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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old female complains of abdominal discomfort accompanied by alternating episodes of constipation...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female complains of abdominal discomfort accompanied by alternating episodes of constipation and diarrhea. What symptom is the least indicative of irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Waking at night due to the pain

      Explanation:

      It is not typical for irritable bowel syndrome to cause pain that disrupts a patient’s sleep.

      Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.

      It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 2 - As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • As the medical doctor on call, a 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of loose stools, abdominal pain, and fatigue. She reports having bowel movements an average of 8 times a day, and in the last 24 hours, she has noticed blood mixed in with the stools. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, which is typically well controlled with rectal mesalazine. She has no allergies or other medical conditions.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16/min, oxygen saturation is 96%, and temperature is 37.9 ºC. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft with localized tenderness in the left iliac fossa. There is no guarding or peritonism, and bowel sounds are audible.

      The patient's Hb is 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets are 398 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC is 13.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), Na is 140 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145), K is 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0), urea is 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0), creatinine is 95 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120), and CRP is 35 mg/L (normal range: <5). Based on these findings, a flare of ulcerative colitis is suspected.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit + IV hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      89
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old man with a 4-week history of a diagnosed anal fissure returns...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man with a 4-week history of a diagnosed anal fissure returns to the general practice surgery for review. He has been regularly using stool softeners along with eating a healthy diet and drinking adequate water. He is still experiencing bleeding and pain on opening his bowels. Examination reveals an anal fissure with no alarming signs.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management at this stage?

      Your Answer: Topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)

      Explanation:

      Management of Primary Anal Fissure: Treatment Options and Referral Guidelines

      Primary anal fissure is a common condition that can cause significant pain and discomfort. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the management of this condition, which include prescribing rectal topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) 0.4% ointment for 6-8 weeks to relieve pain and aid healing. Referral to a colorectal surgeon is warranted if the fissure does not heal after this period. Botulinum toxin injections can be considered in secondary care settings for chronic and recurrent cases, but only after a trial of topical GTN. Taking no action is not recommended, as it can lead to chronic non-healing ulcers. Trying different laxatives, such as senna, is also unlikely to help and should not be the first-line treatment for anal fissure. Overall, early intervention with topical GTN and appropriate referral can improve outcomes for patients with primary anal fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain. She is experiencing severe pain in the epigastric region that radiates to her back and is vomiting excessively. When questioned, she confesses to having had too many drinks at a bachelorette party the night before. Her serum amylase level is 1190 u/l. What is the most suitable initial management step?

      Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis can lead to systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ dysfunction syndromes. The mainstay of treatment is supportive measures such as fluid resuscitation and oxygen supplementation. Abdominal ultrasound can be useful to identify gallstones as the cause of pancreatitis, but fluid resuscitation takes priority. IV antibiotics are not indicated unless complications occur. Enteral feeding is preferred over nil by mouth, and parenteral feeding should be considered if enteral feeding is not tolerated. Urgent CT of the abdomen is not necessary in the acute stage unless complications are suspected. However, for severe pancreatitis, contrast-enhanced CT may be indicated four days after initial symptoms to assess for complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      24.9
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain. She is admitted and all cardiac investigations are normal. She is diagnosed with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
      Which of the following symptoms would most commonly require an urgent inpatient upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy before being discharged?

      Your Answer: Melaena

      Explanation:

      Melaena is a serious symptom of upper GI bleeding that requires emergency treatment. The patient must be stabilized and resuscitated before undergoing an upper GI endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Dysphagia is a red-flag symptom that may indicate oesophageal or gastric cancer and requires urgent investigation with an upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Epigastric pain without red-flag symptoms should be treated with PPIs for 4-8 weeks before any investigation is necessary. Vomiting with high platelet count, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper-abdominal pain requires a non-urgent OGD. Weight loss in patients over 55 years with reflux symptoms requires a 2-week wait referral for suspected cancer, but not an urgent inpatient endoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      16.8
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  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
    Blood tests reveal:
    Bilirubin...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of itching and yellowing of the skin.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Bilirubin 45 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 326 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 72 u/L (3 - 40)
      Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a likely diagnosis for a middle-aged female patient with an obstructive liver injury picture and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype. This differential is important to consider, as alcohol abuse may not always be obvious and gallstones could produce a similar result on liver function tests. However, the absence of pain and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies make these less likely. Paracetamol overdose is also a potential differential, but the liver function profile in this case is more consistent with an obstructive picture, with a higher ALP and bilirubin and a modest increase in ALT. Additionally, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are not associated with paracetamol overdose.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 7 - You are assessing a 50-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Barrett's oesophagus...

