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  • Question 1 - A 2-day-old male is brought to the neonatal unit due to bilious vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old male is brought to the neonatal unit due to bilious vomiting and decreased feeding. He was delivered without complications at 32 weeks gestation. An abdominal X-ray reveals intramural gas, prompting the cessation of oral feeding and initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis

      Explanation:

      Necrotising enterocolitis can be identified by the presence of pneumatosis intestinalis on an abdominal X-ray.

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history of vomiting and fever. He has no significant medical history. On examination, his urine dipstick is positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood. An abdominal ultrasound rules out a posterior urethral valve but shows retrograde flow of urine into the ureters from the bladder. What is the most suitable initial investigation for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)

      Explanation:

      The preferred investigation for reflux nephropathy is micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG). MCUG is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing vesicoureteric reflux and associated reflux nephropathy. During the procedure, a catheter is inserted into the patient’s bladder, and a radio-opaque dye is injected. The patient then empties their bladder, and x-rays are taken to detect any reflux of the dye into the ureters, which confirms the diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux and reflux nephropathy.

      CT kidneys ureters and bladder is an inappropriate investigation for reflux nephropathy, as it cannot detect this condition. This type of scan is typically used to diagnose kidney stones, not reflux nephropathy.

      DMSA scan is not the first-line investigation for reflux nephropathy. While DMSA scans can be used to assess the extent of renal scarring caused by vesicoureteric reflux, they are not the preferred method for diagnosing this condition. DMSA scans are nuclear imaging scans, which makes them unsuitable as a first-line investigation for suspected reflux nephropathy.

      Intravenous pyelography is not used to assess reflux nephropathy. This type of investigation is typically used to evaluate haematuria or flank pain.

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 24-hour-old newborn, born at 35 weeks to a healthy mother, is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-hour-old newborn, born at 35 weeks to a healthy mother, is currently being examined on the ward. The baby appears to be in good health on initial inspection and the mother has not reported any concerns thus far. During the examination, the doctor observes a large volume, collapsing pulse, a heaving apex beat, and a left subclavicular thrill. On auscultation of heart sounds, the doctor detects a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur. An urgent echocardiogram is ordered by the doctor, which confirms their suspected diagnosis. No other abnormalities or defects are detected on the echo.

      What would be the most appropriate initial management, given the findings and likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent surgical opinion

      Correct Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis based on the examination findings is pulmonary ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is characterized by a ‘machinery-like’ murmur. The recommended treatment for this condition is the administration of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibits prostaglandin production and promotes duct closure. The use of prostaglandin E1 is not appropriate in this case, as it would keep the duct open. Referral for routine or urgent surgery is also not necessary, as no other congenital heart defects were found on the echocardiogram. Monitoring and repeating echocardiograms alone are not sufficient and medical intervention is required for closure of the duct.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection. During examination, you observe multiple bruises on his arms with a circular pattern. Which type of bruising is more frequently associated with physical abuse in children?

      Your Answer: Pelvic fracture

      Correct Answer: Humeral fracture

      Explanation:

      Whenever there is suspicion of non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider the patient’s clinical history. Child abuse is commonly associated with fractures in the radial, humeral, and femoral bones. On the other hand, fractures in the distal radial, elbow, clavicular, and tibial bones are not typically linked to NAI in paediatrics.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.

      Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward with a cough and...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward with a cough and lethargy. His dad is concerned as his breathing is fast and he has had a high temperature which hasn't improved with paracetamol. He is normally healthy and up to date with all his vaccinations.

      Upon examination, he is tachypnoeic with a temperature of 39.5ºC. He has crackles in the left lower zone on auscultation. Blood tests reveal the following results:

      - Hb 132 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 290* 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 18.5* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Na+ 140 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine 90 µmol/L (55-120)
      - CRP 85 mg/L (<5)

      A chest radiograph shows a left lower lobe consolidation. What is the most likely causative agent of his pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      In children, S. pneumoniae is the most probable cause of bacterial pneumonia, as indicated by the presentation of raised inflammatory markers and lobar consolidation on chest x-ray. The child is experiencing persistent fever and tachypnea. Other potential causes include Mycoplasma pneumonia or Chlamydia pneumoniae, while RSV is more commonly associated with bronchiolitis in children under 2 years old. Haemophilus influenzae and Bordetella pertussis are less likely to be responsible for pneumonia in immunized and non-immunocompromised children. Legionella pneumophila is an unlikely cause of pneumonia in a child of this age, despite its potential to cause severe pneumonia.

