00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 63-year-old woman has been experiencing vomiting for the past day due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman has been experiencing vomiting for the past day due to food poisoning. What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Balance in Vomiting

      There are two possible approaches to the acid-base balance in vomiting. The first, more simplistic way is to assume that since the vomit is acidic, the body is losing acid. However, this is not the whole story. Vomiting also results in the loss of sodium, which triggers the sodium-/H+ antiporters in the kidneys to retain sodium at the expense of hydrogen ions. As a result, the body experiences a metabolic alkalosis, which is characterized by an increase in pH and a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration.

      To compensate for this alkalosis, the patient’s respiratory rate would decrease, allowing the body to retain more CO2 and create a compensatory respiratory acidosis. This mechanism helps to restore the acid-base balance in the body and prevent any further disruptions. Overall, vomiting can have a significant impact on the body’s acid-base balance, and it is important to understand these mechanisms to provide appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population. Over a five-year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. Among the placebo group, 150 patients experienced myocardial infarctions, while the group treated with the new statin had 100 infarctions. What is the percentage reduction in relative risk of MI provided by the statin therapy?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 33%

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk Reduction

      Relative risk reduction is a measure of the effectiveness of a therapy in reducing the risk of an event occurring in a treated group compared to a control group. It provides valuable information about the efficacy of a treatment and the expected reduction in risk when treating subjects. The formula for calculating relative risk reduction is (CER – EER)/CER, where CER is the control group event rate and EER is the experimental group event rate.

      For instance, if there were 50 fewer myocardial infarctions (MIs) in the treated group than in the placebo-treated group, the relative risk reduction would be 33%. This information is crucial in determining the significance of the data and the effectiveness of the treatment. relative risk reduction is essential in evaluating the efficacy of a therapy and making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A study has shown that the chance of a heart attack in people...

    Correct

    • A study has shown that the chance of a heart attack in people over 50 is 3% and that the chance of a heart attack in people under 50 is 1%. The study states that the percentage change in the probability of a heart attack occurring due to age is 200%. Which of the following best describes the name of the calculation that the study has performed?

      Your Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      Different Risk Calculations

      When it comes to calculating the effectiveness of a treatment, there are several different risk calculations to consider. One of these is relative risk, which measures the proportion of strokes that would be prevented by a particular treatment. Absolute risk, on the other hand, looks at the proportion of all patients who would benefit from the treatment. For example, if a treatment reduces the risk of stroke by 2%, the relative risk would be 2%, while the absolute risk would also be 2%.

      Another important calculation is the number needed to treat, which indicates how many patients would need to receive the treatment in order for one of them to benefit. In the above example, the number needed to treat would be 50. It’s important to note that this is not the same as a percentage, as it represents a ratio rather than a proportion.

      Finally, sensitivity and specificity are calculations used to determine the accuracy of test results, and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a treatment. By these different risk calculations, healthcare professionals can better evaluate the potential benefits and drawbacks of different treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What would make the use of the unpaired t test inappropriate for comparing...

    Incorrect

    • What would make the use of the unpaired t test inappropriate for comparing the mean drug concentrations of two groups of subjects?

      Your Answer: Small sample size

      Correct Answer: Non-normal distribution of data

      Explanation:

      Limitations of the t test in statistical analysis

      The t test is a statistical tool used to compare the means of two groups of data. However, it can only be used for parametric data, which means that the data must be normally distributed. If the data is not normally distributed, then the t test cannot be used.

      Another limitation of the t test is that insufficient statistical power, which is a consequence of having too few subjects recruited, would not invalidate the results of the t test. However, it is probable that the results would not show any difference with too few subjects. This is because the statistical power of the test is directly related to the sample size. If the sample size is too small, then the test may not have enough power to detect a difference between the two groups.

      Despite this limitation, it is possible that if the differences between the two groups are large enough, then differences might still be seen, irrespective of prior power calculations. Therefore, it is important to consider the limitations of the t test when using it for statistical analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption of green tea has an effect on cognitive decline. Roughly half of the patients drank green tea regularly and half did not.
      What is a drawback of conducting a cohort study?

      Your Answer: It is not possible to measure the incidence/risk of a disease

      Correct Answer: When the outcome of interest is rare a very large sample size is needed

      Explanation:

      Cohort Studies: Advantages and Disadvantages

      A cohort study is a research method that involves following a group of individuals over a period of time to determine whether exposure to a particular factor has an effect on the incidence of disease. Although they are time-consuming and expensive, cohort studies have several advantages. For instance, they can be used to study rare exposure factors and are less prone to recall bias than case-control studies. Additionally, they can measure the incidence or risk of a disease, which is useful in determining the effectiveness of interventions.

      One of the main advantages of cohort studies is that they allow researchers to study exposure factors that are rare. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which means that even if the exposure factor is rare, it may still be possible to observe its effects. Another advantage is that cohort studies are less susceptible to recall bias than case-control studies. This is because the exposure factor is measured before the disease occurs, which reduces the likelihood of participants misremembering their exposure.

      However, cohort studies also have some disadvantages. One of the main disadvantages is that they are time-consuming and expensive to perform. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which requires a significant amount of resources. Additionally, cohort studies may not be suitable for studying diseases that have a long latency period, as it may take many years for the disease to develop. Finally, cohort studies may be affected by loss to follow-up, which can reduce the validity of the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A trial is to be set up to examine a new drug for...

    Incorrect

    • A trial is to be set up to examine a new drug for the maintenance of remission in all people over the age of 50 with ulcerative colitis.

      A randomised double blinded placebo controlled trial recruits patients in hospital with an exacerbation of their ulcerative colitis. A standard questionnaire is used to record the frequency of exacerbations of disease over a two year period.

      Results show that there is no difference between the drug and placebo and the results are published in a medical journal.

      To which form of bias is this study most susceptible?

