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  • Question 1 - A patient in his 30s with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency seeks advice on...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in his 30s with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency seeks advice on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming 12-month travel abroad. What is the most crucial medication he should steer clear of?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Primaquine

      Explanation:

      Individuals with G6PD deficiency may experience haemolytic anaemia as a result of taking malaria prophylaxis, such as primaquine.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his neck which he first noticed two months ago. He tried several homeopathic medications but the lump steadily increased in size. He also noticed some shortness of breath and sweating at night. On examination, he has a large mass that is firm, non-tender and not fixed to deeper structures or to the skin. You suspect the mass is lymph nodes. He is slightly pale but no other masses are palpable. His temperature is 38°C.
      Which of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer: Excision biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging for Unilateral Lymphadenopathy: Excision Biopsy as the Best Option

      Unilateral lymphadenopathy without pain is most likely caused by lymphoma, either Hodgkin’s or non-Hodgkin’s. Tuberculosis is a less likely diagnosis but should not be ruled out, especially in patients with risk factors. Systemic symptoms (B symptoms) suggest Hodgkin’s disease. Excisional node biopsy is the best diagnostic option as it allows for the identification of lymphomas based on lymph node morphology. CT scans of the thorax and abdomen are used for staging Hodgkin’s lymphoma, while fine-needle aspiration biopsy is less helpful as it fails to reveal the lymph node architecture and may not retrieve Reed-Sternberg cells. MRI scans of the neck are not commonly used for lymphoma assessment, while ultrasonography is commonly used for thyroid lump detection and assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with lethargy. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with lethargy. A blood test is arranged:

      Hb 14.5 g/dl
      Plt 200 * 109/l
      WBC 5.8 * 109/l
      INR 6.3

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Stop warfarin + restart when INR < 3.0

      Correct Answer: Withhold 2 doses of warfarin and reduce subsequent maintenance dose

      Explanation:

      If there is no bleeding and the INR falls between 5.0-8.0, it is recommended by the BNF to hold back 1-2 doses of warfarin and decrease the following maintenance dose.

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients Taking Warfarin

      When a patient taking warfarin experiences high INR levels, the management approach depends on the severity of the situation. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K should be administered along with prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if available. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be administered. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      In cases where there is no bleeding but the INR is above 8.0, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K (1-5mg) can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0. If there is no bleeding, warfarin can be withheld for 1 or 2 doses and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.

      It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert...

    Correct

    • John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis. He is concerned that he might also have the condition and wants to undergo a blood test to confirm.

      Initially, you order an iron study profile that includes ferritin, transferrin saturation, and total iron binding capacity (TIBC).

      Which of the following blood test outcomes is most probable to suggest that John has the same ailment as Robert?

      Your Answer: Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC

      Explanation:

      To diagnose haemochromatosis, it is important to assess the patient’s risk factors and perform tests to determine their susceptibility. This includes evaluating their family history, age, and gender. Additionally, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be measured, and HFE mutation analysis may be recommended after genetic counselling.

      In haemochromatosis, transferrin saturation and ferritin levels are typically elevated, while TIBC is low. Serum ferritin is a highly sensitive test for iron overload in this condition, and normal levels essentially rule out iron overload. However, it has low specificity, as elevated levels can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, alcohol consumption, and liver damage.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency?

      Your Answer: Body stores take two years to deplete once a diet becomes inadequate

      Correct Answer: It is responsible for neural tube defect in the fetus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency and Supplementation

      Folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in fetal development and overall health. Inadequate intake of folic acid can lead to various health problems, including neural tube defects in the fetus. Pregnant women are particularly at risk and are advised to take folic acid supplements to meet their increased requirements.

      Contrary to popular belief, intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency. Instead, reduced intake is the primary cause, and deficiency can develop rapidly within four months in people with an inadequate diet. It is important to note that folic acid deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia, but it doesn’t typically result in neurological symptoms like vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Methotrexate, a drug used to treat various conditions, can impair folate utilization and cause megaloblastic anemia. Concomitant folic acid supplementation can reduce the overall toxicity of the drug without affecting its efficacy. However, it is recommended to avoid taking folic acid on the same day as methotrexate to prevent adverse effects on absorption.

      In summary, understanding folic acid deficiency and supplementation is crucial for maintaining overall health, especially during pregnancy and when taking certain medications. Adequate intake of folic acid can prevent various health problems and improve overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old boy has been brought into see you. During the last three...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy has been brought into see you. During the last three days of his holiday he was very tired and reluctant to play with his sister and had a temperature without any obvious cause.