      Pneumonia is a common illness in children, with S. pneumoniae being the most likely cause of bacterial pneumonia. The British Thoracic Society has published guidelines for the management of community acquired pneumonia in children. According to these guidelines, amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for all children with pneumonia. Macrolides may be added if there is no response to first-line therapy, or if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected. In cases of pneumonia associated with influenzae, co-amoxiclav is recommended. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment and management of pneumonia in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3476
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  • Question 6 - A parent brings their 3-week-old girl, who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome,...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings their 3-week-old girl, who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome, to hospital. She has been feeding poorly and has been constipated.

      On examination, her abdomen is distended.

      A colonic biopsy shows absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa.

      What is the initial management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with monitoring of disease progression

      Correct Answer: Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation

      Explanation:

      Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation is the initial management for Hirschsprung’s disease. The absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa is a diagnostic criterion, and serial rectal irrigation should be performed before surgery to prevent enterocolitis. Conservative management is not recommended according to current guidelines, and high dose steroids have no role in this scenario. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but serial rectal irrigation should be performed beforehand to prevent enterocolitis. Laxatives are not appropriate for medical management in Hirschsprung’s disease.

      Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.

      In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery due to persistent leg pains. Which...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery due to persistent leg pains. Which one of the following would not be consistent with a diagnosis of 'growing pains'?

      Your Answer: Present upon waking in the morning

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growing Pains in Children

      Growing pains are a common complaint among children aged 3-12 years. These pains are often attributed to ‘benign idiopathic nocturnal limb pains of childhood’ in rheumatology, as they are not necessarily related to growth. Boys and girls are equally affected by growing pains, which are characterized by intermittent pain in the legs without obvious cause.

      One of the key features of growing pains is that they are never present at the start of the day after the child has woken up. Additionally, there is no limp or limitation of physical activity, and the child is systemically well with normal physical examination and motor milestones. Symptoms may worsen after a day of vigorous activity.

      Overall, growing pains are a benign condition that can be managed with reassurance and simple measures such as massage or heat application. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of leg pain in children, especially if there are any worrying features present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department with a displaced supracondylar...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department with a displaced supracondylar fracture. It necessitates manipulation using procedural sedation.
      What would be the most appropriate option?

      Your Answer: Midazolam

      Explanation:

      Procedural Sedation: Comparing the Benefits and Risks of Different Drugs

      Procedural sedation is a common practice in medical procedures to reduce pain and anxiety in patients. However, choosing the right drug for sedation can be challenging as each drug has its own benefits and risks. In this article, we will compare the benefits and risks of different drugs commonly used for procedural sedation.

      Midazolam is a drug used for mild to moderate pain levels. It can be administered orally or intranasally and has fewer side effects than other drugs. On the other hand, ketamine is an excellent choice for procedural sedation, especially in children. It has powerful analgesic and sedative effects and can be administered intranasally, reducing the need for invasive interventions. However, ketamine has side effects such as tachycardia, hypertension, muscle twitching, rash, laryngospasm, apnea, vomiting, and recovery agitation.

      Morphine is helpful for pain management but is not suitable for procedural sedation due to respiratory depression. Propofol is a general anesthetic agent with a longer half-life than midazolam and ketamine. It can adversely affect hemodynamic status, making midazolam a better choice for sedation. Finally, lorazepam is primarily used for managing agitation and not procedural sedation.

      In conclusion, choosing the right drug for procedural sedation requires careful consideration of the patient’s condition and the benefits and risks of each drug. Midazolam and ketamine are commonly used for procedural sedation, but each has its own benefits and risks that should be carefully evaluated before administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A one-month-old baby boy develops bluish skin and mucous membrane discoloration. The pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A one-month-old baby boy develops bluish skin and mucous membrane discoloration. The pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. The arterial oxygen saturation is 70%, and the arterial partial pressure of oxygen is 35 mmHg (normal range is 75-100 mmHg) after receiving 100% oxygen. There are no signs of respiratory distress or pulmonary edema upon examination. What is the probable reason for the infant's discoloration?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cyanotic Congenital Heart Disease in Newborns

      Cyanotic congenital heart disease is a condition that results in low oxygen levels in the blood, leading to a bluish discoloration of the skin. There are several causes of this condition in newborns, including transposition of the great arteries (TGA), tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis, hypoplastic left heart syndrome, severe ventricular septal defect, and tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defect.