      Your Answer: Recall bias

      Correct Answer: Selection bias

      Explanation:

      Types of Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias in clinical trials refers to a systematic difference between the results obtained from a randomized controlled trial and the true state of affairs. There are different types of bias that can occur in clinical trials. Selection bias occurs when the study population is different from the population to whom the results will be applied. Allocation bias occurs when patients are not randomly assigned to a particular treatment. Assessment bias occurs when the observer knows which treatment the subject is taking. Observer bias is when one observer consistently under or over reports a particular variable. Recall bias applies to case-control studies when a patient is more likely to remember a particular detail of exposure if they go on to develop the disease.

      One example of selection bias is the early results of trials of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) demonstrating potentially positive results on reduction in cardiovascular risk. It has been argued that women of higher social classes who exercised more were likely to choose HRT, which could have influenced the results. It is important to identify and minimize bias in clinical trials to ensure that the results obtained are reliable and can be applied to the population of interest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The mean cholesterol level in healthy men is 180 mg/dL and the standard...

    Correct

    • The mean cholesterol level in healthy men is 180 mg/dL and the standard deviation is 20 mg/dL.
      What is the z score for a man with a cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL?

      Your Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Z Scores

      Z scores are a way of measuring how much a particular data point deviates from the mean of its distribution, expressed in terms of the standard deviation of that distribution. Essentially, a z score tells us how many standard deviations away from the mean a particular observation is. To calculate a z score, we take the difference between the observation and the mean, and divide that by the standard deviation. For example, if we have an observation of 150 from a population with a mean of 135 and a standard deviation of 15, the z score would be 1.0. This tells us that the observation is one standard deviation above the mean. Z scores are a useful tool for comparing data points from different distributions, as they allow us to standardize the data and make meaningful comparisons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the sequence of male puberty feature development? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the sequence of male puberty feature development?

      Your Answer: Growth spurt, then pubic hair, then testicular enlargement

      Correct Answer: Testicular enlargement, then pubic hair, then growth spurt

      Explanation:

      Puberty and Development of Sexual Characteristics

      During puberty, there is a general order of development for secondary sexual characteristics in both boys and girls. In boys, the growth of testicles is the first feature, followed by other characteristics such as pubic hair, axillary hair, body odor, and deepening of the voice. The growth spurt usually occurs 18 months after the onset of puberty, and physical development continues until the age of 25 with increasing muscle mass.

      On the other hand, girls develop secondary sexual features before menarche, with breast development being the first feature, followed by axillary and pubic hair. The growth spurt is an earlier event for girls, taking place not long after breasts begin to develop. Menarche marks the end of the growth spurt, which usually occurs two to three years after the beginning of puberty. Puberty is earlier in girls, ranging from 8 1/2 years to 12 1/2 years.

      It is worth noting that puberty occurs earlier for children of Afro-American origin and obese children due to raised estrogen levels, even in boys. the order of development of sexual characteristics during puberty can help individuals and parents prepare for the changes that come with this stage of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is not a characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is not a characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Affects approximately 1 in 10000 births

      Correct Answer: Abnormality of maternally inherited chromosome 15q

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi Syndrome

      Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that is associated with a deletion on the paternal 15q in 70% of cases. It is characterized by neonatal hypotonia and poor feeding, moderate mental handicap, small genitalia, hyperphagia, and obesity in later childhood.

      Individuals with Prader-Willi Syndrome often have difficulty controlling their appetite, which can lead to obesity and related health problems. They may also have developmental delays and intellectual disabilities. The condition is caused by a missing piece of genetic material on chromosome 15 that is inherited from the father.

      Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Prader-Willi Syndrome and improve quality of life for affected individuals and their families. Treatment may include growth hormone therapy, behavioral therapy, and nutritional counseling. It is important for individuals with Prader-Willi Syndrome to receive ongoing medical care and support throughout their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What investigation would be most useful in determining the level of pubertal development...

    Incorrect

    • What investigation would be most useful in determining the level of pubertal development in males?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone levels

      Correct Answer: Left wrist x ray

      Explanation:

      The Use of Wrist X-Ray in Assessing Pubertal Development

      Wrist x-ray is a valuable tool in determining bone age and assessing pubertal development in children with short stature. By examining the epiphyseal plates, it is possible to compare bone age and chronological age, and identify any discrepancies that may be due to delayed puberty. In girls, an ultrasound of the uterus may also be used to estimate pubertal development based on endometrial thickness.

      While cortisol and growth hormone levels are not correlated with pubertal stage, testosterone levels can indicate whether a boy has entered puberty. However, they do not provide information on how far along in puberty he may be. It is important to note that hormone levels can be affected by various factors and may have diurnal variations.

      Overall, wrist x-ray and other assessments of pubertal development can provide valuable information for healthcare professionals in monitoring the growth and development of children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old patient presents with abnormal liver function tests, including elevated bilirubin, alanine...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient presents with abnormal liver function tests, including elevated bilirubin, alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma glutamyl transferase, as well as decreased albumin and an elevated INR. What is the probable underlying cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol overdose

      Explanation:

      Liver Function Tests

      Liver function tests are important diagnostic tools that help doctors assess the health of a patient’s liver. Elevated levels of transaminases, specifically AST and ALT, indicate a hepatitic picture, which may be caused by conditions such as hepatitis or paracetamol overdose. ALT is specific to hepatocytes, while AST is also found in other parts of the body. An AST:ALT ratio of >2 may suggest alcoholic hepatitis. However, the magnitude of transaminase elevations is not used in standard scoring systems of severity.

      Elevated INR levels, which indicate a loss of liver synthetic function, are important indicators of severity and prognosis in patients with liver failure. Cholestasis, reflected in elevated ALP and GGT, may also be seen in a predominantly hepatitic process. This is partly due to blockage of intrahepatic bile canaliculi by dead hepatocytes. On the other hand, primary biliary cirrhosis, cholecystitis, and head of pancreas tumor would lead to a cholestatic picture.

      Dubin Johnson syndrome is an inherited disorder of bilirubin metabolism that leads to a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia without elevations in other liver enzymes. It is a benign condition. liver function tests and their interpretation is crucial in diagnosing and managing liver diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In a study of the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in identifying bacteraemia...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in identifying bacteraemia in elderly patients, 100 consecutive febrile patients aged 65 and above were examined for serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture.