    Correct

    • You are assessing a 50-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Barrett's oesophagus following difficult to control symptoms. Biopsies did not reveal any dysplasia. What is the most strongly linked risk factor modification for the development of Barrett's oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is most strongly associated with the presence of GORD as a risk factor.

      Understanding Barrett’s Oesophagus

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, increasing the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is typically identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia. The length of the affected segment correlates strongly with the chances of identifying metaplasia, with the overall prevalence estimated to be around 1 in 20. Risk factors include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Interestingly, alcohol does not seem to be an independent risk factor for Barrett’s. Management includes high-dose proton pump inhibitors and endoscopic surveillance with biopsies every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention such as radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic mucosal resection is offered.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, increasing the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma. It is typically identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia. The length of the affected segment correlates strongly with the chances of identifying metaplasia, with the overall prevalence estimated to be around 1 in 20. Risk factors include GORD, male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Interestingly, alcohol does not seem to be an independent risk factor for Barrett’s. Management includes high-dose proton pump inhibitors and endoscopic surveillance with biopsies every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention such as radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic mucosal resection is offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      16.8
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of a flu-like...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of a flu-like illness. He reports not having eaten for the past 48 hours. During examination, mild jaundice is observed, but no other significant physical findings are noted. The patient's total serum bilirubin level is elevated at 60 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l), while the other liver function tests (LFTs) are normal. Full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes, and haptoglobins are within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Gilbert syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms

      Gilbert Syndrome:
      Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.

      Haemolytic Anaemia:
      Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.

      Hepatitis A:
      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.

      Hepatitis B:
      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).

      Cholecystitis:
      Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.

      Conclusion:
      In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her clinical team to discuss her ongoing care. The team notes that she has been experiencing weight loss and increased fatigue. The patient reports struggling with chewing and swallowing food, even when it has been mashed or pureed. What is the most suitable long-term management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a percutaneous gastrostomy tube

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate way to provide nutritional support for patients with motor neuron disease is through the insertion of a percutaneous gastrostomy (PEG) tube. If a patient is struggling to feed themselves, they may initially benefit from smaller, more liquid-like meals, but if this is not sufficient, a PEG tube is a definitive long-term management option. Continuing with their current diet regimen is not recommended as it may lead to poor nutrition and a risk of aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is only used as a last resort when there is impaired nutrient absorption. Inserting a nasogastric tube is not a suitable option as it must be removed after a few weeks to avoid adverse effects. A percutaneous jejunostomy tube is also not recommended as it is less commonly used and harder to maintain than a PEG tube.

      Managing Motor Neuron Disease

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The cause of the disease is unknown.

      One medication used in the management of motor neuron disease is riluzole, which works by preventing the stimulation of glutamate receptors. It is mainly used in cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by approximately three months.

      Respiratory care is also an important aspect of managing motor neuron disease. Non-invasive ventilation, usually in the form of BIPAP, is used at night and has been associated with a survival benefit of around seven months.

      Nutrition support is also crucial in managing motor neuron disease. The preferred method is percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG), which has been linked to prolonged survival.

      Unfortunately, the prognosis for motor neuron disease is poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      59.4
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man who was recently diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis presents to his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man who was recently diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis presents to his General Practitioner due to persistent central abdominal pain. This has been present ever since he was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis; however, he feels that the medication he was prescribed is losing its effects.
      The patient is currently on amlodipine, amitriptyline, perindopril and pancreatic enzyme replacement.
      Which of the following management options is the best next step to control the patient’s pain?
      Select the SINGLE best management plan from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Stop amitriptyline, start duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Managing Neuropathic Pain: Choosing the Right Medication

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when standard analgesia such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and paracetamol prove ineffective. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, the first-line management of neuropathic pain involves starting the patient on amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. However, if the first-line drug treatment does not work, one of the other drugs can be tried.

