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  • Question 1 - A 2-year-old child is being evaluated by a neurologist due to delayed motor...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child is being evaluated by a neurologist due to delayed motor development. The child's general practitioner referred them to the specialist. The child exhibits slow, twisting, and repetitive movements of the arms when attempting to move or walk. Additionally, the child experiences rapid involuntary and jerky movements of the legs, along with oro-motor difficulties. There is no significant family history of neurological conditions, and the child's two siblings are healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis, and in which zone is the lesion likely located?

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia and the substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Dyskinetic cerebral palsy is caused by damage to the basal ganglia and the substantia nigra. These areas control movement and are specifically affected by cerebral malformations during development and congenital infections. The main symptoms of dyskinetic cerebral palsy are athetoid movements and oro-motor problems, which involve slow, involuntary, and writhing movements of various muscle groups.

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by lesions to the amygdala, produces a different set of symptoms, including hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. Frontal lobe lesions can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and inability to generate a list. Damage to the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can cause Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome, which is typically seen in alcoholics and those with severe nutritional deficiencies. This syndrome is characterized by nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and amnesia.

      Understanding Cerebral Palsy

      Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.

      Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.

      Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with his respiratory specialist. He has been experiencing more frequent respiratory infections and is seeking advice on how to minimize his risk of contracting further infections.

      What is the most suitable answer?

      Your Answer: Minimise contact with other cystic fibrosis patients

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of getting infections, the 23-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis should minimize contact with other patients with the same condition. It is not recommended to introduce a low-calorie diet, but rather to have a high-calorie diet. Exercise and chest physiotherapy are also recommended. While a salbutamol inhaler can provide relief for breathlessness, it will not reduce the risk of infections. Enzyme supplements are useful in treating cystic fibrosis, but they do not reduce the risk of infection.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old girl walks with a limp due to right hip pain, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl walks with a limp due to right hip pain, which is relieved by rest and made worse by walking or standing. Her vital signs are normal. The Trendelenburg sign presents when she stands on her right leg.
      X-rays reveal periarticular right hip swelling in soft tissue. A bone scan reveals reduced activity in the anterolateral right capital femoral epiphysis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A slipped capital femoral epiphysis

      Correct Answer: Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease and Differential Diagnoses

      Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease is a condition that occurs due to vascular compromise of the capital epiphysis of the femur. The exact cause of this self-limiting disease is unclear, but it may be related to developmental changes in the hip’s blood supply. The compromised blood flow leads to ischaemic necrosis of the epiphysis. The retinacular arteries and their branches are the primary source of blood to the head of the femur, especially between the ages of 4 and 9 when the epiphyseal plate is forming. During this time, the incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is highest.

      Differential diagnoses for this condition include a slipped capital femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, and epiphyseal dysplasia. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis would be visible on hip radiography, which is not the case in this scenario. Septic arthritis would cause systemic inflammatory responses, which are not present in this case. Epiphyseal dysplasia is a congenital defect that would typically present when the child starts to walk.

      In addition to Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, there is radiological evidence of synovitis and hip joint effusion in this scenario. However, synovitis is a non-specific sign and not a specific diagnosis. Understanding these differential diagnoses can help healthcare professionals provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for patients with hip joint issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - What characteristic would be indicative of a ventricular septal defect in an acyanotic,...

    Correct

    • What characteristic would be indicative of a ventricular septal defect in an acyanotic, healthy infant who has just had their one-month check-up and a murmur was detected for the first time?

      Your Answer: A murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge

      Explanation:

      Ventricular Septal Defects

      Ventricular septal defects (VSD) are a common congenital heart condition that can be classified by location and size. The size of the VSD determines the clinical features and haemodynamic consequences. Small VSDs generate a loud, harsh, pansystolic murmur that is heard best at the left sternal edge and often associated with a thrill. They have minimal haemodynamic consequence so children are asymptomatic. Large VSDs cause greater haemodynamic effects, such that there is little flow through the VSD causing a quiet murmur or none at all. These children present with cardiac failure at around 1 month and, if untreated, over 10-20 years they may progress to Eisenmenger syndrome with reversal of the shunt.

