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  • Question 1 - In fungal cell walls, which molecule is present in a notably high concentration?...

    Incorrect

    • In fungal cell walls, which molecule is present in a notably high concentration?

      Your Answer: Peptidoglycan

      Correct Answer: Chitin

      Explanation:

      Differences in Cell Wall Composition between Fungi and Bacteria

      Fungi and bacteria both have cell walls, but the composition of their cell walls differs. While bacterial cell walls contain lipopolysaccharide in Gram negative bacteria and lipoteichoic acid in Gram positive bacteria, fungal cell walls contain chitin and glucans. These polysaccharides are not found in bacterial cell walls, which do not contain cellulose like plant cell walls do.

      Peptidoglycan is a major structural component of Gram positive cell walls and a minor component of Gram negative cell walls. This compound is responsible for the ability of Gram positive cells to stain dark purple and Gram negative cells to stain pink. Peptidoglycan binds crystal violet, which is used in the Gram staining process. Overall, the differences in cell wall composition between fungi and bacteria contribute to their distinct characteristics and functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are requested to assess a patient in the emergency department who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a patient in the emergency department who has experienced abrupt onset chest pain, dyspnoea and diaphoresis. After reviewing the patient's ECG, you identify changes within a specific section and promptly arrange for transfer to the catheterisation laboratory.

      What is the underlying process indicated by the affected section of the ECG?

      Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Correct Answer: Period between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation

      Explanation:

      The ST segment on an ECG indicates the period when the entire ventricle is depolarized. In the case of a suspected myocardial infarction, it is crucial to examine the ST segment for any elevation or depression, which can indicate a STEMI or NSTEMI, respectively.

      The ECG does not have a specific section that corresponds to the firing of the sino-atrial node, which triggers atrial depolarization (represented by the p wave). The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.

      In atrial fibrillation, the p wave is absent or abnormal due to the irregular firing of the atria.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      85.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man presents to the GP for a routine hypertension check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the GP for a routine hypertension check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, osteoarthritis, rheumatic fever and COPD.

      During the physical examination, the GP hears a mid-late diastolic murmur that intensifies during expiration. The GP suspects that the patient may have mitral stenosis.

      What is the primary cause of this abnormality?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Stenosis

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.

      Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.

      Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath. A chest X-ray is urgently scheduled and sputum cultures are taken, revealing pneumonia. The patient is prescribed erythromycin. What is the mechanism of action of erythromycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of the 50S subunit of ribosomes is the mechanism of action of macrolides. Erythromycin, a macrolide, prevents the synthesis of bacterial proteins by targeting this subunit. It is important to note that macrolides should not be mistaken for tetracyclines, which target the 30S subunit of ribosomes.

      Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis work by targeting specific components of the bacterial ribosome, which is responsible for translating genetic information into proteins. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, causing errors in the reading of mRNA. Tetracyclines also bind to the 30S subunit, but block the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. Chloramphenicol and clindamycin both bind to the 50S subunit, inhibiting different steps in the process of protein synthesis. Macrolides also bind to the 50S subunit, but specifically inhibit the movement of tRNA from the acceptor site to the peptidyl site.

      While these antibiotics can be effective in treating bacterial infections, they can also have adverse effects. Aminoglycosides are known to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, while tetracyclines can cause discolouration of teeth and photosensitivity. Chloramphenicol is associated with a rare but serious side effect called aplastic anaemia, and clindamycin is a common cause of C. difficile diarrhoea. Macrolides can cause nausea, especially erythromycin, and can also inhibit the activity of certain liver enzymes (P450) and prolong the QT interval. Despite these potential side effects, these antibiotics are still commonly used in clinical practice, particularly in patients who are allergic to penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 5 - A young woman presents with sudden palpitations and difficulty breathing, and her ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presents with sudden palpitations and difficulty breathing, and her ECG reveals tachycardia. Which cardiac component typically experiences the most rapid depolarization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sino-atrial node

      Explanation:

      The heart’s conducting system is made up of specialized cardiac muscle cells and fibers that generate and rapidly transmit action potentials. This system is crucial for coordinating the contractions of the heart’s chambers during the cardiac cycle. When this system malfunctions due to conduction blockages or abnormal action potential sources, it can lead to arrhythmias.

