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Question 1
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A 4-year-old girl is admitted to the paediatric ward with suspected Kawasaki disease. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she had a fever lasting for 8 days, dry cracked lips, bilateral conjunctivitis, and peeling of her fingers and toes. What additional symptom would support the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cervical lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a rare condition that typically affects children under the age of 5. The diagnosis is based on the presence of a fever lasting for at least 5 days, accompanied by at least 4 of the following symptoms: dry and cracked lips, bilateral conjunctivitis, peeling of the skin on the fingers and toes, cervical lymphadenopathy, and a red rash over the trunk. It is crucial to be aware of the diagnostic criteria for this disease, as the vascular complications can be severe. Additionally, this topic may be tested on final exams.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder gives birth to a baby girl at home. She received no prenatal care, but when she found out she was pregnant, she started taking prenatal vitamins that she got from the pharmacist. Her only medication is valproic acid. It is 2 days since the birth, and the mother has brought her baby to the Emergency Department because she has become impossible to arouse. On examination, the baby is estimated to have been born at 35 weeks’ gestation. The baby is afebrile, with stable vital signs. A head ultrasound through the fontanelle shows an intracerebral haemorrhage in the germinal matrix. There are no calcifications. Retinal examination does not show petechial haemorrhages. A full skeletal survey is negative.
What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism underlying this baby’s haemorrhage?Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency
Explanation:Causes of Periventricular Hemorrhage in Neonates
Periventricular hemorrhage is a common condition in neonates that can lead to neurological damage. There are several possible causes of this condition, including vitamin K deficiency, folate deficiency from valproic acid treatment, congenital cytomegalovirus, congenital toxoplasmosis, and congenital herpes simplex virus.
Vitamin K deficiency is a natural occurrence in neonates as they do not have established gut bacteria that produce this vitamin. Vitamin K is essential for the production of clotting factors and anticoagulant proteins. Therefore, neonates born in hospitals are usually injected with vitamin K to prevent periventricular hemorrhage.
Folate deficiency from valproic acid treatment is a common cause of neural tube defects but does not lead to periventricular hemorrhage. Prenatal vitamins usually contain folate, which can prevent this deficiency.
Congenital cytomegalovirus and congenital toxoplasmosis can cause periventricular hemorrhage, but they are also accompanied by other congenital abnormalities, such as intracerebral calcifications.
Congenital herpes simplex virus can cause periventricular hemorrhage and neurological damage, but it also causes a diffuse vesicular rash and other symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
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A 9-year-old girl presents with symptoms of left knee pain. The pain has been present on most occasions for the past four months and the pain typically lasts for several hours at a time. On examination; she walks with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes Disease
Explanation:Hip pain in the 10-14 year age group can have various causes, some of which may also result in knee pain. The most common disorder is transient synovitis of the hip, but it usually does not persist for more than 3 months. An osteosarcoma typically does not cause limb shortening unless there is a pathological fracture. While a slipped upper femoral epiphysis can lead to a similar presentation, it usually occurs later and in patients with different characteristics.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about her walking and balance. The child learned to walk around 2 years old, much the same as her older brother. However, over the last few months, her dad has noticed that she has become reluctant to walk and often trips or falls when she does.
On examination, the child is of average build but has disproportionately large calves. When asked to walk across the room she does so on her tiptoes. Gowers test is positive.
What investigation is considered most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Genetic analysis
Explanation:A diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) can now be made through genetic testing instead of a muscle biopsy. The symptoms and history described strongly suggest DMD, which is a genetic disorder that causes muscle wasting and weakness. Classic features of DMD include calf hyperplasia and a positive Gowers test. Most individuals with DMD will require a wheelchair by puberty, and management is primarily conservative. CT imaging of the legs is not typically used for diagnosis, and while a high creatine kinase can indicate muscular dystrophy in children, genetic testing is more definitive. Muscle function testing is useful for monitoring disease progression but not for initial diagnosis.
Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.