      The study found that a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L had an 80% positive predictive value in detecting bacteraemia.

      What does this statement mean?

      Your Answer: 80% of the patients who have bacteraemia would be expected to have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L

      Correct Answer: 80% of the patients who have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L would be expected to have bacteraemia

      Explanation:

      Positive Predictive Value

      Positive predictive value refers to the proportion of patients who test positive for a particular condition and actually have the disease. For instance, if 80% of patients with a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L have bacteraemia, then the positive predictive value is 80%. It is important to note that the number of patients tested does not affect the positive predictive value. However, changes in the prevalence of the condition can affect the value. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the concept of positive predictive value when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What gene is considered a suppressor of tumours? ...

    Incorrect

    • What gene is considered a suppressor of tumours?

      Your Answer: fos

      Correct Answer: Rb

      Explanation:

      Tumour Suppressor Genes and Familial Cancers

      Tumour suppressor genes were initially discovered through the creation of cell hybrids between normal and tumour cells. In some cases, a chromosome from the normal cell was able to reverse the transformed phenotype. The loss of function of tumour suppressor genes has been linked to several familial cancers. These genes include Retinoblastoma susceptibility gene (RB), Wilms’ tumours (WT1), Neurofibromatosis type-1 (NF1), and Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (FAP).

      One example of a gene commonly mutated in acute myeloid leukaemia is RUNX1, but it is not considered a tumour suppressor gene. The identification of tumour suppressor genes has been crucial in the development of cancer and the potential for targeted therapies. By studying these genes and their associated familial cancers, researchers can gain insight into the mechanisms of tumour formation and potentially develop new treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In a randomized controlled trial evaluating the effectiveness of a new antihypertensive medication...

    Correct

    • In a randomized controlled trial evaluating the effectiveness of a new antihypertensive medication compared to conventional therapy for secondary stroke prevention in elderly patients, the researchers found a 0.5% reduction in the annual incidence of stroke. The cost of the new treatment is £100 more per patient per year than the conventional therapy. What is the cost per stroke prevented with the implementation of the new therapy?

      Your Answer: £20,000

      Explanation:

      Cost of New Stroke Prevention Drug

      In this scenario, the use of a new drug reduces the annual incidence of stroke by 0.5% compared to conventional therapy. However, the cost of the new treatment is £100 more than the conventional therapy. This means that for every 200 patients treated with the new drug, one less stroke would occur compared to conventional therapy. The number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one stroke is 200 per year. Therefore, the annual cost of this treatment to prevent one stroke would be £20,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The placebo group experienced 150 myocardial infarctions (MIs), while the group treated with the new statin had 100 infarctions. What is the yearly percentage of MIs in the diabetic population who received the placebo?

      Your Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Incidence of Myocardial Infarction in Diabetic Patients

      This study found that out of 1000 diabetic patients treated with a placebo over a five-year period, there were 150 cases of myocardial infarction (MI). This means that the rate of infarction in this group was 15%, which translates to an annual MI rate of 3%. These findings provide important information for healthcare professionals treating diabetic patients, as they highlight the increased risk of MI in this population. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this risk and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage cardiovascular complications in diabetic patients. This study emphasizes the need for continued research and development of effective prevention and treatment strategies for diabetic patients at risk for MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - To what does the term axon varicosity refer? ...

    Incorrect

    • To what does the term axon varicosity refer?

      Your Answer: A pathological morphology characterised by abnormal axonal size.

      Correct Answer: A series of swellings along the length of an axon from which certain types of neurones can release neurotransmitters

      Explanation:

      Axon Varicosities: Small Swellings Along the Length of an Axon

      Axon varicosity refers to a series of small swellings found along the length of an axon. These structures are commonly found in neurones of the autonomic nervous system and are responsible for releasing neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neurone directly onto the effector organs, such as smooth muscle. Axon varicosities are important because they allow for efficient and rapid communication between neurones and their target organs. By releasing neurotransmitters directly onto the effector organs, axon varicosities can quickly and effectively modulate the activity of these organs. Overall, axon varicosities play an important role in the functioning of the autonomic nervous system and are a key component of the neural communication system in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A study was conducted to evaluate the impact of a new statin in...

    Correct

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the impact of a new statin in primary prevention for patients with hypertension but no prior cardiovascular event. The study included 200 participants, divided equally into a control group and a treatment group. The average age of the participants was 50 years. The control group had a cardiovascular event rate of 3%, and the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one cardiovascular event was 100. What was the rate of cardiovascular events in the treatment group?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Number Needed to Treat

      Number needed to treat (NNT) is a statistical measure used in clinical trials to determine the average number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome. It is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the event rate of the treatment group and the control group. In simpler terms, NNT is the number of patients that need to be treated with a new medication or intervention to prevent one additional negative outcome compared to a control group.

      For example, if the NNT is 100, the ARR is 1%, meaning that one additional negative outcome can be prevented for every 100 patients treated. If the control group has an event rate of 3%, the treatment group’s event rate would be 2% (3% – 1%).

      NNT is important for healthcare professionals and patients alike as it helps to determine the effectiveness of a treatment and the potential benefits and risks associated with it. By knowing the NNT, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about which treatments to recommend to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      71.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the age of 60.
      The null hypothesis was that there was no difference between the two treatments.
      The primary outcome was reduction of systolic blood pressure below 140 mmHg. This outcome was reached in 75% of patients taking treatment A and 80% of patients taking treatment B. The results were reported as being significant with a p-value of 0.05.
      What is the correct interpretation of the P value?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 5% probability of finding this result if there is no difference between the regimens

      Explanation:

      The Misunderstood P Value

      The P value is often misunderstood and over-interpreted. It is important to note that the P value only indicates the probability of obtaining the results by chance if there was no difference between the regimens being compared. It does not provide information on the actual difference between the regimens or the likelihood of one being better than the other. This confusion has led to the increased use of confidence intervals as a more informative measure.

