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  • Question 1 - A 69-year-old retired veterinarian with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents as she has...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old retired veterinarian with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents as she has started to bump into things since this morning. Over the previous two days, she had noticed some 'floating spots in her eyes'. Examination reveals she has no vision in her right eye. The red reflex on the right side is difficult to elicit and you are unable to visualise the retina on the right side during fundoscopy. Examination of the left fundus reveals changes consistent with pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The history of diabetes, complete loss of vision in the affected eye and inability to visualise the retina, suggest a diagnosis of vitreous haemorrhage (VH). 3 conditions cause 59 to 88.5% of VH cases: proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment (PVD), and ocular trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      501.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30 yr. old male was brought in with a history of a...

    Correct

    • A 30 yr. old male was brought in with a history of a stab injury to left chest. He was complaining of chest pain. On examination he was tachycardic, hypotensive and had an elevated JVP, pulsus paradoxus and muffled heart sounds. Respiratory examination was unremarkable. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Becks triad (hypotension, elevated systemic venous pressure, often with jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds) is a characteristic collection of clinical findings found in cardiac tamponade. Pulsus paradoxus is also associated with it. The history and clinical findings in this scenario are compatible with the diagnosis of cardica tamponade. The normal respiratory examination excludes tension pneumothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS

      Explanation:

      T. gondii infection in immunocompetent people is usually asymptomatic. It can present as fits in patients with AIDs, who are immunosuppressed. Additionally, infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is very harmful. Congenital toxoplasmosis presents with intracranial calcifications, classically. It can also present with hydrocephalus, microcephaly, blindness, petechiae. Siramycin is the drug of choice to try to prevent vertical transmission from mother to baby. It is typically gotten from cat faeces or raw/undercooked meat, not raw eggs (raw eggs: think salmonella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried out. Which one of the following is mostly associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Translocation between chromosome 15 and 17

      Correct Answer: Deletions of chromosome 5

      Explanation:

      Deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7 is a poor prognostic feature for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42 yr. old male patient who was on enalapril for hypertension presented...

    Correct

    • A 42 yr. old male patient who was on enalapril for hypertension presented with generalized body weakness. Investigations revealed hyperkalaemia. Which of the following can be expected in his ECG?

      Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves

      Explanation:

      In hyperkalaemia the ECG will show tall, tented T waves as well as small P waves and widened QRS complexes. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      80
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true

      Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

      Explanation:

      In statistical hypothesis testing there are 2 types of errors:
      – type I: the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true – i.e. Showing a difference between two groups when it doesn’t exist, a false positive.
      – type II: the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false – i.e. Failing to spot a difference when one really exists, a false negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration of vision and dazzling of view in well lit environments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis leading to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cataracts

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cataract is a condition characterized by clouding of the lens of the eye. This condition most frequently occurs due to age-related degenerative processes in the lens, but can also be associated with ocular trauma, metabolic disorders, side-effects of drugs, or congenital infections. The clouding causes distortion of light, as it passes through the lens, resulting in visual impairment and glare. Initially, a cataract presents discretely and may even go unnoticed, but the visual impairment worsens as the cataract grows larger.

      Diagnosis is typically established on the basis of a thorough history and direct visualization of the cataract (by means of slit-lamp microscopy). Surgery is indicated with significant visual impairment and involves lens extraction and implantation of an artificial lens. Untreated cataracts eventually lead to complete blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      139.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28 year old woman is reviewed after giving birth one week ago....

    Correct

    • A 28 year old woman is reviewed after giving birth one week ago. She complains about having difficulty sleeping and feeling anxious and tearful. She is also concerned about her mood because this is her first pregnancy and she is miserable. She is also not breast feeding. She has no history of any mental health disorder. What is the most appropriate approach to manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Explanation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Most new moms experience postpartum baby blues after childbirth, which commonly include mood swings, crying spells, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. Baby blues typically begin within the first two to three days after delivery, and may last for up to two weeks.