      The conducting system has five main components:

      1. The sino-atrial (SAN) node, located in the right atrium, generates electrical signals.
      2. These signals stimulate the atria to contract and travel to the atrio-ventricular (AVN) node in the interatrial septum.
      3. After a delay, the stimulus diverges and is conducted through the left and right bundle of His.
      4. The conduction then passes to the respective Purkinje fibers for each side of the heart.
      5. Finally, the electrical signals reach the endocardium at the apex of the heart and the ventricular epicardium.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 6 - You are attending a seminar on adolescent eating disorders.
    What hormonal alteration is common...

    Incorrect

    • You are attending a seminar on adolescent eating disorders.
      What hormonal alteration is common in post-pubertal teenagers with extreme undernourishment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

      Explanation:

      Endocrine System Adaptations during Starvation

      During periods of starvation or severe malnutrition, the body undergoes various adaptations to cope with reduced food intake. One of the systems affected is the endocrine system, which experiences several changes. Glucagon levels increase, stimulating gluconeogenesis, while aldosterone, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and growth hormone levels also rise. Conversely, insulin production decreases, and there is a reduction in free and total T3, contributing to a lower metabolic rate. Prolonged starvation can also lead to a decrease in free T4. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism may occur, causing infertility, menstrual disturbances, amenorrhea, premature ovarian failure, and osteoporosis in women. Men may experience infertility, erectile dysfunction, and osteoporosis.

      In summary, the endocrine system undergoes significant adaptations during starvation or severe malnutrition. These changes include alterations in hormone levels, such as increased glucagon and decreased insulin production, as well as reduced free and total T3. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism may also occur, leading to various reproductive and bone-related issues. these adaptations is crucial in managing individuals experiencing starvation or malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations. Upon examination, her ECG reveals tall tented T waves. What causes the distinctive shape of the T wave, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 78-year-old woman with a history of neurosarcoidosis treated with steroids visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman with a history of neurosarcoidosis treated with steroids visits her GP complaining of intense facial pain. The pain lasts only a few seconds but is unbearable and worsens with exposure to cold air and touch.

      Upon examination, there are no focal neurological signs. However, a few minutes after the examination, she experiences severe pain on her right cheek, which she describes as always being over her right zygoma.

      Through which opening in the skull does the affected cranial nerve pass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Foramen rotundum, as the maxillary nerve passes through this foramen to exit the skull. This nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the upper teeth, gums, and palate. The patient’s trigeminal neuralgia is caused by irritation of the right-sided maxillary nerve.

      Cribriform plate is not the correct answer, as this area of the skull is where the olfactory nerve passes through to enable the sense of smell.

      Foramen ovale is also not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the mandibular nerve exits the skull to provide sensation to the lower face.

      Jugular foramen is not the correct answer, as this foramen is where the accessory nerve passes through to innervate the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - A 9-year-old child has been brought to the emergency department after falling onto...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child has been brought to the emergency department after falling onto their shoulder during a soccer game. They are experiencing pain across their shoulder and upper chest, which is most severe when the clavicular area is palpated. A visible bony deformity is present in the clavicular area. The physician suspects a fracture and orders an x-ray.

      What is the most probable location of the fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle third of the clavicle

      Explanation:

      The most frequent location for clavicle fractures is the middle third, which is the weakest part of the bone and lacks any ligaments or muscles. This is especially common in young children. Fractures in the proximal and distal thirds are less frequent and therefore incorrect answers. While sternum fractures can occur in high-force trauma, the mechanism of injury and visible bony deformity in this case suggest a clavicular fracture. Acromion fractures are rare and would not result in the observed bony injury.

      Anatomy of the Clavicle

      The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.

      The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.

      In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 10 - A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for a thyroidectomy due to symptomatic tracheal compression....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for a thyroidectomy due to symptomatic tracheal compression. She has a history of hyperthyroidism that was controlled with carbimazole. However, she was deemed a suitable candidate for thyroidectomy after presenting to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor.