      Goodman SN’s article Toward Evidence-Based Medical Statistics delves deeper into this issue and highlights the fallacy of relying solely on P values. It is crucial to understand the limitations of the P value and to use it in conjunction with other statistical measures to draw accurate conclusions. By doing so, we can ensure that our research is evidence-based and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A woman complains of persistent indigestion that has not responded to over the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman complains of persistent indigestion that has not responded to over the counter ranitidine. She is started on a proton pump inhibitor, and the dose is then increased without effect. Gastrin levels are measured at 100,000 (NR <200 pmol/l).

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rare but Beloved Medical Conditions in Examinations

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, also known as gastrinoma, is a rare medical condition caused by a tumour that secretes gastrin. This leads to excessive acid production that is not easily treated with proton pump inhibitors, except in high doses. Another rare medical condition is insulinoma, which causes hypoglycaemia due to excessive insulin production. Lastly, Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a combination of iron deficiency anaemia and oesophageal webs that cause difficulty in swallowing. These medical conditions are not commonly encountered in clinical practice, but they are much beloved in medical examinations. It is important for medical students to be familiar with these conditions and their symptoms in order to provide accurate diagnoses and treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The following blood gas results are obtained from a young adult patient with...

    Incorrect

    • The following blood gas results are obtained from a young adult patient with diabetes.
      pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44)
      PaO2 14.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PaCO2 2.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      HCO3- 14 mmol/L (20-28)
      Base excess −10 mmol/L (+/-2)
      How should this data be interpreted accurately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation

      Explanation:

      Acidosis and its Causes

      Acidosis is a condition characterized by a low pH level, which can be caused by various factors. In this particular case, the patient’s pH level is 7.32, indicating acidosis. The low bicarbonate level suggests that the origin of the acidosis is metabolic, and the low base excess supports this. The lungs are compensating for the acidosis by increasing the clearance of carbon dioxide, resulting in a low PaCO2 level. However, it is important to note that compensation rarely reverses the pH change completely, and the patient is still considered to have metabolic acidosis.

      It is crucial not to jump to conclusions about the cause of acidosis without appropriate information. While diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a common cause, other factors such as lactic acidosis (type A or B) or poisoning can also lead to acidosis. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment. the different types and causes of acidosis is essential for healthcare professionals to provide effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the primary nerve supply for the small muscles in the hand?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary nerve supply for the small muscles in the hand?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      Innervation of Muscles in the Hand and Forearm

      The muscles in the hand and forearm are controlled by different nerves depending on their location and function. The small muscles in the hand and forearm, such as the Flexor digitorum superficialis, Flexor pollicis longus, Flexor digitorum profundus, Lumbricals, and Interossei, are mainly innervated by the T1 nerve. This nerve controls the fine movements of the fingers and hand.

      On the other hand, the larger muscles in the upper arm, such as the deltoids and biceps, are innervated by the C5 nerve. This nerve controls the movements of the shoulder and elbow joints. The extensors of the wrist are controlled by the C6 nerve, while the wrist extensors and triceps are controlled by the C7 nerve. Finally, the finger flexors of the hands are controlled by the C8 nerve.

      the innervation of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect the nerves in the upper extremities. By identifying which nerve is affected, healthcare professionals can develop a targeted treatment plan to help patients regain function and mobility in their hands and arms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What structures are located inside the carpal tunnel? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structures are located inside the carpal tunnel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Carpal Tunnel

      The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway located in the wrist that contains several important structures. These include the median nerve, which provides sensation to the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger, as well as motor function to some of the muscles in the hand. Additionally, the carpal tunnel houses the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis muscles, which are responsible for flexing the fingers. The flexor pollicis longus, which controls movement of the thumb, is also found within the carpal tunnel, along with its synovium.

      In the most radial (first) dorsal wrist compartment, the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis are located. These structures are responsible for abduction and extension of the thumb, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is a true statement about BCG vaccination? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about BCG vaccination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Provides protection against leprosy

      Explanation:

      The Versatility of the BCG Vaccine

      The BCG vaccine was originally developed to combat Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis. However, research has shown that it also provides protection against leprosy, with up to 80% efficacy. This is because the organism that causes leprosy, M. leprae, is also a type of Mycobacterium. While the potential use of the BCG vaccine in clinical practice for leprosy is still being considered, it is currently recommended for newborns at high risk of exposure.

      Previously, the BCG vaccine was given to children at comprehensive school entry (age 11-13). However, recent updates suggest that it should be administered to neonates in high-risk groups. In addition to its use in preventing tuberculosis and leprosy, the BCG vaccine has also been found to stimulate the immune system for the treatment of some cancers, particularly bladder carcinoma.

      It is important to note that the BCG vaccine should not be given to children who have a strongly positive tuberculin test. Before administration, a Mantoux test should be documented to ensure the safety and efficacy of the vaccine. Overall, the versatility of the BCG vaccine highlights its potential to combat a range of diseases and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 34-year-old man and his wife have been struggling to conceive for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man and his wife have been struggling to conceive for the past decade. During his examination, you notice that he is tall and thin with bilateral gynaecomastia. Your colleague has conducted some initial tests, and one of them has come back indicating elevated levels of urinary gonadotrophins. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders and Andropause

      Gaucher’s and Marfan syndrome are genetic disorders that do not cause infertility. Noonan’s syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with short stature. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder that affects males, with a prevalence of 1 in 400 to 1 in 600 births. This disorder is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47 XXY, XXXYY, or XXYY.

      Andropause is a term used to describe the gradual decrease in serum testosterone concentration that occurs with age. However, this condition typically does not occur until after the age of 50. It is important to note that while these conditions may have some similarities, they are distinct and require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. Proper diagnosis and management of these conditions can help individuals lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which statement accurately describes the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing the...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing the effectiveness of drug A and drug B in treating diabetes mellitus, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and the HbA1c levels were found to be 53 mmol/mol in group A and 56 mmol/mol in group B with a p-value of 0.8?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The 95% confidence interval of the difference in HbA1c between the two groups contains 0

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Statistical Results

      When interpreting statistical results, it is important to consider the confidence interval and the appropriate statistical test to use. If the 95% confidence interval of the difference between two groups contains 0, then the difference is not statistically significant. Therefore, the confidence interval should contain 0. It is also important to use the appropriate statistical test for the data being analyzed. For example, the chi square test is used for categorical variables, while the Student’s t test is more appropriate for continuous variables.