      Central cyanosis in infancy would indicate that an alternative diagnosis is more likely. In addition, children with large VSDs suffer an increased frequency of chest infections. There is pulmonary hypertension with increased vascularity seen on chest x Ray and evidence on ECG e.g. upright T-waves in V1. Initially, they are treated with diuretics and an ACE inhibitor, with surgical closure performed at 3-6 months. On the other hand, small VSDs usually close spontaneously, so children are monitored with ECG and echocardiography. the classification and clinical features of VSDs is crucial in the diagnosis and management of this congenital heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of shortness of breath. Her parents report that she had a cold for a few days but today her breathing has become more difficult. She has a history of viral-induced wheeze and was recently diagnosed with asthma by her GP.

      Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 28/min, heart rate is 120/min, saturations are 95%, and temperature is 37.5ºC. She has intercostal and subcostal recession and a global expiratory wheeze, but responds well to salbutamol.

      What medications should be prescribed for her acute symptoms upon discharge?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol inhaler alone

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol inhaler + 3 days prednisolone PO

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all children who experience an acute exacerbation of asthma receive a short course of oral steroids, such as 3-5 days of prednisolone, along with a salbutamol inhaler. This approach should be taken regardless of whether the child is typically on an inhaled corticosteroid. It is important to ensure that patients have an adequate supply of their salbutamol inhaler and understand how to use it. Prescribing antibiotics is not necessary unless there is an indication of an underlying bacterial chest infection. Beclomethasone may be useful for long-term prophylactic management of asthma, but it is not typically used in short courses after acute exacerbations. A course of 10 days of prednisolone is longer than recommended and may not be warranted in all cases. A salbutamol inhaler alone would not meet the recommended treatment guidelines for acute asthma.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for the past three days. The child has been experiencing intense coughing spells that make him turn blue and vomit. He had previously suffered from a cold with fever, sore throat, and a runny nose. The doctor diagnoses him with pertussis and prescribes a course of clarithromycin.

      What guidance should be provided regarding the child's return to school?

      Your Answer: Exclusion from school for one week

      Correct Answer: Exclusion from school for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a child has whooping cough, they must stay away from school for 48 hours after starting antibiotics. This is because whooping cough is contagious, and it is important to prevent the spread of the disease. Additionally, during this time, the child should avoid contact with infants who have not been vaccinated.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received all the recommended vaccines for his age group and has not experienced any adverse reactions. He is in good health and his height and weight are within normal range. The child's family migrated from India six years ago. What vaccinations should the doctor administer during this visit?

      Your Answer: BCG vaccination

      Correct Answer: 4-in-1 booster and MMR vaccination

      Explanation:

      For a child between 3 and 4 years old, the recommended immunisations are the MMR vaccine and the 4-in-1 booster, which includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, and polio. It is important to note that the child should have already received a BCG vaccination when they were between 0 and 12 months old if their parents were born in a country with a high incidence of tuberculosis. The HPV vaccine is not recommended for children of this age. The 3-in-1 booster and meningococcal B vaccine is an inappropriate combination, as is the 6-in-1 vaccine and meningococcal ACWY vaccine.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 4-year-old girl with cerebral palsy comes to the GP with her father...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl with cerebral palsy comes to the GP with her father for a check-up. Upon examination, she has a delay in her overall development. She is not yet able to walk or crawl, but she can use her fingers to pick up objects and is happily playing with toys during the visit. She can say a few words, such as mom and dad. During the examination, you notice some bruises on her abdomen, left elbow, and right forearm. Her father explains that these bruises are due to her clumsiness and he is concerned that she will continue to hurt herself. He mentions that her mother had a similar condition that required oral steroids and wonders if his daughter has developed the same condition.

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Same-day paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      Immediate paediatric assessment is necessary for a non-mobile infant with multiple bruises, as this could indicate non-accidental injury. Bruising near the trunk, cheeks, ears, or buttocks should also be considered red flags. Coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, but the priority is to assess for potential abuse. Oral prednisolone is not first-line for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and reassurance and discharge are not appropriate in this situation.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.

      Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - You are seeing a 6-year-old boy that has been brought in by his...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 6-year-old boy that has been brought in by his mother with a sudden onset of fever and a sore throat this morning. His mother informs you that he is prone to tonsillitis and would like some antibiotics as they had worked well previously.