The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old toddler comes to your primary care clinic after experiencing a seizure. The parents are extremely worried as one of their relatives has epilepsy and they fear that their child may have it too. Upon examination, the child seems alert and has a temperature of 38.4C, which the parents say has been present for four days. They have been giving calpol, which has helped to bring it down from a high of 40.7ºC. You also notice a pink, maculopapular rash on the chest with minimal spread to the limbs, which the mother says she noticed this morning. The child has been eating but has had some diarrhea, and you can feel some enlarged glands on the back of their head. There is no rash in the mouth. Based on your observations, what do you think is the most probable underlying cause of the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Measles
Correct Answer: Herpes virus 6
Explanation:Herpes virus 6 is responsible for causing Roseola infantum, which is identified by a high fever lasting for 3-5 days followed by a rash that appears on the chest and spreads to the limbs over a period of 2 days. This rash typically emerges as the fever subsides. Kaposi’s sarcoma is linked to Herpes virus 8 and is commonly observed in individuals with AIDS. ‘Slapped cheek syndrome’ is caused by Parvovirus B19, which initiates a rash that starts on the cheeks and then spreads. Group A Streptococcus is known to cause infections of the throat (also known as strep throat) and skin, including cellulitis, erysipelas, and impetigo.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age of 27, she had a short stature, a webbed neck and a broad, shield-like chest. She did not develop secondary sexual characteristics at the appropriate age. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders Affecting Sexual Development
Turner Syndrome, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome, and 5-α Reductase Deficiency are genetic disorders that affect sexual development.
Turner Syndrome is a condition where a woman is missing a whole or part of an X chromosome. This can cause delayed puberty, failure to develop normal secondary sexual characteristics, and cardiovascular abnormalities.
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. This can cause ambiguous genitalia at birth and symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome in women, and hyperpigmentation in men.
Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where men carry an extra X chromosome. This can cause tall stature, hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, and delayed motor and language development.
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is a condition where patients with a male karyotype fail to respond to androgen hormones and thus develop female external genitalia and characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.
5-α Reductase Deficiency is a condition associated with an inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to abnormal sexual development and infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman brings her 8-week-old baby to an emergency GP appointment. The mother reports that her baby is extremely fussy in the evenings, crying incessantly and pulling up their legs. The baby was delivered vaginally at full term and is exclusively breastfed. The baby's weight is normal and there are no other health concerns. Upon examination, everything appears to be normal. What course of action would you suggest?
Your Answer: Reassurance and support
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.
Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) by her parents due to a painful knee. The knee is swollen, red, hot, and tender. The patient experiences extreme pain when the joint is moved, and resists any attempts to flex it passively. Upon examination, you notice a cut on the affected knee, which the parents explain was caused by a fall on the playground. The patient has a mild fever but is otherwise healthy, without other areas of pain or additional joint involvement.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Knee Pain and Inflammation
Upon examination of a patient with knee pain and inflammation, several differential diagnoses should be considered. Septic arthritis is a likely possibility, especially if the patient has a recent cut or injury that could have allowed infective organisms to enter the joint. Non-accidental injury (NAI) should also be considered, although in this case, it is unlikely given the patient’s age, single injury, and relevant history. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), Osgood–Schlatter’s disease, and patellofemoral pain syndrome are less likely possibilities, as they typically present with different symptoms than what is observed in this patient. Overall, a thorough examination and consideration of all possible diagnoses is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat knee pain and inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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You are requested to assess a preterm neonate in the neonatal unit. During the examination of the palate, you observe a white nodule on the roof of the mouth. The baby is alert and active, and there is no interference with feeding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epstein's pearl
Explanation:Epstein’s pearls, which are located in the middle of the posterior hard palate, can be mistaken for neonatal teeth. However, unlike neonatal teeth, Epstein’s pearls do not need any treatment. Bohn’s nodules, on the other hand, are situated on the inner labial aspect of the maxillary alveolar ridges. Dermoid cysts, which may contain teeth, are not commonly found in the oral cavity. Oral candida infection can manifest as white patches on the interior of the mouth.
Understanding Epstein’s Pearl
Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks
Explanation:If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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An emergency call is made for a 10-year-old boy who has collapsed in the waiting room. The receptionists have already called 999. After 10 seconds, there are no signs of respiration and the boy does not respond to stimulation. There is no apparent foreign object in his mouth. What should be the next appropriate action?
