing a brain abscess. Symptoms of a brain abscess include headache and fever, with papilloedema being present in most cases. Additionally, frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.9
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward after the placenta is delivered. The examination shows a minor tear on the perineum without any muscle involvement. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Suture in theatre

      Correct Answer: No repair required

      Explanation:

      A first-degree perineal tear typically does not need suturing.

      In the case of this woman, she has a first-degree perineal tear that only affects the surface of the perineum and does not involve any muscles. Therefore, no repair is necessary as these types of tears usually heal on their own.

      The answer glue on the ward is incorrect because first-degree perineal tears do not require closure and should be left to heal naturally. Additionally, glue is not suitable for use in the perineal area and is only appropriate for small, straight, superficial, low-tension wounds.

      Similarly, staples in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears do not require repair and will heal on their own. Staples are not recommended for use in the perineal region.

      The answer suture in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears typically do not require suturing and can be left to heal on their own. If suturing is necessary for a first-degree tear, it can be done on the ward by a trained practitioner. Only third or fourth-degree tears require repair in a theatre setting under regional or general anaesthesia.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.1
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  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. No other injuries are found during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      This individual displays physical indications and a recent injury that are consistent with fat embolism syndrome. In the early stages, meningococcal sepsis is not commonly linked to hypoxia. Likewise, pyrexia is not typically associated with pulmonary emboli.

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she has recently discovered she is pregnant. She is overjoyed and eager to proceed with the pregnancy. Currently, she is 6 weeks pregnant and feels fine without symptoms. She has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. Her urine dip is negative. She has heard that taking vitamin D and folic acid supplements can increase her chances of having a healthy pregnancy. What is the most advisable regimen for her in this situation?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D 400 IU daily, and folic acid 5mg daily, both throughout the pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D 400IU daily throughout the pregnancy, and folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who are obese (with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m²) should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended that all pregnant women take 400 IU of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, folic acid should be taken daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, with the dosage depending on the presence of risk factors for neural tube defects such as spina bifida. If there are no risk factors, the dose is 400 micrograms daily, but if risk factors are present, the dose should be increased to 5 mg daily. As maternal obesity is a risk factor for neural tube defects, pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m² should take the higher dose of folic acid.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - A new biomarker test is developed to detect breast cancer at early stages....

    Incorrect

    • A new biomarker test is developed to detect breast cancer at early stages. The company that developed the test conducted a randomised study to compare the new test to the current standard of care – mammography – among women over 40. They concluded that breast cancer patients whose cancer was identified by the biomarker lived, on average, 1.5 years longer than those whose cancers were identified by mammography. Subsequently, additional independent studies showed that there was truly no difference in survival between the two groups.

      Which of the following biases is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Insensitive test

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Potential Biases in a Study Comparing Breast Cancer Detection Methods

      Breast cancer detection methods can be compared using various measures, including lead time bias, confounding, selection bias, measurement error, and insensitive tests. Lead time bias occurs when a disease is detected earlier, but patients live for the same duration they would have lived if the disease had been detected later. Confounding can be reduced by randomizing patients to the detection method received. Selection bias can be minimized by randomizing patients to the detection method received. Measurement error can occur if the new biomarker is an insensitive test. If the new biomarker is an insensitive test, the results would likely favor mammography, rather than showing an increased survival time with biomarker detection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the edge of a roof by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the edge of a roof by a trained practitioner and then left there for as long as possible until she overcomes her phobia of heights.

      What sort of behavioural therapy is this?

      Your Answer: Graded exposure

      Correct Answer: Flooding

      Explanation:

      Behavioural Therapies: Techniques for Overcoming Fears and Habits

      Behavioural therapies are a set of techniques used to treat various mental health conditions. These therapies aim to modify an individual’s behaviour by exposing them to their fears or habits and gradually desensitising them to the stimuli. Here are some common behavioural therapies:

      1. Flooding: This therapy involves exposing an individual directly to their worst fear to trigger desensitisation.

      2. Graded Exposure: Also known as systematic desensitisation, this therapy involves exposing the patient to the feared stimulus for progressively longer amounts of time or from a ‘virtual’ to a real exposure in an attempt to overcome the fear.

      3. Relaxation Training: This therapy involves activities that allow the individual to calm or relax in the exposed situation.

      4. Aversion Therapy: This therapy is used in the management of habits such as alcoholism and smoking. It involves exposing the individual to the behaviour while simultaneously evoking a noxious and/or painful stimulus to develop an aversion to the behaviour.

      5. Exposure Response Therapy: This therapy is often used as an effective treatment for OCD. It involves gradually increasing exposure to uncomfortable stimuli to build a tolerance and reduce anxiety that feeds obsessions and compulsions.

      Overall, behavioural therapies can be effective in treating various mental health conditions and helping individuals overcome their fears and habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of excessive sweating, palpitations, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of excessive sweating, palpitations, and weight loss. She now complains of a headache. On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. She has a bounding pulse of 115 bpm, a tremor, and appears pale. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which hormone is most likely responsible for her symptoms and signs?

      Your Answer: Renin

      Correct Answer: Catecholamines

      Explanation:

      Explanation of Hormones and their Role in Hypertension

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and causes malignant hypertension. Excess cortisol production in Cushing’s syndrome can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Renin abnormalities can lead to hypertension, but it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hyperaldosteronism can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Although hyperthyroidism can explain most of the patient’s symptoms, it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, the patient’s symptoms are most likely due to the secretion of catecholamines from the phaeochromocytoma tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      35.1
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department in a distressed state. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department in a distressed state. He says he hears voices telling him that he is worthless and that the people talking to him know what he is doing as they are listening to his thoughts via the television and radio. His friends who attend with him tell you that he has become withdrawn over the past few months and has been missing lectures. There is a history of cannabis use but nil else of note. When he talks to you, he appears to have constructed a number of new words to describe the machines used to listen to him.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 294 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 16 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delirium tremens

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Psychosis

      Acute psychosis can have various underlying causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is essential for appropriate management. Here is a brief overview of some of the possibilities for a patient who presents with auditory hallucinations, neologisms, and odd behavior.