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. In this condition, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are switched, which is incompatible with life without an associated mixing defect such as atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, or patent ductus arteriosus.

      Tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in cyanosis early after birth due to a severely stenotic pulmonary outflow, which maximizes the right-to-left shunt through the ventricular septal defect.

      Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a cyanotic congenital heart disease that is usually associated with pulmonary edema. This condition is caused by dysgenesis of the left ventricle, which leads to mixing of arterial and venous blood and subsequent cyanosis.

      Severe ventricular septal defect results in left-to-right shunting of blood, which typically does not result in cyanosis until progressive cardiac decompensation occurs. This makes it an unlikely cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns who present with cyanosis immediately after birth.

      Tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defects is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in right-to-left blood shunting without pulmonary edema early after birth, but it is less common than other causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      114.5
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to increasing lethargy over the past few days. The child has a temperature of 38.6ºC and appears more pale than usual. Upon physical examination, petechiae and bruising are noted on the lower extremities. The following blood results are obtained: Hb 94 g/L (135-180), Platelets 86 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 26 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Neutrophils 1.0 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0).

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common childhood cancer is ALL, which is characterized by anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopaenia. Symptoms include pallor, lethargy, splenomegaly, and petechiae. In contrast, aplastic anaemia is characterized by pancytopenia and hypoplastic bone marrow, which would result in leukopenia instead of leukocytosis. Thalassaemia, a genetic condition that causes anaemia, does not match the patient’s blood film or clinical presentation. ITP, an immune-mediated reduction in platelet count, would not explain the leukocytosis and neutropaenia seen in the patient. Meningitis, which can cause fever and purpura, is unlikely to be bacterial meningitis as it would result in neutrophilia instead of neutropaenia.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old...

    Correct

    • The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old baby boy. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks gestation, weighing 3300 grams, and was in good condition. The antenatal scans were normal, and it was a low-risk pregnancy without family history of congenital disorders. During your examination, you observe a ventral urethral meatus while examining the external genitalia. What condition is commonly associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      What conditions are commonly associated with hypospadias in patients?

      Hypospadias is often an isolated abnormality in children, but it is important to consider the possibility of other malformations. Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) and inguinal hernias are conditions commonly associated with hypospadias. It is crucial to examine the groin and scrotum in children with hypospadias and ensure they have passed urine in the first 24 hours of life. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, renal agenesis, and Turner’s syndrome are not typically associated with hypospadias.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father. He has noticed a red rash on the flexor aspects of her knees and on the neck and reports she is constantly trying to scratch. On examination the child appears well. There is evidence of excoriation over red patches of dry skin but there is no crusting or evidence of infection. A diagnosis of eczema is made. What is the first line treatment in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Bandages and dressings

      Correct Answer: Topical emollients

      Explanation:

      When managing eczema in children who have just been diagnosed and have not received any treatment, the initial step is to prescribe topical emollients as the first-line treatment. If the symptoms persist, topical steroids can be used in conjunction with emollients, but it is important to ensure that emollients are used before adding steroids.

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar...

    Incorrect

    • An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar scores at birth. During examination, the infant is found to have micrognathia, low set ears, overlapping fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      A neonate is born exhibiting micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers, which are all classic signs of Edward’s syndrome. This childhood genetic syndrome is often diagnosed prenatally, but in some cases, it may not be detected until after birth when the neonate presents with low apgar scores. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for those with Edward’s syndrome is very high, and the average life expectancy is only 5-12 days. Survivors of this syndrome often experience complications affecting multiple organs. It is important to note that many genetic syndromes share similar features, making clinical diagnosis challenging without genetic testing. As such, it is essential to be familiar with the most common features of each syndrome for final medical examinations.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - After an emergency Caesarian-section for foetal distress, the consultant obstetrician hands the paediatrician...

    Incorrect

    • After an emergency Caesarian-section for foetal distress, the consultant obstetrician hands the paediatrician a normal term female infant. You observe that the infant is apnoeic, floppy and blue in colour.

      What would be your initial step?