      Signs and symptoms of baby blues may include:
      Mood swings
      Anxiety
      Sadness
      Irritability
      Feeling overwhelmed
      Crying
      Reduced concentration
      Appetite problems
      Trouble sleeping

      The exact cause of the “baby blues” is unknown at this time. It is thought to be related to the hormone changes that occur during pregnancy and again after a baby is born. These hormonal changes may produce chemical changes in the brain that result in depression.
      Although the experience of baby blues is unpleasant, the condition usually subsides within two weeks without treatment. All the mom needs is reassurance and help with the baby and household chores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following: Na+ 142 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L, Urea 10.1 mmol/L, Creatinine 176 µmol/L, Hb 10.4 g/dL, MCV 90 fl Plt 91 * 109/L, WBC 14.4 * 109/L, Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Shigella

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27 year old woman presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old woman presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. Her inflammatory markers are normal. What is the most likely cause of her diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Bile Acid Malabsorption

      Explanation:

      The question describes a patient who has had an ileal resection. Bile acids are reabsorbed in the distal ileum. Since this has been resected in this patient, one would expect her to have malabsorption of bile acids, causing her diarrhoea. This is a more likely correct answer than a Crohn’s flare, bacterial overgrowth, gastroenteritis, or tropical sprue, given the details included in the question prompt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      381.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed sleep. The physician has prescribed temazepam. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the effect gamma-aminobutyric acid

      Correct Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid

      Explanation:

      Temazepam is an orally available benzodiazepine used in the therapy of insomnia.
      The soporific activity of the benzodiazepines is mediated by their ability to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) mediated inhibition of synaptic transmission through binding to the GABA-A receptor.
      The recommended initial dose for insomnia is 7.5 mg before bedtime, increasing as needed to a maximum dose of 30 mg.

      The most common side effects of temazepam are dose-related and include daytime drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, dysarthria, and dizziness.
      Tolerance develops to these side effects, but tolerance may also develop to the effects on insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      976.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      99
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of visual disturbance, eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of visual disturbance, eye pain, pain in the knee and hands, and a rash on her face. On examination, the rash was the shape of a butterfly, and the joints were mildly swollen. The eyes of the patient were found to be red with irregular pupils. Where do you think the problem lies?

      Your Answer: Cornea

      Correct Answer: Iris

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis which is often accompanied by iritis, the cause of this patient’s red eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      141.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin:

      Your Answer: Endothelin antagonists are useful in primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Current guidelines recommend the use of ambrisentan, Bosentan (recommendation I, level of evidence A) and macitentan (I, B) in patients with PAH and WHO functional class II and III. In WHO functional class IV, the first-line drug is Epoprostenol and the recommendation for Endothelin receptor antagonists is weaker (IIb, C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      446.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations. His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
      – Headaches
      – Palpitations
      – Sweating
      – Severe hypertension

      The Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
      Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.

      Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      190.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous...

    Incorrect

    • A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous conditions?

      Your Answer: von Hippel-Lindau

      Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum

      Explanation:

      Xeroderma pigmentosum is an X-linked recessive condition, which is caused by mutations in DNA gyrase which further encodes the XP gene. The defect may lead to skin cancer at an early stage of life, especially at photo exposed sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      82.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which have all gotten worse over the past months. She does not complain of a cough but remembered that she had coughed once and produced a twig-shaped mucoid sputum mass. She has no haemoptysis. She has no past medical history and is on no medications.   Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral, perihilar, dense airspace shadowing. A HRCT of her thorax showed a ‘crazy paving’ pattern of extensive, dense, white infiltrates. Her spirometry was a restrictive pattern with reduced total lung capacity. She also had a bronchoscopy and lavage, which revealed periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive proteinaceous fluid and elevated levels of surfactant proteins A and D.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) is a lung condition that is caused by a build-up of proteins and other substances in the alveoli. The alveoli are the part of the lungs that contain air. PAP has the following symptoms:
      Shortness of breath, also called dyspnoea
      Chest pain or tightness
      Fever
      Weight loss
      Cough (sometimes, but not always)
      Low levels of oxygen in the blood
      Nail clubbing (abnormal growth of toenails or fingernails)

      Serologic studies are generally not useful for PAP. Flexible bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) remains the criterion standard. Elevated levels of the proteins SP-A and SP-D in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Elevated titer of neutralizing autoantibody against GM-CSF (immunoglobulin G [IgG] isotype) in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Recent studies have proposed that deficiency of GM-CSF causes pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP); all patients studied had the antibody to GM-CSF. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is usually elevated, but this finding is nonspecific.