      As a surgical resident assisting the ENT surgeon, you need to ligate the superior thyroid artery before removing the thyroid glands to prevent excessive bleeding. However, the superior laryngeal artery, a branch of the superior thyroid artery, is closely related to a structure that, if injured, can lead to loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.

      What is the correct identification of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve and the superior laryngeal artery are closely associated with each other. The superior laryngeal artery travels alongside the internal laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, beneath the thyrohyoid muscle. It originates from the superior thyroid artery near its separation from the external carotid artery.

      If the internal laryngeal nerve is damaged, it can result in a loss of sensation to the laryngeal mucosa. The nerve is situated beneath the mucous membrane of the piriform recess, making it vulnerable to injury from sharp objects like fish and chicken bones that may become stuck in the recess.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 11 - A 9-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his doctor complaining of recurrent nosebleeds...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his doctor complaining of recurrent nosebleeds and easy bruising that has been going on for a month. The doctor recalls that coeliac disease can lead to vitamin K malabsorption and orders a clotting screen.

      Which clotting factor is most likely to decrease in concentration first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VII

      Explanation:

      The first vitamin K dependent factor to decrease in vitamin K deficiency is Factor VII, which also has the shortest half-life among all such factors. Coeliac disease can lead to coagulopathy, which can range from no symptoms to severe bleeding. Malabsorption of vitamin K in the small intestine can cause a depletion of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It is important to note that patients may not present with severe bleeding until all vitamin K dependent factors have decreased. Factor II and Factor IX are also vitamin K dependent clotting factors, but they have longer half-lives than Factor VII and would not be the answer in this case. Factor V is not a vitamin K dependent clotting factor and is not affected by vitamin K deficiency.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old woman is brought in by her family. They report that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought in by her family. They report that she has been isolating herself and has not left the house for a few months. They suspect that she is experiencing auditory hallucinations and has been refusing to eat, believing that the food is contaminated. What is the recommended initial treatment for her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is typically reserved for patients who do not respond to other antipsychotic medications, as it has the potential to cause serious side effects. Based on the symptoms described in the scenario, the most likely diagnosis is schizophrenia, which is typically treated with antipsychotic medications such as Olanzapine. Sertraline is an SSRI commonly used for depression and anxiety, while Sodium Valproate is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder and epilepsy.

      Schizophrenia management guidelines were published by NICE in 2009. The guidelines recommend that first-line treatment for schizophrenia should involve oral atypical antipsychotics. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients. It is important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare professionals should take necessary measures to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that there is a significant...

    Incorrect

    • While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that there is a significant family history of a particular disease. Diseases that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner typically manifest in early adulthood due to structural gene abnormalities, with both males and females being affected equally. Which of the following diseases does not follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Binding Proteins Resulting in Iron Deposition and Multiple Organ Dysfunction

      Iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can lead to various health complications. This condition is characterized by the deposition of iron in different organs, including the heart, liver, pancreas, and skin. The abnormality in binding proteins results in the accumulation of iron in these organs, leading to cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis, pancreatic failure, and skin pigmentation.

      This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the condition. The recessive form of this condition is also known as infantile polycystic kidney disease, which predominantly affects children.

      Overall, iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can cause multiple organ dysfunction and can be inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Early diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial to prevent further complications and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old man presents for a follow-up after experiencing an acute gout attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man presents for a follow-up after experiencing an acute gout attack 10 days ago. He has a history of similar episodes and currently has no symptoms. He consumes three glasses of alcohol daily and has a BMI of 32 kg/m2. His vital signs are within normal limits, and his lab results are as follows:

      - Calcium: 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - Uric acid: 8.2 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)

      The patient is prescribed first-line management for urate-lowering therapy. Which mechanism of action corresponds to the prescribed medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of xanthine oxidase

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits the xanthine oxidase enzyme, which is responsible for converting hypoxanthine to uric acid. This makes it a commonly used first-line urate-lowering therapy for patients with recurrent episodes of gout. Gout is a painful condition caused by the deposition of sodium urate crystals in the joint cavity, leading to inflammation and swelling. Allopurinol reduces the production of uric acid, which can exacerbate gout flares. However, it should not be used during acute gout flares as it can worsen symptoms. Urate-oxidase analogues like pegloticase are third-line therapies that convert uric acid to allantoin, a water-soluble compound. NSAIDs are cyclooxygenase inhibitors that can help manage acute gout flares but do not lower uric acid levels. Colchicine inhibits microtubule polymerization and is used for acute gout flares but does not lower uric acid levels.