      The sample size should also be considered when interpreting statistical results. However, it is not possible to judge if the sample size is too small without knowing the statistical power. The statistical power is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis. In situations where there is no difference between two groups, only a type II error is possible. This means that we may fail to reject a false null hypothesis. However, the type II error cannot be determined without knowing the statistical power of the study. Therefore, it is important to consider all of these factors when interpreting statistical results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with a past medical history of haematuria. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with a past medical history of haematuria. The general practitioner suspects the presence of renal carcinoma and venous drainage obstruction. At an early stage of renal carcinoma, which abdominal area or organs are likely to be associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left testis

      Explanation:

      The testicular veins form a network called the pampiniform plexus, which helps regulate testicular temperature. The left testicular vein empties into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein enters the IVC. RCC can cause varicocele by obstructing the left testicular vein. The inferior mesenteric vein drains into the splenic vein before joining the IVC. The liver receives blood from the hepatic artery and portal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the function of aldosterone in the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of aldosterone in the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retain sodium and excrete potassium

      Explanation:

      The Role of Aldosterone in Sodium and Potassium Balance

      Aldosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It works by retaining sodium while excreting potassium. This process is the final stage of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, which is activated when there is reduced blood flow to the kidneys. The goal of this axis is to increase fluid volume by retaining sodium and water.

      To maintain electrochemical balance, it is necessary to excrete potassium while retaining sodium. This is because sodium is the primary ion responsible for maintaining fluid balance, while potassium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function. Therefore, aldosterone acts to retain sodium at the expense of potassium, ensuring that the body maintains the proper balance of these two ions.

      In summary, aldosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It works by retaining sodium while excreting potassium, which is necessary for proper fluid and electrolyte balance. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis is activated when there is reduced blood flow to the kidneys, and its goal is to increase fluid volume by retaining sodium and water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient is rushed into the Emergency department after being attacked with a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is rushed into the Emergency department after being attacked with a baseball bat by an unknown assailant. The patient is unconscious and in critical condition. An urgent CT scan is ordered and reveals the presence of a subdural hematoma. The scan also shows a fracture through the left pterion.

      Which blood vessel is likely responsible for the bleeding in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The Pterion: A Clinically Significant Area of the Skull

      The pterion is a region of the skull where four bones – the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoidal bones – meet. It is considered the weakest part of the skull and is of great clinical significance. This is because it is located above the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery, which is a branch of the maxillary artery. Injuries to the maxillary artery can occur following facial bone or maxillary injuries, while injuries to the posterior auricular artery can occur following neck or ear trauma. The middle cerebral arteries are also often involved in stroke. the location and significance of the pterion is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various head injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which nerve roots and nerve are responsible for the knee reflex during a...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve roots and nerve are responsible for the knee reflex during a neurological examination of the lower limb when the quadriceps muscle is observed while striking the knee just below the patella with a hand placed under it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve L3, L4

      Explanation:

      The Femoral Nerve and its Innervation of the Quadriceps Muscle

      The femoral nerve is responsible for innervating the quadriceps muscle, which is involved in the knee reflex. This nerve is the largest branch of the lumbar plexus, which includes the L2-L4 nerve roots. It originates in the abdomen within the psoas major muscle and descends to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament. From there, it enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.

      The femoral nerve supplies the anterior thigh muscles, sends articular branches to the hip and knee joints, and provides sensation to an area of skin on the anterior thigh. It also supplies part of the medial thigh that is not innervated by the obturator nerve, specifically the medial and intermediate nerves of the thigh.

      In summary, the femoral nerve plays a crucial role in the innervation of the quadriceps muscle and provides sensory input to the anterior and medial thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the surgery to renew her prescription for oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the surgery to renew her prescription for oral contraception. She is in good health, has no symptoms, and is not taking any medications. She does not smoke and has a BMI of 23 kg/m2. However, her blood pressure has been measured at 170/100 mmHg on multiple occasions. A thorough physical examination reveals no abnormalities, and her medical records show no history of hypertension.

      The following test results were obtained:
      - Sodium: 145 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
      - Potassium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 4.0 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 89 mol/L (normal range: 60-110)
      - Bicarbonate: 35 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)

      What is the most likely cause of her visit to the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is the most likely diagnosis for a young patient with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. While the prevalence of this condition in unselected hypertensive patients is around 2%, it should be actively excluded in patients with these symptoms. A spot urine potassium test can be used as an initial investigation for hypokalaemia, with a level above 30 mmol/l indicating that GI loss and laxative abuse are unlikely. An elevated aldosterone:renin ratio is present in primary hyperaldosteronism, and blood test requirements should be discussed with the laboratory before investigation.

      While diuretic abuse can cause hypokalaemia, it is much less common than primary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension is not typically present. Cushing’s syndrome, which is associated with hypokalaemia and alkalosis, can be screened for with a 24-hour urinary cortisol test, but this condition is less likely in a patient without other features of the syndrome. Addison’s disease, or hypoadrenalism, can be screened for with a short Synacthen test, which is used to detect hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered as a potential diagnosis in young patients with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Proper testing and screening can help rule out other potential causes of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - In a study investigating the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in detecting bacteraemia...

    Incorrect

    • In a study investigating the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in detecting bacteraemia in febrile patients, 100 consecutive individuals were tested for both serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture. The study found that a serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L had a negative predictive value of 95% in identifying bacteraemia.

      What does this negative predictive value signify?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5% of the patients who have serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L would be expected to have bacteraemia

      Explanation:

      Negative Predictive Value in Bacteraemia Testing

      Negative predictive value is the proportion of patients who test negative for a disease and do not actually have it. In the case of bacteraemia testing, if a patient has a serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L, they are considered negative for the disease. It is estimated that 95% of these patients do not have bacteraemia, while 5% do have the disease.