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan of the chest demonstrates areas of patchy ground-glass opacification with smooth interlobular septal thickening and intralobular interstitial thickening, which produces a polygonal pattern referred to as crazy paving.

      Light microscopy of the lung parenchymal tissue shows alveoli filled with a granular PAS base-reactive and diastase-resistant eosinophilic material.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      153.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on IV ceftriaxone after undergoing a lumber puncture. The CSF culture shows listeria monocytogenes. What is the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Continue IV ceftriaxone as mono-therapy

      Correct Answer: Change to IV amoxicillin + gentamicin

      Explanation:

      The best option would be the combination of ampicillin and gentamycin. Changing to IV amoxicillin+gentamycin is however the best among the given choices here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      63.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during...

    Correct

    • All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during pregnancy, except?

      Your Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration

      Explanation:

      Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy.

      – Poor control of thyrotoxicosis is associated with pregnancy loss, pregnancy-induced hypertension, prematurity, low birth weight, intrauterine growth restriction, stillbirth, thyroid storm, and maternal congestive heart failure.

      – Antithyroid drugs are the treatment of choice of hyperthyroidism during pregnancy. The lowest dose of ATD needed to maintain TT4 1.5× the upper limit of the non-pregnant reference range or FT4 at the upper limit of the reference range should be used.
      Two different antithyroid drug (ATD) regimens are in common use for Grave’s disease: i) Titration method and ii) Block-and-replace method.
      In the titration method, the usual starting dose is 15–30 mg/day methimazole (or equivalent doses of other thionamides); further to periodic thyroid status assessment, daily dose is tapered down to the lowest effective dose (avoiding both hyper- and hypothyroidism).
      The block-and-replace method uses persistently high ATD doses in association with L-thyroxine replacement to avoid hypothyroidism; treatment lasts 6 months. This method has advantages and disadvantages over the titration method. Higher doses of ATDs may have a greater immunosuppressive action useful for a permanent remission of hyperthyroidism, but this effect remains to be demonstrated.
      Avoidance of hypothyroidism or ‘escape’ of hyperthyroidism seems easier than with the titration method; treatment is shorter, and the number of visits lower. On the other hand, the much higher number of tablets taken every day may create problems of poor compliance. The block-and-replace method should not be used during pregnancy.

      – Breastfeeding has been shown to be safe in mothers taking ATDs in appropriate doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      269.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Macula oedema is noted on his fundoscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Macular disease can affect central vision at any stage of diabetic retinopathy and may be seen in type 2 diabetic patients. Diabetic retinopathy affects up to 80 percent of those who have had diabetes for 20 years or more. Macular oedema occurs when damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the part of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      286.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He...

    Correct

    • A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He has been complaining of headaches for the past 2 weeks, although he has been able to continue working at his job. Upon examination, he has mild left hemiparesis and bilateral extensor plantar responses. General examination is otherwise unremarkable. An urgent CT scan of the brain shows a 5cm multicentric mass lesion in the right frontal lobe with surrounding vasogenic oedema and some hemisphere shift. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathology?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, also considered as grade IV astrocytoma, is the most malignant form of the tumour and accounts for about 20% of all cerebral tumours. These often remain clinically silent until they have reached a large enough size. In adults, glioblastoma multiforme usually occurs in the cerebral hemispheres, especially the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. About half occupy more than one hemisphere at presentation, and some are multicentric. Biopsy shows high cellularity with mitoses, pleomorphism, and vascular hyperplasia. Prognosis is extremely poor, with only 20% surviving beyond 1 year and 10% beyond 2 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      321.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with...