      On examination he is alert, sitting upright and unaided with a slight forward lean. He has a temperature of 38.5 ºC, heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate is normal. There is no cyanosis or use of accessory muscles, but you do note a mild inspiratory fine-pitched stridor.

      What would be the most appropriate next course of action?

      Your Answer: Examine her throat, calculate her CENTOR score and discuss possible admission with the on call paediatrician

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      If acute epiglottitis is suspected, do not attempt to examine the throat. Instead, contact the paediatrician on call and arrange for the child to be reviewed and admitted to the hospital on the same day. This condition can be life-threatening and requires urgent assessment and treatment in secondary care. Hospital transfer should be done by a blue light ambulance. Treatment usually involves intravenous antibiotics after securing the airway, which may require intubation. Nebulised adrenaline may also be used to stabilise the airway, and intravenous steroids are often given. It would be clinically unsafe to advise expectant management or prescribe immediate or delayed antibiotics for this condition.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers is true?

      Your Answer: The majority of cases resolve before the age of 5 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day history of fever and a new onset rash on the arms, legs, and abdomen that started today. Despite the fever, the baby has been behaving normally and does not seem bothered by the rash. Upon closer examination, the rash appears red with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is mostly on the limbs and there are no signs of scratching. The baby's temperature is now normal at 36.9ºC. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Human herpes virus 6

      Explanation:

      Human herpes virus 6 is the cause of Roseola infantum, a viral illness that is characterized by a fever lasting for 3 days followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the 4th day. The fever can develop quickly and may lead to febrile convulsions. The rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs, unlike chickenpox which usually presents with a central rash. HHV6 is known to attack the nervous system, which can result in rare complications such as encephalitis and febrile fits after the fever has subsided. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein Barr virus, while genital herpes is caused by Human herpes virus 2. Bacterial meningitis, which is characterized by symptoms of meningism such as photophobia, stiff neck, and headache, along with a non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia, is commonly caused by Neisseria meningitidis.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - You are asked to review an infant with a postnatal diagnosis of congenital...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review an infant with a postnatal diagnosis of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. They are currently stable after receiving initial medical management. The parents have conducted some research on the condition and have some inquiries for you. What is a true statement about congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

      Your Answer: Once repaired, there is no risk of recurrence.

      Correct Answer: The presence of the liver in the thoracic cavity is a poor prognostic factor for CDH

      Explanation:

      CDH poses a greater risk of pulmonary hypertension as opposed to systemic hypertension. The risk is further heightened in cases where a sibling has a history of the condition.

      Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.

      The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.

      Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy,...

    Correct

    • You have just assisted with the normal vaginal delivery of a baby boy, during the delivery there was a large amount of meconium. On observation of the baby just after the birth, what signs would indicate the need for the neonatal team to evaluate the baby?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 75/minute

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 6-day-old baby boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-day-old baby boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents due to his projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. You arrange a blood gas reading.
      What is the metabolic disorder likely to develop in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperchloraemic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hypochloreamic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Imbalance in Infantile Pyloric Stenosis

      Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes projectile vomiting on feeding in newborns. This condition leads to a specific type of acid-base imbalance known as hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. The loss of hydrochloric acid due to persistent vomiting results in a high pH and bicarbonate level, and a low chloride level.

      The initial treatment for this condition involves resuscitation with sodium chloride, followed by surgical management once the chloride level has reached a near-normal level. It is important to note that persistent vomiting would not cause metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, hypochloremic acidosis, hyperchloremic acidosis, or hyperchloremic alkalosis. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in preventing complications associated with this condition.

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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone and is later diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which of the following features is the least probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Rocker-bottom feet

      Explanation:

      Understanding the features of Down’s syndrome is crucial for clinical practice and final examinations. The correct answer to this question is option 4. While rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic of trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome, they are not typically observed in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up appointment. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past eight months. During her last visit four months ago, she was wetting the bed six to seven nights a week. You advised her parents to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, establish a toileting routine before bed, and implement a reward system for positive behavior. Despite following these recommendations, she continues to wet the bed six to seven nights a week. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her nocturnal enuresis?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment option for nocturnal enuresis. However, there are exceptions to this, such as when the child and family find the alarm unacceptable or if the child is over 8 years old and needs rapid short-term reduction in enuresis. Additionally, it is important to note that enuresis alarms have a lower relapse rate compared to other treatments.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

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  • Question 18 - A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean...

