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Question 1
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the GP with fever, vomiting and dysuria. Upon examination, she has right renal angle and bladder tenderness and is pyrexial at 38.2°C. Co-amoxiclav is prescribed and urine microscopy and culture is arranged. The following investigations are conducted: Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-165), White cell count 13.2 Ă109/L (4-11), Platelets 140 Ă109/L (150-400), Sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 130 ”mol/L (60-110), and MSU: blood++, protein+, enterococcus faecalis isolated. What is the most appropriate imaging investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Ultrasound during the acute infection
Explanation:Atypical Urinary Tract Infection in Children
According to NICE guidelines, an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI) in children is characterized by certain features such as a seriously ill child, poor urine flow, abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to a suitable antibiotic within 48 hours, or infection with non-Escherichia coli organisms.
If a child experiences renal angle pain during the acute infection, an ultrasound should be performed. However, surgical intervention is generally avoided if possible. It is recommended that the child be referred to a paediatric urologist for further evaluation and management. Early detection and appropriate treatment of atypical UTIs can prevent complications and improve outcomes in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central abdominal pain and bile-stained vomiting. The abdomen feels full and tender. Some red mucous has been passed from the rectum.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain in Children: Intussusception as the Most Likely Diagnosis
Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in young children. It occurs when a section of bowel invaginates into the section next to it, leading to the sloughing off of ischaemic bowel mucosa and the characteristic redcurrant jelly stool. In most cases, the cause of intussusception is unclear, but in some cases, a pathological lead-point may be present. Meckel’s diverticulum is the most common lead-point, but an enlarged Peyer patch caused by a viral infection may also be a factor.
Other potential causes of abdominal pain in children include intestinal duplication, appendicitis, and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Intestinal duplication is a rare congenital malformation that may present as a solid or cystic tumor, intussusception, perforation, or bleeding. Appendicitis is most common in older children and typically presents with central abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. HSP may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea, but it is typically accompanied by a purpuric rash, which is absent in this scenario.
Overall, given the age of the patient and the presence of a tender mass in the upper abdomen and emptiness in the right lower quadrant, intussusception is the most likely diagnosis. A lead-point may be present, making non-operative reduction unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a fever for three days, and as this disappeared he was noted to have a rash.
On examination he is noted to be apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Common Rashes and Their Characteristics
Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash with lymphadenopathy. The rash is macular in nature and is usually seen in infants and young children.
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes target lesions with blistering. It is often caused by an allergic reaction to medication or an infection.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a condition that causes a petechial rash. This rash is caused by a low platelet count and can be seen in individuals of all ages.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that causes a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs. It is often seen in children and is caused by inflammation of the blood vessels.
Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This rash is a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
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Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK is inaccurate?
Your Answer: The health visitor distraction test is the first screening test done on infants hearing
Explanation:The primary screening test for infant hearing is now the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme, which is replacing distraction testing. Midwives rarely conduct visits beyond 4 weeks in their daily routine.
Child Health Surveillance in the UK
Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to Preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. After birth, a clinical examination is conducted, and the newborn hearing screening programme is carried out to detect any hearing problems. The mother is also given a Personal Child Health Record.
Within the first month, a heel-prick test is conducted to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks. In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is conducted at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time.
Preschool children are screened for vision problems through a national orthoptist-led programme. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention. Although midwife visits are supposed to occur up to four weeks after birth, in practice, health visitors usually take over at two weeks. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and support for their physical and developmental well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is seen in surgery with malaise and a rash.
What features would lead you to suspect that this child has measles?Your Answer: Oral ulceration
Correct Answer: Violaceous papules on the wrists
Explanation:Understanding Koplik Spots in Measles Diagnosis
Koplik spots are a crucial clinical sign of measles infection, named after the American Paediatrician, Henry Koplik, who first described them in 1896. These spots appear as red spots with a bluish-white central dot on erythematous buccal mucosa, often described as looking like grains of salt on a wet background. They typically appear 1-2 days before the rash and may persist for a further 1-2 days afterwards.
It is essential for healthcare professionals to recognize Koplik spots as a pathognomonic feature of measles infection. However, fewer doctors may know how to identify them. Other clinical signs, such as herald patches, sub occipital lymph nodes, oral ulceration, and violaceous papules on the wrist, are not specific to measles and may lead to misdiagnosis.
In addition to accurate diagnosis, infection control measures should be considered in the GP surgery/OOH setting. For example, scheduling appointments for suspected measles patients at the end of surgery to avoid sharing a waiting room with vulnerable individuals. It is also crucial for healthcare workers and carers to ensure they are immune or have received 2 Ă MMR vaccines themselves to prevent the spread of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:Causes of Stridor: An Overview
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is often a sign of an underlying respiratory problem. One common cause of stridor is laryngomalacia, a congenital condition that results in flaccidity of supraglottic structures. This condition may not present until the child is a few months old.
It is important to note that stridor doesn’t occur in bronchiolitis, asthma, or reflux. In the UK, viral croup is the most common cause of stridor in general practice, while epiglottitis is a much rarer cause that can produce severe stridor with distress and cyanosis very quickly. Structural abnormalities such as micrognathia and trachea-oesophageal fistula can also cause stridor.
It is worth noting that stridor doesn’t occur with pertussis but used to be seen with diphtheria. Other causes of stridor include smoke inhalation, angio-oedema, and foreign body. Understanding the various causes of stridor is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is presented by his father. He was exclusively breastfed for the first month of life before being switched to formula. Over the past eight weeks, he has been experiencing various issues such as vomiting, regurgitation, eczema, and diarrhea. Despite these problems, he has maintained his weight at the 50th percentile. Physical examination reveals no significant findings except for some dry skin on his chest. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cow's milk protein intolerance
Explanation:If symptoms appear after formula is introduced, it strongly indicates the presence of cow’s milk protein intolerance.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl with a barking cough is diagnosed with croup. However, she is feeding well and has only a low-grade fever of 37.9ÂșC. No intercostal recession is observed during examination. The decision is made to manage her in primary care. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg single dose
Explanation:Regardless of severity, a one-time oral dose of dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately for croup.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old infant born in Bangladesh is presented for surgery. The mother reports that the baby has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past week and has not been feeding well for the last two days. Today, the baby has started vomiting. The mother is particularly worried about the baby's cough, which comes in bouts and is so severe that the baby turns red. There are no inspiratory or expiratory noises. Upon clinical examination, the baby is found to have a clear chest and no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pertussis
Explanation:It is rare for patients of this age to exhibit the inspiratory ‘whoop’.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The likelihood of a 34-year-old mother having a baby with Down's syndrome is roughly:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 275
Explanation:The risk of Down’s syndrome is 1 in 1,000 at the age of 30, and this risk decreases by a factor of 3 for every 5 years.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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