      It is important to note that the number of patients being tested does not affect the negative predictive value. This value is solely based on the proportion of patients who test negative and do not have the disease. negative predictive value is crucial in accurately interpreting test results and making informed medical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the main factor that motivates inspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main factor that motivates inspiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased intrapulmonary pressure

      Explanation:

      The Mechanics of Breathing

      Breathing is a complex process that involves the contraction and relaxation of various muscles in the thorax and abdomen. During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move forward and up. This increases the volume of the thorax, which in turn reduces the pressure inside the lungs. As a result, air is drawn into the lungs from the atmosphere.

      In addition to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles, there are other muscles involved in breathing. The scalene muscles, for example, are accessory muscles that contract when extra effort is needed to inhale. These muscles are often used by people with respiratory conditions such as asthma.

      Other accessory muscles of respiration include the intercostals and the abdominal muscles. These muscles help to increase the volume of the thorax during inhalation and to decrease it during exhalation.

      During expiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, causing the ribs to move downward and inward. This reduces the volume of the thorax and increases the pressure inside the lungs, forcing air out of the body. Expiration is usually a passive process, meaning that it does not require much effort from the muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 16-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of anorexia, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of anorexia, abdominal pain around his umbilicus, and no bowel movements for the past 2 days.

      What is the specific dermatome associated with the area surrounding the umbilicus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Pain Perception and Organ Localization

      Pain is felt in areas supplied by somatic nerves that enter the spinal cord at the same segment as the sensory nerves from the affected organ. This provides important information for clinicians when determining which organ may be affected. In cases of inflamed parietal peritoneum, the area is extremely sensitive to stretching. Applying digital pressure to the anterolateral abdominal wall over the site of inflammation stretches the parietal peritoneum, causing extreme localized pain when the fingers are suddenly removed. This is known as rebound tenderness.

      The nerve supply to the appendix comes from sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves from the superior mesenteric plexus. The sympathetic nerve fibers originate in the lower thoracic part of the spinal cord, while the parasympathetic nerve fibers derive from the vagus nerves. Afferent nerve fibers from the appendix accompany the sympathetic nerves to the T10 segment of the spinal cord. the nerve supply and pain perception pathways can aid in localizing the affected organ and guiding appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In a double blind, randomised, placebo controlled trial of a new medication looking...

    Incorrect

    • In a double blind, randomised, placebo controlled trial of a new medication looking at reduction in blood pressure, 200 patients were enrolled with 100 patients receiving the new medication and 100 patients receiving placebo.

      In the treatment group, blood pressure decreased from a mean of 150/90 mmHg to 130/80 mmHg. In the control group, blood pressure decreased from a mean of 148/88 mmHg to 140/85 mmHg. The authors concluded that the new medication was effective in reducing blood pressure as p=0.02 (2-tailed test).

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The alternative hypothesis is that drug A is more effective or less effective than placebo

      Explanation:

      The alternative hypothesis in a two-tailed statistical hypothesis testing is that there is a difference between the variables being tested. In the case of comparing a new diuretic to a placebo, the alternative hypothesis would be that there is a difference in their potassium reducing effect, meaning the new diuretic is either more or less effective than the placebo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What statement is true about fragile X syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement is true about fragile X syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Affected children are taller than average

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: Characteristics and Diagnosis

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects children, causing them to be taller than average and exhibit physical characteristics such as a high arched palate, long ears, a long face, and macro orchidism. The diagnosis of this syndrome was originally based on the expression of a folate-sensitive fragile X site induced in cell culture under conditions of folate deprivation. While affected males usually have learning difficulties, not all do. Additionally, one third of females with the mutation also experience learning difficulties.

      Diagnosis of fragile X syndrome can be made through the detection of the mutant FMR 1 gene by chorionic villus sampling. In some cases, confirmatory amniocentesis may be required. It is important to identify this syndrome early on in order to provide appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 32-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a blood pressure reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Upon examination, there were no other notable findings. Can you identify which of the following indicates a possible diagnosis of secondary hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Nephritic Syndrome and Essential Hypertension

      When evaluating a patient with hypertension, it is important to consider the presence of other symptoms and laboratory findings that may suggest an underlying condition. In this case, the presence of proteinuria indicates a nephritic syndrome, which is not consistent with a diagnosis of essential hypertension. On the other hand, features such as left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and arteriolar narrowing (AV nipping) are commonly seen in patients with hypertension.

      It is also important to note that the patient’s normal renal clearance and normal potassium levels are compatible with essential hypertension. Therefore, while hypertension may be the primary diagnosis, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying nephritic syndrome and perform further testing if necessary. By carefully evaluating all available information, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 55-year-old male patient reports experiencing excessive thirst and frequent urination for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient reports experiencing excessive thirst and frequent urination for the past three months. What diagnostic measurement would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 7.5 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed based on symptoms and a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L or fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or the two hour oral glucose tolerance test. Impaired glucose tolerance is indicated by a post OGTT plasma glucose between 7.7 and 11.1 or a fasting plasma glucose between 6.1 and 7. HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut point for diagnosing diabetes for suitable groups. A value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes diagnosed using glucose test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of difficulty concentrating and irregular jerky movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of difficulty concentrating and irregular jerky movements in his extremities and fingers. He reports consuming around 20 units of alcohol per week and has a family history of dementia, with his father being diagnosed at the age of 40. On examination, he displays generalised choreiform movements, but his neurological and systemic examination is otherwise unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited through autosomal means. It is caused by an expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat on chromosome 4’s short arm. The disease is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function and increasingly erratic movements known as choreiform movements. Symptoms usually manifest between the ages of 30 and 50. Genetic testing is now available to accurately diagnose the disease. The average life expectancy after the onset of symptoms is approximately 15 years.