    Correct

    • A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean section. She initially appears to be stable. However, over the ensuing 48 hours she develops worsening neurological function. What is the most probable cause of this deterioration?

      Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage

      Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.

      Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.

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  • Question 19 - The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old...

    Correct

    • The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old baby boy. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks gestation, weighing 3300 grams, and was in good condition. The antenatal scans were normal, and it was a low-risk pregnancy without family history of congenital disorders. During your examination, you observe a ventral urethral meatus while examining the external genitalia. What condition is commonly associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      What conditions are commonly associated with hypospadias in patients?

      Hypospadias is often an isolated abnormality in children, but it is important to consider the possibility of other malformations. Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) and inguinal hernias are conditions commonly associated with hypospadias. It is crucial to examine the groin and scrotum in children with hypospadias and ensure they have passed urine in the first 24 hours of life. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, renal agenesis, and Turner’s syndrome are not typically associated with hypospadias.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

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  • Question 20 - A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small...

    Correct

    • A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small body, and low-set ears. During the examination, the pediatrician also observes a flat philtrum, a sunken nasal bridge, short palpebral fissures, and a thin upper lip. What could be the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Maternal alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a mother abuses alcohol during pregnancy. This can lead to various physical and developmental abnormalities in the fetus, including intrauterine growth restriction, small head size, underdeveloped midface, small jaw, a smooth ridge between the nose and upper lip, small eye openings, and a thin upper lip. Affected infants may also exhibit irritability and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

      Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.

      The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.

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  • Question 21 - A baby born at 32 weeks’ gestation develops sudden abdominal distension and a...

    Correct

    • A baby born at 32 weeks’ gestation develops sudden abdominal distension and a purpuric rash. The nurses record the passage of blood and mucous per rectum during the first week of life in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit.
      Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis

      Explanation:

      Common Neonatal Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Necrotising Enterocolitis: A medical emergency affecting formula-fed preterm infants, characterised by acute inflammation in different parts of the bowel, causing mucosal injury and necrosis, and may lead to perforation. Symptoms include diarrhoea, haematochezia, vomiting, abdominal wall erythema/rash, abdominal distension and pain. Treatment involves bowel rest and intravenous antibiotics, with severe cases requiring a laparotomy to remove necrotic bowel.

      Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Associated with vitamin K deficiency, it can cause intracranial haemorrhage and bleeding in internal organs. Managed by vitamin K supplementation, replacement of blood and factor losses, and specialist care.

      Gastroschisis: A congenital abnormality resulting in the herniation of portions of the bowel, liver and stomach outside the abdomen, through a para-umbilical defect in the anterior abdominal wall.

      Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome: Characterised by acute renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia, it occurs mainly in young children and is commonly associated with infection. Symptoms include profuse diarrhoea, fever, lethargy, acute renal failure, anuria and seizures.

      Hirschsprung’s Disease: Caused by the absence of ganglia in the distal colon, it produces a functional bowel obstruction and presents with delayed passage of meconium or chronic constipation from birth.

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  • Question 22 - A concerned mother visits her GP to discuss her 8-week-old baby. She is...

    Correct

    • A concerned mother visits her GP to discuss her 8-week-old baby. She is worried as he is not feeding well, his urine has a musty smell and he has very dry skin all over his trunk, which is not responding to regular emollients. On examination, the baby’s weight has dropped from the 25th to the 9th centile, he has a mild tremor and his trunk is covered in an eczema-like rash. Her older son has an inborn error of metabolism and she is concerned this baby may also be affected.
      Which of the following is a disorder of amino acid metabolism?

      Your Answer: Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Explanation:

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Symptoms

      Inherited metabolic disorders are genetic conditions that affect the body’s ability to process certain nutrients. Here are some common types and their symptoms:

      Phenylketonuria (PKU): This autosomal recessive condition affects amino acid metabolism. It causes a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which can lead to behavioural problems, seizures, and learning disability. PKU is screened for with the newborn heel prick test.