Your Answer: Give 5 rescue breaths
Explanation:The current guidelines for paediatric basic life support still prioritize rescue breaths, despite the shift in focus for adult cases. This is because most cases of paediatric cardiac arrest are caused by issues with the airway or breathing. It is recommended to administer 5 rescue breaths if the child shows no signs of breathing during initial assessment.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm. His parents are worried about his growth. His last three recorded heights have been between the 0.4th and 2nd centile. His mother is 160 cm tall and his father is 175 cm tall. He has no other health issues.
What could be the probable reason for his short stature?Your Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Familial Short Stature in Children
Children who have short parents and are otherwise healthy may have familial short stature. This means that their height and weight fall within the expected range based on their parents’ heights, and growth charts can be used to predict their adult height. In the case of a girl with familial short stature, her predicted adult height would be 154 cm, which falls within the mid-parental range of heights. Delayed puberty would cause a failure to gain height at the beginning of puberty and crossing of height centiles, while inadequate nutrition would cause crossing of both height and weight centiles. Low birth weight can also cause short stature in children, but in the absence of any other history, familial short stature is the most likely explanation. Precocious puberty, on the other hand, causes children to be tall for their age at the onset of puberty, not short.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is presented to the clinic by his mother who has observed a tiny lesion at the outer corner of his eye. During the examination, a small cystic structure is noticed which appears to have been recently infected. Upon removing the scab, hair is visible within the lesion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:Dermoid cysts typically develop in children and are found at locations where embryonic fusion occurred. These cysts can contain various types of cells. It is improbable that the growth in question is a desmoid cyst, as they rarely occur in this age group or at this location, and do not contain hair. Sebaceous cysts usually have a small opening and contain a cheesy substance, while epidermoid cysts contain keratin plugs.
Dermoid Cysts vs. Desmoid Tumours
Dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours are two distinct medical conditions that should not be confused with each other. Dermoid cysts are cutaneous growths that usually appear in areas where embryonic development has occurred. They are commonly found in the midline of the neck, behind the ear, and around the eyes. Dermoid cysts are characterized by multiple inclusions, such as hair follicles, that protrude from their walls. In contrast, desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be classified as low-grade fibrosarcomas. They often present as large infiltrative masses and can be found in different parts of the body.
Desmoid tumours can be divided into three types: abdominal, extra-abdominal, and intra-abdominal. All types share the same biological features and can be challenging to treat. Extra-abdominal desmoids are equally common in both sexes and usually develop in the musculature of the shoulder, chest wall, back, and thigh. Abdominal desmoids, on the other hand, tend to arise in the musculoaponeurotic structures of the abdominal wall. Intra-abdominal desmoids are more likely to occur in the mesentery or pelvic side walls and are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli syndrome.
In summary, while dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours may sound similar, they are entirely different conditions. Dermoid cysts are benign growths that usually occur in specific areas of the body, while desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be found in different parts of the body and can be challenging to treat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old boy has been experiencing vomiting after feeds. His mother reports that he is extremely hungry, but shortly after consuming food, he has an episode of projectile vomiting. The vomit does not contain blood, bile or feces. Upon examination, a mass is detected in the epigastrium that is approximately the size of a small grape.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infantile pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Common Congenital Abnormalities of the Gastrointestinal Tract in Infants
Infants can experience various congenital abnormalities of the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to serious health complications. Here are some of the most common abnormalities and their characteristics:
Infantile Pyloric Stenosis
This condition occurs due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric muscle, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. Symptoms include non-bilious projectile vomiting within half an hour from feeding and failure to thrive. Diagnosis is via ultrasound, and treatment involves Ramstedt pyloromyotomy.Meckel’s Diverticulum
This is the most common congenital abnormality of the small intestine, caused by persistence of the vitelline duct. Patients are usually asymptomatic, but can present with painless rectal bleeding, signs of obstruction, or acute appendicitis-like symptoms. Treatment involves excision of the diverticulum and adjacent ileal segment.Malrotation of the Small Intestine with Volvulus
This occurs due to disrupted development of the bowel during the embryonic period. It can present acutely as a volvulus with abdominal pain and bilious vomiting. Treatment involves surgical intervention.Hirschsprung’s Disease
This is a congenital disorder caused by absent ganglia in the distal colon, resulting in functional obstruction. Infants present within the first 48 hours of life, having not passed meconium. Diagnosis is via rectal biopsy, and treatment involves surgical intervention.Imperforate Anus
This is a congenital malformation occurring with an incidence of 1 in 5000 births. Infants may have abdominal distension and fail to produce meconium. Treatment involves intravenous hydration and surgical evaluation.In conclusion, early diagnosis and prompt treatment of these congenital abnormalities are crucial for the health and well-being of infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was a forceps delivery at 41+3 weeks’ gestation. The detailed examination is normal, except you notice slight reduced tone in the right leg and reduced Moro reflex on the right. The leg is resting in a slightly extended position. The examination is otherwise normal.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to physiotherapy
Explanation:Assessing Erb’s Palsy in a Neonate: Appropriate Management and Investigations
Erb’s palsy is a neurological condition that commonly presents as reduced tone and movement in one arm, often due to shoulder dystocia during birth. In neonates, this can be identified by reduced Moro reflex and the arm resting in a waiter’s tip position. While Erb’s palsy is self-resolving, physiotherapy is recommended to strengthen the affected arm.