      Which of the following other features would prompt you to order a full blood count to investigate further?

      Your Answer: Generalised lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Signs that Require Investigation in Children

      Leukaemia can present with symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, unexplained irritability, fever, recurrent infections, lymphadenopathy, bone pain, and unexplained bruising. If any of these symptoms are present, a full blood count and blood film should be conducted to investigate the possibility of leukaemia. If the results indicate leukaemia, an urgent referral should be made.

      Generalised lymphadenopathy with the above symptoms also requires further investigation. On the other hand, a healthy 3-year-old may experience two fevers a month due to exposure to new pathogens, especially if they have older siblings or attend nursery. A fever of 39°C makes a bacterial infection more likely, and a thorough history and examination should be carried out to identify the source of the fever.

      If a child has a vesicular rash, it is often caused by Chickenpox, which is associated with a prodromal period of being non-specifically unwell. If the rash looks like Chickenpox, no further investigations are required. Erythema in the throat and ears is usually caused by a viral illness, and no further investigations are necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and looks...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and looks to be anaemic. She mentions her periods are regular, but not particularly heavy. There are no other significant findings on history taking or examination. She is treated with an adequate dose of ferrous sulfate and takes the medication without any problem. After one month, her haemoglobin (Hb) level is 98 g/l.

      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Hb 98 g/l 115–165 g/l
      White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelet count 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.80% 0.5%–1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 71.5 fl 82–102 fl
      Vitamin B12 190 ng/l 130–700 ng/l
      Serum folate 7.8 ng/ml 6–20 ng/ml
      Ferritin 10 ng/ml 14–186 ng/ml

      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Double the dose of ferrous sulphate

      Correct Answer: Measure IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)

      Explanation:

      Management of Iron Deficiency Anemia

      Explanation:
      When managing a patient with iron deficiency anemia, it is important to consider the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. In this case, as the patient is tolerating ferrous sulfate well but has not seen an increase in hemoglobin levels, malabsorption such as coeliac disease should be suspected. The preferred initial investigation for coeliac disease is the IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) test.

      Changing the preparation of iron is not necessary as the patient has tolerated ferrous sulfate well. Doubling the dose of ferrous sulfate is also not recommended as the patient has already been treated with an adequate dose. A blood transfusion is not indicated unless the patient is acutely unwell and meets certain criteria.

      Treatment with iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 is not necessary as the patient’s folic acid and vitamin B12 levels are normal. The low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and ferritin levels indicate that the primary cause of anemia is iron deficiency. Therefore, the appropriate management would be to investigate for malabsorption and continue treatment with iron supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with restless legs syndrome. What blood test...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with restless legs syndrome. What blood test is most pertinent to conduct?

      Your Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      When it comes to diagnosing restless legs syndrome, there are several blood tests that could be considered. However, out of all of them, the most crucial one is the ferritin test. This is because a low level of ferritin in the blood is often the primary cause of secondary restless legs syndrome.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR)...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR) test. He is anticoagulated for atrial fibrillation and his INR has historically been unstable (recommended range 2–3). His last INR, 14 days ago, was 2.5. He is taking 4 mg of warfarin daily. The point-of-care INR reads 5.8. He has no active bleeding.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin for 48 hours, then restart at 4 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Choosing the Right Course of Action

      When a patient on warfarin presents with a high international normalised ratio (INR), prompt management is crucial to prevent haemorrhage. The appropriate course of action depends on the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding.

      If the patient has no active bleeding and their INR is between 5-8, warfarin should be withheld for 24-48 hours and restarted at a reduced dose. The INR should be rechecked 2-3 days later, and the cause investigated.

      If the patient is bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous vitamin K administered. It can be restarted once the INR is below 5.

      For an INR greater than 8 in a patient with no bleeding, the correct management is to stop warfarin, give vitamin K orally, and repeat the INR in 24 hours.

      Dose reduction alone is not sufficient for an INR greater than 5, and warfarin should also be withheld for 1-2 days, with rechecking sooner (3-4 days).

      While a confirmatory laboratory sample may be reasonable, it should not delay action being taken. Point-of-care testing is comparable in accuracy to laboratory samples, and management should reflect this.

      In summary, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires careful consideration of the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding. Prompt action and appropriate monitoring can prevent haemorrhage and ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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