      G6PD deficiency: This X-linked recessive condition predisposes those affected to develop haemolysis. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Patients are usually asymptomatic unless they have a haemolytic crisis triggered by an infection or certain medications.

      Lesch–Nyhan syndrome: This X-linked condition affects uric acid metabolism and causes hyperuricaemia. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Affected males have severe developmental delay, behavioural and cognitive dysfunction, and marked involuntary movements. They also develop recurrent self-mutilation habits.

      Medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD): This autosomal recessive condition affects fatty acid oxidation. It does not affect amino acid metabolism. Babies with MCADD usually present with lethargy, poor feeding, and vomiting. It is screened for with the newborn heel prick test.

      Porphyria: This is a deficiency of enzymes that affect haem synthesis. It can lead to acute porphyria (abdominal pain, psychiatric symptoms, breathing problems) or cutaneous porphyria.

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  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and bruises on his sides. Upon examination, his clotting was found to be prolonged. The following are his test results, along with the normal ranges for a 5-year-old:
      - Hemoglobin: 80g/l (115-135)
      - Platelets: 100 * 109/l (150-450)
      - White blood cells: 10.0 * 109/l (5.0-17.0)
      - Neutrophils: 1.0 * 109/l (1.5-8.5)
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia is the most probable diagnosis given the presence of epistaxis and bruising, along with anaemia and low platelets. The prolonged prothrombin time and low platelets suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is consistent with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is unlikely due to the patient’s age. The normal white blood cell count rules out a chronic infection. Aplastic anaemia and myelodysplasia would not account for the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

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  • Question 24 - A 3-year-old girl presents to her GP with a progressively enlarging neck swelling...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presents to her GP with a progressively enlarging neck swelling that has been present for the past 6 months. Upon examination, a smooth midline lesion is noted just below the hyoid bone. The lesion is round, measures 2 cm x 2 cm, and elevates upon protrusion of the tongue. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal cysts are situated in the front part of the neck, commonly found in the center and below the hyoid bone. They typically elevate when the tongue is extended or when swallowing occurs.

      Common Neck Masses in Children

      Neck masses in children can be caused by a variety of factors. One common type is the thyroglossal cyst, which is located in the anterior triangle and is derived from remnants of the thyroglossal duct. Another type is the branchial cyst, which originates from incomplete obliteration of the branchial apparatus and is usually located near the angle of the mandible. Dermoids, which are derived from pluripotent stem cells, are typically located in the midline and have heterogeneous appearances on imaging. True thyroid lesions are rare in children and usually represent thyroglossal cysts or tumours like lymphoma. Lymphatic malformations, which result from occlusion of lymphatic channels, are usually located posterior to the sternocleidomastoid and are typically hypoechoic on USS. Infantile haemangiomas may present in either triangle of the neck and usually contain calcified phleboliths. Finally, lymphadenopathy, which may be reactive or neoplastic, is located in either triangle of the neck and is usually secondary to infection in children.

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  • Question 25 - A 6-day-old baby who is 39+6 weeks’ gestation on the Neonatal Unit develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-day-old baby who is 39+6 weeks’ gestation on the Neonatal Unit develops jaundice with a conjugated fraction of 42% (reference < 20%). The baby has feeding difficulty and so is being fed through a nasogastric tube. Investigations are being completed into a diagnosis of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. The baby is currently under single phototherapy for his jaundice.
      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Caffeine

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Conjugated Hyperbilirubinaemia in Neonates

      Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia in neonates can be caused by various factors, including biliary atresia and choledochal cysts. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a commonly used treatment option for reducing serum bilirubin levels by decreasing bile flow, intestinal absorption of bile acids, and bilirubin concentration. On the other hand, caffeine is given to preterm neonates to improve their cardiac drive and apnoea but is not used for hyperbilirubinaemia. Phototherapy is the first-line treatment for jaundice, but increasing light concentration does not target the conjugated fraction. Milk fortifier may be useful for poor growth or meeting gestational criteria, but it has no place in the treatment of hyperbilirubinaemia. Omeprazole is given for reflux but does not aid in the management of hyperbilirubinaemia.

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  • Question 26 - A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident...

    Correct

    • A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident physician identifies that the sound occurs during inhalation. What is the primary reason for stridor in a newborn?