      Your Answer: Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation

      Correct Answer: Dry the neonate

      Explanation:

      According to UK resuscitation guidelines, the first step in neonatal resuscitation is to dry the baby, remove any wet towels, and note the time. Within 30 seconds, an Apgar assessment should be conducted to evaluate the baby’s tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, the airway should be opened, and 5 inflation breaths should be given within 60 seconds. If there is no increase in heart rate, chest movement should be checked. If the chest is not moving, the head position should be rechecked, and other airway maneuvers should be considered. Inflation breaths should be repeated, and a response should be looked for. If there is still no increase in heart rate, chest compressions should be started with 3 compressions to each breath. The heart rate should be reassessed every 30 seconds. If the heart rate is still slow or undetectable, venous access and drugs should be considered. Atropine and intubation are later steps in the management.

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. Her mother noticed her face twitching and mouth drooling while trying to wake her up this morning. The episode lasted for 30 seconds and the girl was fully aware of what was happening. The girl has been feeling drowsy and confused for the past 15 minutes. She has been healthy and has no medical conditions. Her mother is concerned that she has been staying up late for the past few nights, which may have contributed to her fatigue. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Absence seizure

      Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is benign rolandic epilepsy, which is a syndrome that typically affects children between the ages of 4-12. The main symptom is a focal seizure that occurs before or after bedtime, involving facial twitching, drooling, and twitching of one limb or side of the body. The EEG will show centrotemporal spikes, indicating that the seizure originates in the rolandic fissure. This condition has a good prognosis and may not require treatment depending on the severity and frequency of the seizures.

      Incorrect answers include absence seizure, infantile spasms, and juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Absence seizure is a generalised seizure that does not involve limb twitching or focal symptoms. Infantile spasms typically occur in infants and are associated with developmental delays. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is a focal syndrome that involves myoclonic jerks and daytime absences, which can progress to secondarily generalised seizures.

      Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.

      Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.

      It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.

      Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A parent brings her 5-year-old son into surgery as she suspects he may...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings her 5-year-old son into surgery as she suspects he may have head lice. Which of the following statements about head lice is false?

      Your Answer: Caused by Pediculus capitis

      Correct Answer: Children should be excluded from school until treatment has been started

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to exclude children from school due to head lice.

      Understanding Head Lice

      Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits are the empty egg shells and are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.

      Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. They cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.

      To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. School exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.

      Understanding head lice is important to prevent its spread and manage the condition effectively. By knowing the symptoms, diagnosis, and management, we can take necessary precautions and seek appropriate treatment when needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has been experiencing coryza and a fever of 38C for the past 3 days. This morning her father noticed a red rash on both cheeks and pallor surrounding her mouth. What is the most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      The cause of the boy’s symptoms, which include a red rash following coryza and fever, is erythema infectiosum, also known as slapped-cheek syndrome. This infection is caused by parvovirus b19, a common organism responsible for childhood infections.

      The table provides information on various childhood infections including chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, erythema infectiosum, scarlet fever, and hand, foot and mouth disease. Each infection has its own unique features such as fever, rash, and systemic upset. Chickenpox starts with fever and an itchy rash that spreads from the head and trunk. Measles has a prodrome of irritability and conjunctivitis, followed by a rash that starts behind the ears and spreads to the whole body. Mumps causes fever, malaise, and parotitis. Rubella has a pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads to the whole body, along with suboccipital and postauricular lymphadenopathy. Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, causes lethargy, fever, and a slapped-cheek rash. Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci and causes fever, malaise, tonsillitis, and a rash with fine punctate erythema. Hand, foot and mouth disease causes mild systemic upset, sore throat, and vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents have recently arrived in the UK from Syria, seeking refuge. She received a Hepatitis B vaccination before leaving Syria.
      What other vaccinations should she be provided with now?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B

      Explanation:

      Paediatric Vaccination Schedule for 2-Month-Old Babies in the UK

      The correct vaccination regime for a 2-month-old baby in the UK includes diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B. However, the guidelines have been updated since 2015, and now include pneumococcus (PCV) vaccination at 12 weeks. Meningitis B is vaccinated against at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year, while meningitis C and PCV are vaccinated against at 12 months. Rotavirus and meningitis B are also recommended in the vaccination schedule at 8 weeks old, but meningitis C is not included in this particular regime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - The mother of a 3-year-old child is worried about her child's developmental progress....

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old child is worried about her child's developmental progress. Upon assessment, you observe that the child can only build a tower of five blocks at most and can only speak in two to three-word phrases. What is the typical age range for a healthy child to achieve these developmental milestones?