If there are no other neurological deficits, referral to a Paediatric Neurologist is not necessary. Cranial ultrasound and head MRI are also not appropriate investigations as they do not provide relevant information for this condition. Similarly, a shoulder X-ray is not necessary as the issue is neurological in nature. Overall, appropriate management and investigations for Erb’s palsy in a neonate involve physiotherapy and observation for resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A seven-week-old baby presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of feeding difficulties and worsening respiratory distress. The infant has no significant medical history. During examination, a precordial ejection systolic murmur is heard and the lips appear bluish in color. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of fallot
Explanation:TGA is a type of cyanotic congenital heart disease that presents within the first few days of life, while TOF typically presents at 1-2 months of age. In this case, the infant’s symptoms of decompensated heart disease with cyanosis rule out VSD, coarctation, and PDA, leaving TGA and TOF as possible diagnoses. The timing of the presentation suggests TGA as the more likely option, as it is duct dependent and presents early after birth. TOF, on the other hand, typically occurs later as the RV hypertrophy increases and causes a right to left shunt. TOF is characterized by VSD, RV hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, and an overriding aorta, with a boot-shaped heart on chest x-ray and RVH on ECG. Treatment involves surgical repair around 6 months of age and management of cyanotic spells with b-blockers.
Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy comes to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of epistaxis and mucosal bleeding during tooth brushing. He has no significant medical history except for a cold he had 3 weeks ago. Upon examination, his vital signs are normal, but he has multiple bruises and petechiae on his upper and lower limbs. The following laboratory tests were ordered: Hb 140 g/L (135-180), Platelets 33 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:When a child presents with petechiae and no fever, ITP should be considered as a possible diagnosis. ITP is an autoimmune disorder that causes thrombocytopenia without any identifiable cause. It is most commonly found in children and women and often follows a viral illness. Symptoms include mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, petechiae, and bruising.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as the patient’s normal haemoglobin and white cell count do not suggest malignancy.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is also unlikely, as there is no evidence of unregulated bleeding or thrombosis triggered by trauma, sepsis, obstetric disorders, or malignancy.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is another possible diagnosis, but the lack of additional symptoms and the presence of bruising and easy bleeding make ITP more likely. HSP is a form of IgA vasculitis that causes a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, and arthralgia, and is commonly triggered by a viral infection. Most cases of HSP are self-limiting or resolve with symptomatic treatment.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a cough and noisy breathing after experiencing coryzal symptoms for 2 days. Upon examination, she has intercostal recession, a cough, and harsh vibrating noise during inspiration. Although she is afebrile, her symptoms are concerning. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child has been referred by their GP due to chronic constipation that is not responding to treatment. What specific details in the child's medical history could suggest a possible diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Passage of meconium at day 3
Explanation:When a baby has difficulty passing stool, it may be a sign of Hirschsprung’s disease, a condition where nerve cells in the colon are missing. This disease is more common in males and can be diagnosed through a biopsy. It is important to note that not all babies with delayed passage have this disease. Hirschsprung’s disease can also present in later childhood, so it is important to ask about the timing of symptoms in children with chronic constipation or obstruction. This disease is associated with MEN 2A/B, not MEN1, and meconium ileus is a common differential. Pyloric stenosis is associated with non-bilious vomiting, while a temperature is not a factor in suggesting Hirschsprung’s disease.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to their GP due to family concerns over the child's development. They were born at term via vaginal delivery, without complications. The child is otherwise well, without past medical history.