      Your Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      1 – Children between 6 months and 3 years old are typically affected by croup.
      2 – Stridor is a common symptom of Epiglottitis in children aged 2-4 years, although the introduction of the H. influenzae vaccine has almost eliminated this condition.
      4 – Bronchiolitis often affects individuals between 3 and 6 months old.
      5 – No information provided.

      Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 27 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department at night with a sudden...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department at night with a sudden onset of severe pain in his left testicle that started four hours ago. Upon examination, his left testis is visibly swollen and extremely tender to touch. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Testicular Torsion Diagnosis

      Testicular torsion is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient’s history and examination. To confirm this, it is essential to perform a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. The symptoms and signs presented by the patient are highly indicative of testicular torsion, and it is crucial to address this condition promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to conduct a thorough examination and perform the necessary tests to confirm the diagnosis. Once confirmed, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent further complications. It is essential to act quickly in such cases to avoid any long-term damage to the testicles.

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  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar neoplasm was identified.
      What is the most frequent cerebellar neoplasm in childhood?

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Brain Tumors in Children and Adults

      Brain tumors can occur in both children and adults, and they can be benign or malignant. Here are some of the most common types of brain tumors:

      Cerebellar Astrocytoma: This is a type of glioma that originates from astrocytes, a type of glial cell. It is most commonly found in children and can be benign or malignant. Symptoms include headache, vomiting, and gait disturbances. Diagnosis is made through imaging tests such as CT or MRI scans, and treatment may include radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme: This is the most common intracranial tumor in adults and is an aggressive astrocytoma with a poor prognosis. It is resistant to therapy, making treatment difficult.

      Ependymoma: This is a glial tumor that arises within the ventricular system or spinal cord. It is the second most common type of pediatric intracranial tumor and is most commonly found in the posterior intracranial fossa. Symptoms depend on the location of the tumor and may include headache, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, nerve palsies, and cerebellar symptoms. Treatment may include surgery and radiotherapy.

      Neuroblastoma: This is the most common extracranial tumor in children and is most commonly found in the adrenal glands. Symptoms may include abdominal pain, vomiting, and fatigue. Treatment may include surgery.

      Oligodendroglioma: This type of tumor arises in the cerebral white matter and is most commonly found in middle-aged patients. It is rare in children, accounting for only 6% of intracranial pediatric tumors.

      In conclusion, brain tumors can present with a variety of symptoms and require prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 29 - A 4-year-old patient presents with recurrent chest infections and green sputum production. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old patient presents with recurrent chest infections and green sputum production. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals ring shadows and bronchial wall thickening in both lung bases. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Chest Infections and Bronchiectasis: A Possible Sign of Cystic Fibrosis

      Patients who have a history of recurrent chest infections and x-ray appearances that suggest bronchiectasis may be showing signs of cystic fibrosis. Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways in the lungs become damaged and widened, leading to a build-up of mucous and bacteria. This can cause recurrent chest infections, which can be difficult to treat. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that affects the production of mucous, leading to thick and sticky secretions that can block the airways and cause infections.

      If a patient is showing signs of bronchiectasis, it is important to consider cystic fibrosis as a possible cause. Early diagnosis and treatment of cystic fibrosis can help to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Testing for cystic fibrosis may involve a sweat test, genetic testing, or other diagnostic tests. Treatment may include medications to help clear mucous from the airways, antibiotics to treat infections, and other therapies to manage symptoms.

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  • Question 30 - A five-year-old boy has been brought to the clinic by his worried mother...

    Correct

    • A five-year-old boy has been brought to the clinic by his worried mother due to an unusual walking pattern and lower limb weakness. After conducting a thorough medical history, physical examination, and further tests, the child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What is the prevailing cardiac pathology linked to this disorder?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common heart condition linked to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, while acute myocardial infarctions, atrioventricular septal defects, and coronary aneurysms are not associated with this condition. Atrioventricular septal defects are, however, associated with Down syndrome, while coronary aneurysms are a complication of Kawasaki disease. Dilated cardiomyopathy is a rapidly progressive complication that typically starts in adolescence for individuals with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive condition characterized by progressive muscle wasting and weakness.

      Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.

      The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.

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