00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath, unable to speak in complete sentences, tachypnoeic and with a tachycardia of 122 bpm. Severe inspiratory wheeze is noted on examination. The patient is given nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, and IV hydrocortisone is administered. After 45 minutes of IV salbutamol infusion, there is no improvement in tachypnea and oxygen saturation has dropped to 80% at high flow oxygen. An ABG is taken, showing a pH of 7.50, pO2 of 10.3 kPa, pCO2 of 5.6 kPa, and HCO3− of 28.4 mmol/l. What is the next most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Request an anaesthetic assessment for the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)

      Explanation:

      Why an Anaesthetic Assessment is Needed for a Severe Asthma Attack in ICU

      When a patient is experiencing a severe asthma attack, it is important to take the appropriate steps to provide the best care possible. In this scenario, the patient has already received nebulisers, an iv salbutamol infusion, and hydrocortisone, but their condition has not improved. The next best step is to request an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, as rapid intubation may be required and the patient may need ventilation support.

      While there are other options such as CPAP and NIPPV, these should only be used in a controlled environment with anaesthetic backup. Administering oral magnesium is also not recommended, and iv aminophylline should only be considered after an anaesthetic review. By requesting an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, the patient can receive the best possible care for their severe asthma attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man visits the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a dry cough...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man visits the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a dry cough and increasing breathlessness. During the examination, the doctor observes finger clubbing, central cyanosis, and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. The chest X-ray shows reticular shadows and peripheral honeycombing, while respiratory function tests indicate a restrictive pattern with reduced lung volumes but a normal forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1): forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio. The patient's pulmonary fibrosis is attributed to which of the following medications?

      Your Answer: Bleomycin

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Pulmonary Fibrosis: Causes and Investigations

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the lungs, which can be caused by various diseases and drugs. One drug that has been linked to pulmonary fibrosis is bleomycin, while other causes include pneumoconiosis, occupational lung diseases, and certain medications. To aid in diagnosis, chest X-rays, high-resolution computed tomography (CT), and lung function tests may be performed. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause. However, drugs such as aspirin, ramipril, spironolactone, and simvastatin have not been associated with pulmonary fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential risks of certain medications and to monitor for any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: The patient’s oxygen should be increased, as they remain relatively hypoxic despite oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients

      The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
      Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks

      Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old smoker comes to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old smoker comes to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and cough. He reports experiencing more difficulty breathing and a sharp pain in his third and fourth ribs. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals an enlargement on the right side of his hilum. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma

      The patient’s heavy smoking history, recent onset of cough, and bony pain strongly suggest bronchogenic carcinoma. The appearance of the chest X-ray further supports this diagnosis. While COPD can also cause cough and dyspnea, it is typically accompanied by audible wheezing and the presence of a hilar mass is inconsistent with this diagnosis. Neither tuberculosis nor lung collapse are indicated by the patient’s history or radiographic findings. Hyperparathyroidism is not a consideration unless hypercalcemia is present. Overall, the evidence points towards a diagnosis of bronchogenic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She also reports haemoptysis. An ECG shows no signs of ischaemia. Her heart rate is 88 bpm and blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. The patient flew from Dubai to the UK yesterday. She has type I diabetes mellitus which is well managed. She had a tonsillectomy two years ago and her brother has asthma. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for six months and uses insulin for her diabetes but takes no other medications.
      What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Assessing Risk Factors for Pulmonary Embolism in a Patient with Sudden Onset of Symptoms

      This patient presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and haemoptysis, suggesting a pulmonary embolism. A history of long-haul flight and use of combined oral contraceptive pill further increase the risk for this condition. However, tonsillectomy two years ago is not a current risk factor. Type I diabetes mellitus and asthma are also not associated with pulmonary embolism. A family history of malignancy may increase the risk for developing a malignancy, which in turn increases the risk for pulmonary embolism. Overall, a thorough assessment of risk factors is crucial in identifying and managing pulmonary embolism in patients with acute symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after being sat at home.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed and shows the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.48 7.35–7.45
      pO2 7.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6 kPa
      HCO3 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Which one of the following conditions is most likely to account for these investigation results?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Respiratory Failure: Causes and ABG Interpretation

      Respiratory failure is a condition where the lungs fail to adequately oxygenate the blood or remove carbon dioxide. There are two types of respiratory failure: type I and type II. Type I respiratory failure is characterized by low levels of oxygen and normal or low levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Type II respiratory failure, on the other hand, is characterized by low levels of oxygen and high levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

      Pulmonary embolism is the only cause of type I respiratory failure. This condition results in reduced oxygenation of the blood due to a blockage in the pulmonary artery. The ABG of a patient with pulmonary embolism would show low levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as respiratory alkalosis.