      Schizophrenia: This is a primary psychotic disorder characterized by Schneider’s first-rank symptoms, which include auditory hallucinations, thought insertion/withdrawal/interruption, thought broadcasting, and delusions of control. Treatment typically involves antipsychotic medications.

      Delirium tremens: This is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can cause confusion, agitation, tremors, seizures, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs in people with a history of heavy alcohol use and requires urgent medical attention.

      Manic-depressive psychosis (bipolar disorder): This is a mood disorder that can involve episodes of elevated or irritable mood (mania or hypomania) and episodes of depressed mood. Psychotic symptoms may occur during manic or mixed episodes, but not necessarily during depressive episodes.

      Amphetamine abuse: Stimulant drugs like amphetamines can induce psychosis, which may resemble schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders. A history of drug use and toxicology screening can help identify this possibility.

      Subdural hematoma: This is a type of brain injury that can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, drowsiness, and focal neurological deficits. It is less likely in the absence of a history of head trauma or abnormal findings on neurological examination, but imaging studies may be needed to rule it out.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for acute psychosis includes various psychiatric and medical conditions that require different approaches to treatment and management. A comprehensive evaluation should consider the patient’s history, symptoms, physical and neurological examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      51.9
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman visits antenatal clinic with complaints of headaches and sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman visits antenatal clinic with complaints of headaches and sudden swelling of her ankles within the past 3 days. She is currently 30+4 weeks pregnant, with a history of diabetes mellitus type II that is managed through lifestyle changes. During the examination, it was observed that the fundal height is measuring small for her gestational age. Consequently, an ultrasound scan was ordered, which revealed oligohydramnios. What is the most probable cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anencephaly

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios can be caused by pre-eclampsia, which leads to inadequate blood flow to the placenta. Polyhydramnios, on the other hand, is associated with anencephaly, diabetes mellitus, twin pregnancies, and oesophageal atresia. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is usually the cause of polyhydramnios in twin pregnancies. Foetal hyperglycaemia in diabetic mothers leads to foetal polyuria. In cases of oesophageal atresia and anencephaly, the foetus is unable to swallow the amniotic fluid.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.3
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  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old student contacts the GP telephone clinic seeking advice. Her housemate has...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student contacts the GP telephone clinic seeking advice. Her housemate has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and she has been prescribed ciprofloxacin as a preventive measure. However, she is hesitant to take it as she fears it may interfere with the effectiveness of her contraceptive pill. She has a medical history of migraine with aura, but no allergies. Although she is unsure about the type of contraceptive pill she uses, she takes it daily without any breaks. What precautions should she take regarding her contraceptive pill while taking ciprofloxacin?

      Your Answer: Take a double dose during the course

      Correct Answer: No change

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely taking the progesterone-only contraceptive pill due to her history of migraine with aura and daily use of the contraceptive pill. According to the BNF, antibacterials that do not induce liver enzymes do not affect the effectiveness of oral progesterone-only preparations. As ciprofloxacin is a cytochrome P450 inhibitor and not an inducer, the patient’s contraception is not affected, and she does not require additional barrier contraception. However, if the patient were taking rifampicin, an alternative for meningococcal contact prophylaxis, she would need to use barrier contraception during and for four weeks after stopping treatment. Rifampicin is a potent enzyme inducer, which can decrease the plasma concentration and efficacy of contraceptive pills.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      3.2
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  • Question 29 - What is the most frequent kind of kidney stone? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent kind of kidney stone?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxalate

      Explanation:

      Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Stag-horn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.7
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  • Question 30 - A 31-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of back pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past few months. The man works as a graphic designer and denies any history of heavy lifting or back trauma. An MRI of the back is ordered, which reveals a mass compressing the lumbar vertebrae. The radiology report suggests that this could be a metastatic mass, and the patient is referred to the oncology service for further evaluation. Upon diagnosis, the man is found to have testicular seminoma. What are the typical lymph nodes that this type of cancer spreads to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral aortic

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic Drainage of the Testes: Understanding the Different Nodes Involved

      The lymphatic drainage of the testes is an important aspect to consider in the diagnosis and treatment of testicular cancer. Here are the different nodes involved in the drainage process:

      Lateral Aortic Nodes: The testes (and ovaries in women) drain to the lateral aortic nodes, also known as the para-aortic nodes. These nodes cannot be palpated but can be seen on a CT scan. Nodal metastasis is part of the grading of testicular cancer using the Royal Marsden staging system.

      Inferior Mesenteric Nodes: These nodes drain structures of hindgut such as the colon, the last third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the splenic flexure, and the rectum. The testes do not drain to the inferior mesenteric nodes.

      Inguinal Nodes: Located in the groin, these nodes receive lymphatic drainage from the lower limbs, the scrotum or vulva, the perineum, the buttock, the anus below the pectinate line, and the abdominal wall. The testes do not drain to the inguinal lymph nodes.

      Internal Iliac Nodes: The common iliac nodes receive drainage from the external iliac nodes, which receive drainage from glans penis, glans clitoris, and the prostate among others. The testes do not drain to the common iliac nodes.

      External Iliac Nodes: These nodes receive drainage from glans penis, glans clitoris, and the prostate among others. The testes do not drain to the common iliac nodes. The external iliac nodes eventually drain into the common iliac nodes.

      Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the testes is crucial in determining the extent of cancer spread and in planning appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (3/6) 50%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/3) 67%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (3/4) 75%
Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Passmed