      In summary, Huntington’s disease is a debilitating genetic disorder that affects cognitive function and movement. It is caused by an expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat on chromosome 4’s short arm. Symptoms typically appear in middle age, and genetic testing is now available to diagnose the disease accurately. Unfortunately, the average life expectancy after the onset of symptoms is relatively short.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - What triggers the closure of the umbilical vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • What triggers the closure of the umbilical vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced blood flow

      Explanation:

      Closure of Fetal Circulatory Structures after Birth

      Following birth, the umbilical vein gradually fibrosis due to a reduction in flow. During fetal development, the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the ductus venosus and back to the inferior vena cava. However, after the placenta is born and the umbilical cord is clamped, flow in the umbilical vein decreases to zero. Over time, the vein transforms into the umbilical ligament, which attaches to the umbilicus as an extension of the ligamentum teres hepatis. In certain conditions, such as cirrhosis, the umbilical vein may reopen due to raised portal pressure.

      In contrast to the closure of the umbilical vein, the closure of the ductus arteriosus is a more complex process. When arterial oxygen tension increases, prostaglandin production decreases, leading to the contraction of the ductus arteriosus. However, elevated prostaglandin levels keep the ductus arteriosus open. At birth, pulmonary arterial pressures decrease as air enters the lungs, causing flow reversal through the foramen ovale in the atrial septum and resulting in its closure.

      Overall, the closure of fetal circulatory structures after birth involves different mechanisms and processes. While the umbilical vein gradually fibrosis due to reduced flow, the ductus arteriosus closure is regulated by prostaglandin levels. The closure of the foramen ovale is also influenced by changes in pulmonary arterial pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which condition is most likely to result in a pleural effusion that is...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most likely to result in a pleural effusion that is classified as a transudate with protein levels below 30 mg/L?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing critically ill patients. It helps determine the severity of a patient’s condition and has prognostic implications. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The score ranges from 3 to 15, with a lower score indicating a worse prognosis.

      The GCS score is determined by assigning points for each of the three categories. The highest score for eye opening is 4, for verbal response is 5, and for motor response is 6. A patient who is dead would still have a GCS score of 3. The lowest possible score is 3, which indicates no response in any of the categories.

      The GCS score is important for healthcare professionals as it helps them determine the level of care a patient needs. A lower score indicates a more severe injury or illness and may require more intensive treatment. The GCS score is also used to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to assess the effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - In which tissue is glycolysis the primary direct means of generating ATP? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which tissue is glycolysis the primary direct means of generating ATP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocytes

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Glycolysis in Erythrocytes

      Mature erythrocytes lack mitochondria, which means that they can only produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through anaerobic glycolysis. This makes them particularly vulnerable to deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes, such as pyruvate kinase deficiency, which affects 1 in 20,000 people and can cause varying degrees of haemolytic anaemia. The lack of pyruvate kinase directly impairs ATP production, as it is responsible for producing 2 ATP molecules from each glucose. Additionally, the build-up of intermediaries like 2,3 DPG can cause feedback inhibition of earlier stages of glycolysis, further impairing ATP production.

      In contrast, other tissues rely on oxidative phosphorylation to generate the majority of their ATP under normal, aerobic conditions. The importance of glycolysis in erythrocytes highlights the unique metabolic needs of these cells and the consequences of deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 68-year-old male presents with a week-long history of confusion. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a week-long history of confusion. He has been generally healthy but takes atenolol for hypertension and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.

      During examination, his pulse is 88 beats per minute, blood pressure is 126/88 mmHg, and temperature is 37.1°C. He is disoriented in time and place, but no other abnormalities are found.

      Routine blood tests reveal:

      - FBC Normal
      - Sodium 120 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine 56 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Serum TSH Normal
      - Plasma osmolality 260 mosmol/L (275-295)
      - Urine osmolality 510 mosmol/L
      - Urine sodium 48 mmol/L

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion (SIADH)

      The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by marked hyponatremia. To diagnose SIADH, the patient must have low serum sodium or osmolality levels, with an inappropriately high urine sodium and osmolality. Other causes such as glucocorticoid deficiency, hypothyroidism, and diuretic therapy should be excluded.

      There are several causes of SIADH, including malignancy, infection, cerebral disease, and medications. Bronchial carcinoma is a common malignancy associated with SIADH, especially in patients with a history of smoking. Severe infections, particularly pneumonia, can also cause SIADH. Cerebral diseases such as subarachnoid hemorrhage and meningitis can also lead to SIADH. Certain medications, including SSRI antidepressants, carbamazepine, thiazides, and indomethacin, can also cause SIADH.

      In summary, SIADH is a condition that can lead to marked hyponatremia. It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications. the various causes of SIADH can help clinicians identify and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - In a study of 26,000 females, 1,300 subjects were found to have either...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of 26,000 females, 1,300 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism. The prevalence of hypothyroidism in this population was 5%. What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,300 cases of hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Prevalence and Incidence in Medical Terminology

      Prevalence and incidence are two important terms used in medical terminology to describe the occurrence of a disorder in a specific population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a particular population at a given time, while incidence refers to the number of new cases of the disorder that develop over a specific period.

      In simpler terms, prevalence tells us how many people in a population have a particular disorder at a given time, while incidence tells us how many new cases of the disorder are diagnosed during a specific time frame. For example, if the prevalence of diabetes in a population is 10%, it means that 10% of the population has diabetes at a given time. On the other hand, if the incidence of diabetes in the same population is 2%, it means that 2% of the population was diagnosed with diabetes during a specific time frame, such as a year.

      the difference between prevalence and incidence is important for healthcare professionals as it helps them to identify the burden of a particular disorder in a population and plan appropriate interventions. By knowing the prevalence and incidence of a disorder, healthcare professionals can also monitor trends over time and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old male presents with complaints of fatigue, excessive thirst, and frequent urination...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents with complaints of fatigue, excessive thirst, and frequent urination despite normal blood sugar levels. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      - Serum sodium: 135 mmol/L (133-144)
      - Serum urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine: 100 μmol/L (50-100)
      - Serum calcium: 2.78 mmol/L (2.20 - 2.60)
      - Serum albumin: 28 g/L (35-50)
      - Corrected calcium: 3.02 mmol/L (2.20-2.60)
      - Serum phosphate: 0.87 mmol/L (0.80 - 1.45)
      - Serum alk phosphatase: 117 IU/L (30-115)
      - Serum asp transaminase: 39 I U/L (5-45)
      - Serum bilirubin: 8 umol/L (1-17)