      Allopurinol can interact with other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. It can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine when used with azathioprine, reduced renal clearance when used with cyclophosphamide, and an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline. Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 15 - The femoral nerve is accidentally severed by a negligent surgeon during a failed...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral nerve is accidentally severed by a negligent surgeon during a failed femoro-popliteal bypass surgery. What function will be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extension of the knee joint

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps muscle, which is responsible for knee joint extension, is supplied by the femoral nerve.

      The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.

      To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 2-month-old infant is sent to a paediatric cardiologist after an unusual discovery...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old infant is sent to a paediatric cardiologist after an unusual discovery on a chest x-ray. The parents of the baby are carriers of Pompe disease. What is the most probable abnormality that was observed on the chest x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old man arrived at the emergency department following a syncopal episode during...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man arrived at the emergency department following a syncopal episode during a game of basketball. He is typically healthy with no prior medical history, but he does mention experiencing occasional palpitations, which he believes may be due to alcohol or caffeine consumption. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that his father passed away suddenly at the age of 40 due to a heart condition. What is the underlying pathophysiological alteration in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asymmetric septal hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      When a young patient presents with symptoms of syncope and chest discomfort, along with a family history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM), it is important to consider the possibility of this condition. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior movement (SAM) of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve on echocardiogram or cMR are supportive of HOCM. This condition is caused by a genetic defect in the beta-myosin heavy chain protein gene. While Brugada syndrome may also be a consideration, it is not listed as a possible answer due to its underlying mechanism of sodium channelopathy.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman had an open appendectomy 3 days ago and has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman had an open appendectomy 3 days ago and has been experiencing abdominal pain and nausea since then. She has also lost her appetite and has not had a bowel movement. On examination, her abdomen is slightly distended and tender to the touch, but her incision wound looks normal. Her vital signs are stable with a normal temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate. What is the most probable complication causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Explanation:

      Paralytic ileus is a frequent complication that can occur after gastrointestinal surgery, often presenting with symptoms of pseudo-obstruction such as constipation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal discomfort and distension.

      Adhesional small bowel obstruction is less likely as a complication in the first few days after surgery, and typically presents with more severe symptoms such as vomiting, tenderness, and distension. It is also more commonly seen several weeks to years after abdominal surgery.

      Anastomotic leak is a rare but serious complication that can occur when there is a surgical join in the bowel. It is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and tachycardia, and requires prompt identification and treatment to prevent sepsis and organ failure.

      Infection is another potential complication, but in this case, there were no signs of infection at the wound site such as erythema, pus, or induration. Symptoms of an infected wound may include abdominal pain, fever, and signs of sepsis.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by reduced bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves nil-by-mouth initially, which may progress to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemic, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. Overall, postoperative ileus is a common complication that requires careful management to ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with recurrent epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with recurrent epigastric pain. An OGD reveals the presence of varices in the lower esophagus. To prevent variceal bleeding, which medication would be the most suitable prophylactic option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      A non-cardioselective β blocker (NSBB) is the appropriate medication for prophylaxis against oesophageal bleeding in patients with varices. NSBBs work by causing splanchnic vasoconstriction, which reduces portal blood flow. Omeprazole, warfarin, and unfractionated heparin are not suitable options for this purpose.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old male is referred to the endocrine clinic due to a change...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is referred to the endocrine clinic due to a change in his shoe size and numbness in his hand. He reports increased sweating and oily skin. The endocrinologist suspects pituitary gland pathology and orders an MRI. What is the most abundant secretory cell type in the anterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatotrophs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions

      Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.

      GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.

      In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 21 - A 33-year-old female patient complained of pain and bleeding during sexual intercourse. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female patient complained of pain and bleeding during sexual intercourse. Upon referral to colposcopy, she was diagnosed with cervical cancer. The doctor informed her that she would need to undergo surgery to remove the tumour and also remove the lymph nodes that drain the cervix.

      Which group of lymph nodes is the doctor referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      The cervix primarily drains into the internal iliac lymph nodes. The deep inguinal lymph nodes do not drain the cervix, but they do drain the clitoris and glans penis. The external iliac lymph nodes are not significantly involved in the lymphatic drainage of the cervix, but they do play a role in the drainage of the bladder fundus, prostate, and adductor region of the thigh. The para-aortic nodes drain the ovaries, but not the cervix. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes are not involved in the drainage of the cervix, but they are important in the drainage of the anal canal (below the pectinate line), scrotum, and perineum.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following carpal bones is a sesamoid bone in the tendon...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following carpal bones is a sesamoid bone in the tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris? Also, could you please adjust the age in the question slightly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pisiform

      Explanation:

      The bone in question is a small one with only one articular facet. It protrudes from the triquetral bone on the ulnar side of the wrist, and is commonly considered a sesamoid bone located within the tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris.

      Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks

      The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.

      In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 23 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The placebo group experienced 150 myocardial infarctions (MIs), while the group treated with the new statin had 100 infarctions. What is the yearly percentage of MIs in the diabetic population who received the placebo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Incidence of Myocardial Infarction in Diabetic Patients

      This study found that out of 1000 diabetic patients treated with a placebo over a five-year period, there were 150 cases of myocardial infarction (MI). This means that the rate of infarction in this group was 15%, which translates to an annual MI rate of 3%. These findings provide important information for healthcare professionals treating diabetic patients, as they highlight the increased risk of MI in this population. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this risk and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage cardiovascular complications in diabetic patients. This study emphasizes the need for continued research and development of effective prevention and treatment strategies for diabetic patients at risk for MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. He is currently taking sodium valproate as his only medication. A venous blood gas is obtained immediately.

      What are the expected venous blood gas results for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low pH, high lactate, low SaO2

      Explanation:

      Acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, which enhances oxygen delivery to the tissues by causing more oxygen to dissociate from Hb. postictal lactic acidosis is a common occurrence in patients with tonic-clonic seizures, and it is typically managed by monitoring for spontaneous resolution. During a seizure, tissue hypoxia can cause lactic acidosis. Therefore, a venous blood gas test for this patient should show low pH, high lactate, and low SaO2.

      If the venous blood gas test shows a high pH, normal lactate, and low SaO2, it would not be consistent with postictal lactic acidosis. This result indicates alkalosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal losses, renal losses, or Cushing syndrome.

      A high pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 would also be inconsistent with postictal lactic acidosis because tissue hypoxia would cause an increase in lactate levels.

      Similarly, low pH, high lactate, and normal SaO2 would not be expected in postictal lactic acidosis because acidosis would shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin.

      Finally, normal pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 are unlikely to be found in this patient shortly after a seizure. However, if the venous blood gas test was taken days after the seizure following an uncomplicated clinical course, these findings would be more plausible.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 25 - A 21-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 10-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 10-week history of abdominal pain and tenesmus. He reports experiencing intermittent diarrhea that has been increasing in frequency and has noticed fresh red blood on wiping. During the examination, he exhibits generalized abdominal tenderness, which is most severe when palpating the left iliac fossa. Several tests are ordered.

      What is a characteristic finding associated with his underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mucosal inflammation

      Explanation:

      Patients with UC have a deficient mucous layer and reduced goblet cell production, while those with Crohn’s disease exhibit an increase in goblet cells. Additionally, Crohn’s disease may present with rose-thorn ulcers in the terminal ileum after a barium swallow, which manifest as deep linear ulcers.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and is currently on medication. What is the probable reason for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulceration

      Explanation:

      The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.

      Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.

      Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.

      Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old female patient is being treated by a haematologist after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient is being treated by a haematologist after experiencing a venous thromboembolism. Her mother has a history of multiple venous thromboembolic events. The patient has no significant medical history, no comorbidities, and is a non-smoker with a body mass index of 20 kg/m2. Her blood clotting tests show normal APTT and PT. The haematologist suspects an inherited thrombophilia. What is the most common diagnosis in a patient with this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden)

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is the most prevalent inherited thrombophilia, causing activated protein C resistance. This mutation leads to increased clotting as Factor V is less susceptible to degradation by protein C. The APTT and PT typically remain normal. Protein S deficiency is a rare thrombophilia, where the lack of protein S results in the inability to activate protein C and degrade factor V and factor VIII. Antithrombin III deficiency is another rare disorder where the absence of antithrombin III leads to unregulated thrombin. The prothrombin gene mutation is the second most common inherited thrombophilia.

      Thrombophilia is a condition that causes an increased risk of blood clots. It can be inherited or acquired. Inherited thrombophilia is caused by genetic mutations that affect the body’s natural ability to prevent blood clots. The most common cause of inherited thrombophilia is a gain of function polymorphism called factor V Leiden, which affects the protein that helps regulate blood clotting. Other genetic mutations that can cause thrombophilia include deficiencies of naturally occurring anticoagulants such as antithrombin III, protein C, and protein S. The prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) vary depending on the specific genetic mutation.

      Acquired thrombophilia can be caused by conditions such as antiphospholipid syndrome or the use of certain medications, such as the combined oral contraceptive pill. These conditions can affect the body’s natural ability to prevent blood clots and increase the risk of VTE. It is important to identify and manage thrombophilia to prevent serious complications such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 28 - To plan for the recruitment of new geriatric nurses, what data would the...

    Incorrect

    • To plan for the recruitment of new geriatric nurses, what data would the hospital need to collect to assess the period prevalence of geriatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of diabetes cases out of the total population during a specified period of time

      Explanation:

      The period prevalence of diabetes is calculated by dividing the number of identified cases during a specified period of time by the total number of people in that population. This provides an estimate of the proportion of individuals in the population who have diabetes during that time frame.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 29 - A fetus is diagnosed with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia, with visible protrusion of...

    Incorrect

    • A fetus is diagnosed with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia, with visible protrusion of bowel into the thoracic cavity and hypoplastic lungs. What is the embryological origin of these internal organs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The endoderm is responsible for the development of the epithelium in the digestive system and respiratory system, as well as the pancreas and liver.

      Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives

      Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 30 - An aged gentleman presents to the ER with symptoms of sepsis and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An aged gentleman presents to the ER with symptoms of sepsis and abdominal discomfort. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with perforated diverticulitis.

      What group of bacteria is expected to be detected on a blood culture obtained from this elderly patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram-negative bacilli

      Explanation:

      Gram-negative rods are typically responsible for surgical infections that originate from the gut, which occur as a result of bacterial translocation from gut contents.

      Overview of Surgical Microbiology

      Surgical microbiology is a vast topic that covers various organisms causing common surgical infections. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus that is a common cause of cutaneous infections and abscesses. It is ideally treated with penicillin, but many strains have become resistant through beta-lactamase production. Streptococcus pyogenes is a gram-positive bacteria that produces beta haemolysis on blood agar plates. It releases virulence factors into the host, resulting in rapid tissue destruction. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod that produces lethal toxins resulting in haemolytic-uraemic syndrome. It is resistant to many antibiotics used to treat gram-positive infections and acquires resistance rapidly. Campylobacter jejuni is a curved, gram-negative, non-sporulating bacteria that is one of the commonest causes of diarrhoea worldwide. Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative, helix-shaped rod that colonises the gastric antrum and irritates, resulting in increased gastrin release and higher levels of gastric acid.

      In summary, surgical microbiology covers a wide range of organisms that can cause infections. It is essential to understand the characteristics of these organisms to diagnose and treat infections effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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