      Hypothyroidism, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and myasthenia gravis are all causes of type II respiratory failure. Hypothyroidism can result in decreased ventilatory drive, while Guillain–Barré syndrome and myasthenia gravis can cause respiratory muscle weakness, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis.

      Opiate overdose is another cause of type II respiratory failure. Opiates act on the respiratory centers in the brain, reducing ventilation and causing respiratory acidosis.

      In summary, understanding the causes and ABG interpretation of respiratory failure is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She takes a steroid inhaler twice daily, which seems to control her asthma well. Occasionally, she needs to use her salbutamol inhaler, particularly if she has been exposed to allergens.
      What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug salbutamol in the treatment of asthma?

      Your Answer: β2-adrenoceptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Asthma: Understanding the Role of Different Drugs

      Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes reversible airway obstruction. The pathogenesis of asthma involves the release of inflammatory mediators due to IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells. Pharmacological management of asthma involves the use of different drugs that target specific receptors and pathways involved in the pathogenesis of asthma.

      β2-adrenoceptor agonists are selective drugs that stimulate β2-adrenoceptors found in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways and increased calibre. Salbutamol is a commonly used short-acting β2-adrenoceptor agonist, while salmeterol is a longer-acting drug used in more severe asthma.

      α1-adrenoceptor antagonists, which mediate smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels, are not used in the treatment of asthma. β1-adrenoceptor agonists, found primarily in cardiac tissue, are not used in asthma management either, as they increase heart rate and contractility.

      β2-adrenoceptor antagonists, also known as β blockers, cause constriction of the airways and should be avoided in asthma due to the risk of bronchoconstriction. Muscarinic antagonists, such as ipratropium, are useful adjuncts in asthma management as they block the muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways.

      Other drugs used in asthma management include steroids (oral or inhaled), leukotriene receptor antagonists (such as montelukast), xanthines (such as theophylline), and sodium cromoglycate. Understanding the role of different drugs in asthma management is crucial for effective treatment and prevention of exacerbations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical examination. The chest X-ray report reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. On closer questioning the patient admits to symptoms of fatigue and weight loss and painful blue-red nodules on her shins.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hilar Lymphadenopathy and Erythema Nodosum

      Sarcoidosis is a condition characterized by granulomas affecting multiple systems, with lung involvement being the most common. It typically affects young adults, especially females and Afro-Caribbean populations. While the cause is unknown, infections and environmental factors have been suggested. Symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, and fever, as well as erythema nodosum and anterior uveitis. Acute sarcoidosis usually resolves without treatment, while chronic sarcoidosis requires steroids and monitoring of lung function, ESR, CRP, and serum ACE levels.

      Tuberculosis is a potential differential diagnosis, as it can also present with erythema nodosum and hilar lymphadenopathy. However, the absence of a fever and risk factors make it less likely.

      Lung cancer is rare in young adults and typically presents as a mass or pleural effusion on X-ray.

      Pneumonia is an infection of the lung parenchyma, but the absence of infective symptoms and consolidation on X-ray make it less likely.

      Mesothelioma is a cancer associated with asbestos exposure and typically presents in older individuals. The absence of exposure and the patient’s age make it less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He has recently developed a red/purple nodular rash on both shins. He has a history of mild asthma and continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day. On examination, he has mild wheezing and red/purple nodules on both shins. His blood pressure is 135/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 75/min and regular. The following investigations were performed: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, sodium, potassium, creatinine, and corrected calcium. His chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Chest Symptoms, Erythema Nodosum, and Hypercalcaemia: Sarcoidosis vs. Other Conditions

      When a patient presents with chest symptoms, erythema nodosum, hypercalcaemia, and signs of systemic inflammation, sarcoidosis is a likely diagnosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a transbronchial biopsy is usually performed to demonstrate the presence of non-caseating granulomata. Alternatively, skin lesions or lymph nodes may provide a source of tissue for biopsy. Corticosteroids are the main treatment for sarcoidosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include asthma, bronchial carcinoma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and primary hyperparathyroidism. However, the presence of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are more suggestive of sarcoidosis than these other conditions. While hypercalcaemia may be a symptom of primary hyperparathyroidism, the additional symptoms and findings in this patient suggest a more complex diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (8/10) 80%
Passmed