      Your Answer: 18 months

      Correct Answer: 2 ½ years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Delay in Children

      Developmental delay in children can be a cause for concern, especially when they fail to meet certain milestones at their age. For instance, a 4-year-old child should be able to speak in full sentences, play interactively, and build structures with building blocks. However, when a child exhibits a degree of developmental delay, it could be due to various factors such as neurological and neurodevelopmental problems like cerebral palsy and epilepsy, unmet physical and psychological needs, sensory impairment, genetic conditions like Down’s syndrome, and ill health.

      It is important to understand the causes of developmental delay in children to provide appropriate interventions and support. Parents and caregivers should observe their child’s development and seek professional help if they notice any delays or abnormalities. Early intervention can help address developmental delays and improve a child’s overall well-being. By the factors that contribute to developmental delay, we can work towards creating a supportive environment that promotes healthy growth and development in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by...

    Incorrect

    • A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his mother due to concerns of increasing lethargy and refusal to feed over the past 3 days. On examination, the baby's respiratory rate is 66 breaths/min, oxygen saturations are 95% on air, heart rate is 178 bpm, blood pressure is 64/48 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5ºC. The only notable findings are lethargy and signs of dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: GORD

      Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old boy visits his school counselor with his older brother. He reveals...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy visits his school counselor with his older brother. He reveals that his stepfather has been physically abusing him for the past year.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for a forensic examination

      Explanation:

      Urgent Actions to Take in Cases of Alleged Sexual Abuse

      In cases of alleged sexual abuse, it is crucial to take urgent actions to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. One of the most important steps is to refer the patient for a forensic examination by a qualified practitioner as soon as possible. This will enable the collection of any remaining evidence and prompt treatment for any physical effects of the assault. The patient should also be referred to social services and other support services that specialize in dealing with victims of sexual assault.

      It is essential to discuss the case with the safeguarding lead, but this discussion must take place while the patient is protected in a place of safety, rather than after she has returned home. It is also important to advise the patient that nothing can be done without her parent’s consent, but if she has capacity, she may not need parental consent. Encouraging her to speak to her parents for support is advisable if she does not feel this will put her at further risk.

      Advising the patient to self-present at the police station may discourage her from seeking further support. Instead, an appropriate referral should be made to ensure that the correct action is taken to protect the child’s safety. Performing a pelvic examination and swabs may cause distress to the patient, and it is best to have a fully qualified forensic examiner perform a thorough examination.

      In summary, taking urgent actions and following proper procedures is crucial in cases of alleged sexual abuse to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 2-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of rectal bleeding. Her parents report seeing fresh blood in her nappies mixed with her stool. Upon examination, she appears alert, active, afebrile, and hemodynamically stable. She has non-specific abdominal tenderness without guarding, and there is no active bleeding. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, which shows no abnormalities. Meckel's diverticulum is suspected. What is the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient?

      Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Correct Answer: Technetium scan

      Explanation:

      When investigating stable children with suspected Meckel’s diverticulum, a technetium scan is the preferred method.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.

      In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.

      To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day history of fever and a new onset rash on the arms, legs, and abdomen that started today. Despite the fever, the baby has been behaving normally and does not seem bothered by the rash. Upon closer examination, the rash appears red with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is mostly on the limbs and there are no signs of scratching. The baby's temperature is now normal at 36.9ºC. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus

      Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6

      Explanation:

      Human herpes virus 6 is the cause of Roseola infantum, a viral illness that is characterized by a fever lasting for 3 days followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the 4th day. The fever can develop quickly and may lead to febrile convulsions. The rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs, unlike chickenpox which usually presents with a central rash. HHV6 is known to attack the nervous system, which can result in rare complications such as encephalitis and febrile fits after the fever has subsided. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein Barr virus, while genital herpes is caused by Human herpes virus 2. Bacterial meningitis, which is characterized by symptoms of meningism such as photophobia, stiff neck, and headache, along with a non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia, is commonly caused by Neisseria meningitidis.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - You are an FY1 on the neonatal ward round with your consultant. Whilst...

    Correct

    • You are an FY1 on the neonatal ward round with your consultant. Whilst seeing a newborn that has been admitted with respiratory distress, the consultant you're with decides to quiz you on the pathophysiology.
      'What is the most likely organism to cause respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants?