      It is important to note that drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy rather than in combinations. Therefore, if a drug does not achieve the desired clinical effect, it should be replaced by another drug rather than adding a new drug to it. Duloxetine is a good next option, but it should replace the amitriptyline rather than be added to it.

      Further management of neuropathic pain includes pain management clinics and tramadol as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. By choosing the right medication and following appropriate management strategies, patients with neuropathic pain can achieve better pain control and improved quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His wife reports that...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His wife reports that he has been experiencing worsening confusion for approximately one week. Upon examination, there are evident indications of chronic liver disease, along with nystagmus and cerebellar ataxia. The patient appears highly confused. His liver function tests (LFTs) are normal except for elevated gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), a full blood count reveals macrocytosis, and blood glucose levels are normal. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy (WE)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Confusion in a Patient with Alcohol Misuse

      Wernicke Encephalopathy (WE), caused by thiamine deficiency and commonly associated with chronic alcoholism, is a serious neurological disorder that presents with a classic triad of ocular findings, cerebellar dysfunction, and confusion. Rapid correction of brain thiamine deficiency is crucial, and treatment is initially administered parenterally. Neurological dysfunction, especially memory and learning impairment, can persist even after treatment, leading to Korsakoff syndrome.

      Subdural hematoma, more common in individuals who misuse alcohol, is an important differential diagnosis in cases of acute confusion. However, a history of head injury, even minor, and a headache with or without vomiting are typically present. Acute hematomas present soon after the injury, while chronic hematomas may not present until 2-3 weeks after the trauma.

      Acute alcohol poisoning is unlikely in a patient with worsening confusion over the past week. Sudden onset of confusion following an alcohol binge that improves with abstinence is expected.

      Hepatic encephalopathy, a spectrum that develops in patients with advanced liver disease, may present with a change in personality, short-term memory loss, or reduced level of consciousness. However, cerebellar signs such as nystagmus and ataxia are not associated with this condition.

      Delirium tremens, a rapid onset of confusion as a result of alcohol withdrawal, typically appears three days after abstinence from alcohol and may include visual hallucinations, acute confusion, and tremor. If untreated, seizures may occur. However, the presence of nystagmus and ataxia in this case makes WE the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?

      Your Answer: Liver biopsy

      Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test

      Explanation:

      For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a blocked stoma bag....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a blocked stoma bag. She had surgery for bowel cancer recently, which involved removing a section of her bowel. The stoma bag is situated in the upper left quadrant of her abdomen. The bag is entirely empty, and you can see that the proximal part of the resected bowel is flush with the skin. Her abdomen is swollen, and you can hear tinkling bowel sounds. What kind of stoma does this patient have?

      Your Answer: Percutaneous jejunostomy

      Correct Answer: End colostomy

      Explanation:

      The correct type of stoma in this case is an end colostomy. This is because the stoma is flush to the skin, indicating that the large bowel contents are not irritant. To differentiate between a colostomy and a small intestine stoma, one can look at the location and output. Ileostomies are typically located on the right iliac fossa and have spouted output, while colostomies are usually on the left iliac fossa and have flush output. An end ileostomy is used after complete colon excision or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned, and it would have spouted output. A loop ileostomy involves taking a loop of the ileum and bringing it up to the skin, and it is used to defunction the colon and can be reversed. It would also have spouted output. A loop jejunostomy is used as a high output stoma and would also have spouted output. A percutaneous jejunostomy involves a feeding tube directly inserted into the jejunum and would not have a stoma bag.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To investigate her symptoms, she undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy is taken. The biopsy report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laxative abuse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melanosis Coli

      Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. The primary cause of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.