      What further investigation would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PTH

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia and Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. While there are several possible causes of hypercalcaemia, primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. Although other conditions can also cause hypercalcaemia, these factors make them less likely in this case. Primary hyperparathyroidism is a relatively common condition, affecting up to 1% of elderly individuals. Symptoms can include renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain from peptic ulceration. Hypertension is also a common feature of this condition. Overall, primary hyperparathyroidism should be considered as a potential cause of hypercalcaemia in patients with these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which cell in the lung tissue is responsible for producing surfactant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cell in the lung tissue is responsible for producing surfactant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II pneumocyte

      Explanation:

      The Roles of Different Lung Cells

      The lungs are composed of various types of cells that perform different functions. Type 2 pneumocytes produce surfactant, which is essential for preventing the collapse of air-filled alveoli. Alveolar macrophages, on the other hand, are responsible for recognizing and destroying pathogens that enter the lungs. Endothelial cells have diverse functions depending on their location, while goblet cells produce mucous in the lungs. Finally, type 1 pneumocytes are involved in gas exchange in the alveoli.

      In summary, the lungs are a complex organ composed of different types of cells that work together to ensure proper respiratory function. Each cell type has a specific role, from producing surfactant to recognizing and destroying pathogens. the functions of these cells is crucial in maintaining healthy lungs and preventing respiratory diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the brain region responsible for controlling body temperature? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the brain region responsible for controlling body temperature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-optic hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The Hypothalamus and Temperature Regulation

      The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating body temperature. This area of the brain is responsible for maintaining a stable internal temperature, regardless of external conditions. It is important to note that this process is completely automatic and not related to the sensation of heat or cold.

      However, certain drugs can interfere with the hypothalamus’s ability to regulate temperature. Neuroleptics, amphetamine-like compounds, and SSRIs are examples of drugs that can disrupt this process. It is important for individuals taking these medications to be aware of the potential side effects and to consult with their healthcare provider if they experience any changes in body temperature.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is responsible for temperature regulation, and certain drugs can interfere with this process. the role of the hypothalamus in maintaining a stable internal temperature is important for maintaining overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the significant transformation that takes place enabling children to synthesize their...

    Incorrect

    • What is the significant transformation that takes place enabling children to synthesize their own vitamin K?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal bacterial colonisation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K in Newborns and Adults

      Most of the vitamin K in adults is produced through the metabolism of precursors by intestinal bacteria. However, newborns are vitamin K deficient for several reasons, including immature hepatic metabolism, low placental transfer, and no oral intake of vitamin K or its precursors. As a result, all newborns receive intramuscular vitamin K, often within the delivery room, to reduce the risk of vitamin K deficiency bleeding, which can lead to intracerebral bleeding and other serious complications.

      The production of vitamin K in adults is influenced by the development of hepatic metabolic enzymes and the colonization of intestinal bacteria during the first year of life. Small bowel length is typically not a limiting factor in normal children, although some infants may experience a short bowel syndrome after surgical resection of major sections of bowel. Despite these differences, there is no significant change in the portal circulation, renal clearance, or breakdown of clotting factors between newborns and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which type of cell is responsible for the production of stomach acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of cell is responsible for the production of stomach acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      Types of Cells Involved in Digestion

      There are several types of cells involved in the process of digestion. One of these types is the APUD cells, which are endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as gastrin and cholecystokinin. These hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive system. Another type of cell involved in digestion is the chief cells, which produce pepsinogen to aid in the breakdown of food.

      Kupffer cells are a specialized form of macrophage found in the liver. These cells play an important role in removing bacteria and other harmful substances from the blood. Finally, mucous cells produce mucous, which helps to protect the lining of the digestive tract from damage caused by stomach acid and other digestive enzymes.

      Overall, these different types of cells work together to ensure that the digestive system functions properly. By producing hormones, enzymes, and protective substances, they help to break down food and absorb nutrients while also protecting the body from harmful substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal discomfort with constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined. On examination, she appears pale and thin with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg. Her laboratory results show low potassium levels, high bicarbonate levels, and a slightly elevated ESR. A chest X-ray is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and Electrolyte Imbalances

      Anorexia nervosa is a possible diagnosis for a patient with low sodium and potassium levels, especially if vomiting is present. Interestingly, despite the severe weight loss associated with anorexia nervosa, albumin levels tend to remain normal. However, if albumin levels are reduced, other causes such as sepsis should be considered. Addison’s disease and Conn’s syndrome are also conditions that can cause electrolyte imbalances, but their clinical presentations differ from that of anorexia nervosa. Cushing’s disease, on the other hand, is not a likely diagnosis in this case. It is important to consider the underlying cause of electrolyte imbalances in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 19-year-old male comes to the emergency department after ingesting an excessive amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male comes to the emergency department after ingesting an excessive amount of his father's medication. Upon examination, his serum potassium level is found to be 6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9). Which medication is the probable culprit for this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Overdose Effects of Various Drugs

      Betablockers, specifically propranolol, can lead to hyperkalaemia due to transmembrane shifts when taken in overdose. Conversely, beta-agonists like salbutamol are known to cause hypokalaemia. Salicylate overdose can cause metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis, with adults typically experiencing an alkalosis with a high pH, while children under 4-years-old may experience an acidosis. Hypokalaemia is more common than hyperkalaemia in patients following a salicylate overdose. Overdosing on SSRI medication, such as fluoxetine, rarely causes significant issues unless taken in extremely high doses, which may lead to tachycardia and prolonged QT interval. Zopiclone can cause excessive drowsiness, but respiratory depression is rare. Digoxin therapy overdose usually results in rhythm disturbance, which may be worsened by hypokalaemia.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential effects of overdosing on various medications and seek medical attention immediately if an overdose is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (6/17) 35%
Passmed