What developmental milestone would be most anticipated in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pass objects from one hand to another
Explanation:A 6-month-old boy was brought to the GP by his family who were concerned about his development. The GP tested his developmental milestones and found that he was able to hold objects with palmar grasp and pass objects from one hand to another. However, the child was not yet able to build a tower of 2 bricks, have a good pincer grip, or show a hand preference, which are expected milestones for older children. The GP reassured the family that the child’s development was within the normal range for his age.
Developmental Milestones for Fine Motor and Vision Skills
Fine motor and vision skills are important developmental milestones for infants and young children. These skills are crucial for their physical and cognitive development. The following tables provide a summary of the major milestones for fine motor and vision skills.
At three months, infants can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow objects up to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They are visually insatiable, looking around in every direction.
At nine months, infants can point with their finger and demonstrate an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have developed a good pincer grip and can bang toys together and stack bricks.
As children grow older, their fine motor skills continue to develop. By 15 months, they can build a tower of two blocks, and by 18 months, they can build a tower of three blocks. By two years old, they can build a tower of six blocks, and by three years old, they can build a tower of nine blocks. They also begin to draw, starting with circular scribbles at 18 months and progressing to copying vertical lines at two years old, circles at three years old, crosses at four years old, and squares and triangles at five years old.
In addition to fine motor skills, children’s vision skills also develop over time. At 15 months, they can look at a book and pat the pages. By 18 months, they can turn several pages at a time, and by two years old, they can turn one page at a time.
It is important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. Overall, these developmental milestones for fine motor and vision skills are important indicators of a child’s growth and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable method to confirm a diagnosis of pertussis in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Per nasal swab
Explanation:Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father with concerns about a rash that appeared after a recent fever, just as she was starting to recover. During the examination, you observe numerous pink-red papules and macules (2-5 mm in size) spread across her trunk, which disappear when touched. The child does not seem bothered by the rash and appears to be in good health with normal vital signs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Roseola
Explanation:Roseola infantum, also known as ‘sixth disease’, is a common illness among children aged 6 months to 2 years. It is characterized by a fever followed by a non-itchy, painless, maculopapular rash that mainly affects the trunk. Febrile seizures are also common. The illness is caused by the human herpes virus type 6B or 7, and no treatment is required. Long-term complications are rare.
Chickenpox, hand, foot and mouth disease, measles, and rubella are all differential diagnoses that can be ruled out based on the specific characteristics of their respective rashes and accompanying symptoms.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A baby born to a 28-year-old woman has ambiguous genitalia on examination; the rest of the physical examination is normal. Genotype is determined to be XY. The testes are retained within the abdominal cavity, and the internal reproductive tracts exhibit the normal male phenotype.
What could be the possible cause of this abnormal development?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5α-reductase deficiency
Explanation:There are several conditions that can affect the development of male reproductive organs. 5α-reductase deficiency is a congenital absence of 5α-reductase, which is necessary for the production of dihydrotestosterone. Without dihydrotestosterone, the external genitalia may not develop properly, resulting in feminization. Testicular dysgenesis can also lead to poor development of the testes and decreased secretion of testosterone, which can cause feminization of the external genitalia and female-type internal tracts. 17α-hydroxylase deficiency prevents the synthesis of testosterone, leading to feminization of the external genitalia and degeneration of the Wolffian ducts. Complete androgen resistance results in feminization of the external genitalia, but neither male nor female internal tracts develop. Sertoli-only syndrome occurs when only Sertoli cells are present, leading to absent spermatogenesis and increased FSH levels. This can result in both male and female internal tracts due to the absence of the Müllerian regression factor, but normal testosterone secretion allows for the development of male-type external genitalia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small body, and low-set ears. During the examination, the pediatrician also observes a flat philtrum, a sunken nasal bridge, short palpebral fissures, and a thin upper lip. What could be the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal alcohol abuse
Explanation:Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a mother abuses alcohol during pregnancy. This can lead to various physical and developmental abnormalities in the fetus, including intrauterine growth restriction, small head size, underdeveloped midface, small jaw, a smooth ridge between the nose and upper lip, small eye openings, and a thin upper lip. Affected infants may also exhibit irritability and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A premature neonate is delivered via category II emergency caesarean section at 34+3 weeks for fetal distress. The obstetrician notes the baby is delivered with the cord wrapped around its neck and appears floppy and 'blue'. The neonatal team immediately begins resuscitation as the initial APGAR score is 3. At 10 minutes, the score is 5 due to cyanosis, heart rate of 120 bpm, minimal response to stimulation, poor tone, slow and irregular respiratory effort with a respiratory rate of 12/min. What is the most appropriate management of this premature neonate to reduce hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Therapeutic cooling
Explanation:Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury
Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.