      Your Answer: Parainfluenza virus

      Explanation:

      The majority of croup cases are caused by the parainfluenza virus, while bronchiolitis is commonly caused by RSV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with pseudomonas, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 12-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a headache. During the...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a headache. During the examination, she mentions that the lights are bothering her eyes and the doctor observes a purpuric rash on her chest. Her respiratory rate is 22/min, heart rate is 140/min, and blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. Which of the following tests should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Performing a lumbar puncture is not recommended for patients with meningococcal septicaemia, which is a contraindication. In cases of suspected meningitis and sepsis, a coagulation screen and blood glucose may be ordered in secondary care, while blood cultures and serum lactate are typically included in the sepsis 6 protocol.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - You are asked to assess a male infant born 18 hours ago, at...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a male infant born 18 hours ago, at 35 weeks gestation, due to concerns raised by the nursing staff. Upon conducting a comprehensive examination and taking note of the mother's positive group B streptococcus status, you tentatively diagnose the baby with neonatal sepsis and commence treatment. What is the most frequently observed feature associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Jaundice

      Correct Answer: Respiratory distress

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

      Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his...

    Correct

    • A teenager attends the GP with his mother who is concerned about his height. The GP charts the teenager's height on a growth chart and finds him to be in the 5th percentile. At birth, he was in the 50th percentile. However, the teenager's developmental milestones are normal, and he appears to be content with himself. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this teenager?

      Your Answer: Make a referral to the the paediatric outpatients clinic

      Explanation:

      A paediatrician should review children who fall below the 0.4th centile for height. Referral is the appropriate course of action as it is not an urgent matter. While waiting for the review, it is advisable to conduct thyroid function tests and insulin-like growth factor tests on the child.

      Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It

      Growth is a significant aspect that distinguishes children from adults. It occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.

      During infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. Insulin plays a significant role in fetal growth, as high levels of insulin in a mother with poorly controlled diabetes can result in hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. In childhood, growth hormone and thyroxine drive growth, while in puberty, growth hormone and sex steroids are the primary drivers. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.

      It is essential to monitor growth regularly to ensure that children are growing at a healthy rate. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician. Understanding growth and the factors that affect it is crucial for ensuring healthy development in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old child comes to the Emergency Department (ED) after running into a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child comes to the Emergency Department (ED) after running into a door while playing with his older brother. He cried and screamed initially, but fell asleep about an hour later. Upon waking up, he vomited twice. During the examination, a 3 cm x 4 cm swelling is observed on his forehead. The central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS) examination are generally normal, as are his eyes. His cervical spine is also normal. While in the examination room, he vomits again. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Do a CT brain scan within 1 hour to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Observe him closely for at least 4 hours (after the injury)

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans

      Children are at a higher risk for head injuries, which can lead to contusion and intracerebral hemorrhage. However, CT scans can also cause radiation-related brain damage and increase the risk of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a detailed assessment and balance the risks and benefits before deciding on investigation and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for head injuries in children.

      Observation and CT scans are necessary for children who have had a head injury and have more than one of the following features: loss of consciousness for more than 5 minutes, abnormal drowsiness, three or more episodes of vomiting, a dangerous mechanism/high-impact injury, or amnesia for more than 5 minutes. If they have only one of these features, they should be observed for at least 4 hours.

      CT scans should be performed within 1 hour for children with risk factors such as suspicion of non-accidental injury, post-traumatic seizure, GCS less than 14, or presence of a skull fracture or basal skull fracture. A provisional written radiology report should be made available within 1 hour of the scan being performed.

      If a child has only one of the risk factors mentioned above, they should be observed for a minimum of 4 hours. If any of the risk factors occur during observation, a CT scan should be performed within 1 hour.

      It is important to note that child protection is crucial, but there are no features in the case history that suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, speaking to social services may not be necessary.

      Guidelines for Management of Head Injuries in Children: Observation and CT Scans

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with his respiratory specialist. He has been experiencing more frequent respiratory infections and is seeking advice on how to minimize his risk of contracting further infections.

      What is the most suitable answer?

      Your Answer: Minimise contact with other cystic fibrosis patients

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of getting infections, the 23-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis should minimize contact with other patients with the same condition. It is not recommended to introduce a low-calorie diet, but rather to have a high-calorie diet. Exercise and chest physiotherapy are also recommended. While a salbutamol inhaler can provide relief for breathlessness, it will not reduce the risk of infections. Enzyme supplements are useful in treating cystic fibrosis, but they do not reduce the risk of infection.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.

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      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (12/30) 40%
Passmed