    Correct

    • A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection can occur when a pregnant woman is infected with the cytomegalovirus (CMV) and passes the virus to her unborn child. Infants infected with CMV during pregnancy can exhibit a range of symptoms, including jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly (abnormally small head size). These symptoms are consistent with congenital CMV infection.

      Given the mother’s HIV-positive status, the infant may have been at increased risk of acquiring other infections, including CMV, due to potential immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man develops central abdominal pain a few hours after having an...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man develops central abdominal pain a few hours after having an Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) performed. Investigations reveal the following: Amylase: 545 u/dL, Erect chest x-ray: Normal heart and lungs and no free air noted. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Intravenous fluids + analgesia

      Explanation:

      A very common complication after ERCP is post-ERCP pancreatitis, which based on the clinical scenario , this man has. The treatment for this is pain control, lots of intravenous fluids, and traditionally bowel rest, although more recent evidence suggests early feeding is better.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      218.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      86.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying to conceive for the last 3 years without any success. Her prolactin level is 2600 mU/l (normal <360). The Endocrinologist arranges pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that demonstrates a microprolactinoma. Which two of the following pharmacological agents may be appropriate treatment choices?

      Your Answer: Carbergoline

      Explanation:

      Cabergoline, an ergot derivative, is a long-acting dopamine agonist. It is usually better tolerated than Bromocriptine (BEC), and its efficacy profiles are somewhat superior to those of BEC. It offers the convenience of twice-a-week administration, with a usual starting dose of 0.25 mg biweekly to a maximum dose of 1 mg biweekly. Some studies have shown efficacy even with once-a-week dosing. Cabergoline appears to be more effective in lowering prolactin levels and restoring ovulation. Up to 70% of patients who do not respond to BEC respond to cabergoline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old talented violinist is brought by her parents as they are concerned...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old talented violinist is brought by her parents as they are concerned that she had a stroke as she is reporting weakness on her right side. Neurological examination is inconsistent with the provided history, suspecting a non-organic cause for her symptoms her GP provides reassurance. Despite it, the girl remains unable to move her right arm. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is conversion disorder.

      There may be underlying tension regarding her musical career which could be manifesting as apparent limb weakness.

      Conversion disorder typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. The patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek material gain (malingering). Patients may be indifferent to their apparent disorder – la belle indifference – although this has not been backed up by studies.

      Other options:
      Unexplained symptoms
      There are a wide variety of psychiatric terms for patients who have symptoms for which no organic cause can be found:

      Somatization disorder
      Multiple physical symptoms present for at least 2 years
      the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results

      Hypochondriacal disorder
      The persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, e.g. cancer.
      The patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results

      Dissociative disorder
      Dissociation is a process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness
      Unlike conversion disorder, it involves psychiatric symptoms e.g. amnesia, fugue, stupor
      Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the new term for multiple personality disorder as is the most severe form of dissociative disorder

      Munchausen’s syndrome
      Also known as factitious disorder
      The intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms

      Malingering
      Fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or another gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms,...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified. Investigations reveal: Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l, Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l, Bilirubin 78 μmol/L, Albumin 41g/l. Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      142.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below: pH - 7.28 pCO2 - 3.5 kPa pO2 - 15.9 kPa Na+ - 139 mmol/L, K+ - 4.5 mmol/L, Bicarbonate - 11 mmol/L, Chloride - 113 mmol/L, Lactate - 13.6 mmol/L, Keeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intubate and ventilate

      Correct Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.
      The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire.
      Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).

      The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate.

      Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.

      Other options:
      – Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised.
      – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed.
      – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.

      Note:

      Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymes
      Clinical presentation:
      Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almonds
      Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
      Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

      Management:
      Supportive measures: 100% oxygen
      Definitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      54.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (2/4) 50%
Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Rheumatology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
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