The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.
Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident physician identifies that the sound occurs during inhalation. What is the primary reason for stridor in a newborn?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:1 – Children between 6 months and 3 years old are typically affected by croup.
2 – Stridor is a common symptom of Epiglottitis in children aged 2-4 years, although the introduction of the H. influenzae vaccine has almost eliminated this condition.
4 – Bronchiolitis often affects individuals between 3 and 6 months old.
5 – No information provided.Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought into resus in cardiac arrest. The patient was brought in by ambulance with her father. He is too distraught to give any history other than the child had been okay when he had left the room. She was found unconscious on his return so an ambulance was called.
Which of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest are most likely in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoxia
Explanation:Respiratory arrest is the most frequent reason for children’s arrest, with hypoxia being the probable cause in this case. Choking incidents are a common cause of collapse and arrest in young children who are able to walk, particularly toddlers, due to their age and the absence of a clear history for another cause. Hypovolaemia and tension pneumothorax are less likely since there is no indication of trauma in the history, and hypothermia is not a factor.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He is concerned about an umbilical hernia that Lily has had since birth. He was told that it would likely go away on its own, but it has not yet resolved. The pediatrician conducts an examination and finds a 1.5 cm umbilical hernia that is easily reducible. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this, according to the guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delaying referral for elective outpatient surgical repair until 5 years of age, if still unresolved
Explanation:According to medical guidelines, umbilical hernias in children usually close on their own by the age of 4-5. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or is large and causing symptoms, surgical repair is recommended. In the case of a small hernia in a 3-year-old child, observation is appropriate until the age of 5. If the hernia becomes incarcerated, it should be manually reduced and surgically repaired within 24 hours. The use of compression therapy after surgery is not recommended. Waiting for the hernia to self-resolve after the age of 5 is not advised as it is unlikely to happen and could lead to incarceration. These recommendations are based on BMJ Best Practice guidelines.
Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment
Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.
Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.
In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked to quickly assess the current APGAR score. The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely. What is the current APGAR score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A paediatrician is called to assess a 3-day-old neonate born at 37+2 weeks gestation due to concerns in the newborn physical examination. The neonate has absent fundal reflexes bilaterally and a loud machinery murmur is heard on auscultation. Automated otoacoustic emission suggests sensorineural deafness. The mother recently arrived from overseas where she was unable to access antenatal care. In the first trimester, she had an exanthematous rash on her trunk, but the pregnancy was otherwise unremarkable. What is the likely diagnosis for this neonate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome
Explanation:Congenital rubella syndrome is the correct answer, as it is known to cause both sensorineural deafness and congenital cataracts. Although rubella has been eliminated in many Western countries due to vaccination, it is still prevalent in some African, Middle Eastern, and Southeast Asian countries. Rubella may present with a non-specific viral rash, similar to the one described in this patient. Congenital rubella syndrome is also associated with a patent ductus arteriosus, which can cause a machinery murmur.
Alport syndrome is not the correct answer, as it is associated with congenital sensorineural hearing loss but not with congenital cataracts. Alport syndrome is also linked to renal impairment and nephritic syndrome.
Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is not the correct answer, as it is associated with congenital sensorineural deafness but not typically with congenital cataracts. Congenital CMV infection may also cause cerebral palsy, anemia, and jaundice.
Congenital toxoplasmosis infection is not the correct answer, as it would not typically present with sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, or a patent ductus arteriosus. Congenital toxoplasmosis infection is known to cause cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, and hydrocephalus.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three major congenital infections that are commonly encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections has characteristic features that can help with diagnosis. Rubella can cause congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease, among other things. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, cerebral palsy, and visual impairment, among other things. Cytomegalovirus can cause microcephaly, cerebral calcification, and chorioretinitis, among other things.
It is important to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent or minimize health problems for the newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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