      In simpler terms, melanosis coli is a condition that causes changes in the color of the bowel wall due to the accumulation of pigments. This condition is often associated with the excessive use of laxatives, which can lead to the accumulation of pigment-laden macrophages in the bowel wall. These macrophages are responsible for the discoloration of the bowel wall, which can be observed through histology. It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a life-threatening condition, but it can be a sign of underlying health issues that need to be addressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his stools that...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his stools that has been ongoing for three weeks. The stools are hard and contain a lot of mucus. The patient has no significant medical history. During a digital rectal examination, a suspicious mass is detected on the anal sphincter. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Low anterior resection

      Correct Answer: Abdominoperineal excision of rectum

      Explanation:

      The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with rectal cancer on the anal verge is abdominoperineal excision of the rectum. This procedure involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and a section of the sigmoid colon. Symptoms of rectal cancer include blood mixed with stools, changes in bowel habits, and copious mucus in stools. Haemorrhoidectomy is not the correct choice for this patient as the diagnosis is unlike. High anterior resection is used for upper rectal tumours, while low anterior resection is used for low rectal tumours, but not for anal verge tumours. Rubber band ligation is used to treat haemorrhoids in outpatient clinics, which is not the diagnosis for this patient.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She reports having 'IBS' and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have worsened significantly over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:
      Hb 10.9 g/dl
      Platelets 199 * 109/l
      WBC 7.2 * 109/l
      Ferritin 15 ng/ml
      Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
      Folate 2.1 nmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      The key indicators in this case are the presence of anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate, which are all typical of coeliac disease. The description of the diarrhoea also matches the usual symptoms, although some patients may have stools that are visibly fatty.

      While irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition, it is unlikely to be the cause in this case due to the abnormal blood test results. Low levels of ferritin and folate would not typically be associated with IBS or gastroenteritis. Even if the patient had menorrhagia, this would not explain the low folate levels, although it could account for the anaemia and low ferritin.

      Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, with a prevalence that is around 100 times higher. In an exam scenario, there would typically be more clues pointing towards a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, such as the presence of mouth ulcers.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, sudden weight loss, and autoimmune thyroid disease. Other conditions associated with coeliac disease include irritable bowel syndrome, dermatitis herpetiformis, and type 1 diabetes. First-degree relatives of patients with coeliac disease should also be screened.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, lactose intolerance, and enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine. In rare cases, coeliac disease may lead to esophageal cancer or other malignancies.

      Overall, understanding coeliac disease is crucial for early diagnosis and management of the condition. Screening for coeliac disease in patients with relevant symptoms and conditions can help prevent complications and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man presents with unexplained weight loss and episodes of passing blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with unexplained weight loss and episodes of passing blood in his stool for the past 3 months. Upon investigation, a CT scan reveals a T2N0M0 tumour just below the rectosigmoid junction. The patient has no significant medical history and is considered fit for surgery. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Left hemicolectomy

      Correct Answer: Anterior resection

      Explanation:

      Anterior resection is the most suitable surgical option for rectal tumors, except for those located in the lower rectum. When determining the appropriate surgery for colorectal cancer, it is crucial to consider the location of the tumor, its grade, and the feasibility of the operation. In the case of a tumor located just below the rectosigmoid junction, an anterior resection or abdominoperineal excision of the rectum are the two possible options. However, since the tumor is not invading the pelvic floor, anal canal, or anal sphincter, an anterior resection is the more appropriate choice. This procedure involves resection followed by anastomosis, with the creation of a temporary defunctioning ileostomy that can later be reversed to allow the bowel to heal. Abdominoperineal excision of the rectum is not suitable in this case, as it would require a lifelong stoma. Hartmann’s procedure is also not appropriate, as it is typically performed in emergency situations such as bowel perforation or obstruction. Similarly, left hemicolectomy is not suitable for this tumor, as it is located in the upper rectum.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing her pain with regular paracetamol. However, she has been experiencing nausea. What would be the most suitable initial anti-emetic medication to prescribe for her?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine is a recommended first choice anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting caused by intracranial or intra-vestibular issues. It is also useful in palliative care for managing gastrointestinal obstruction and vagally-mediated nausea or vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, movement disorders, or raised intracranial pressure. Domperidone is effective for gastro-intestinal pain in palliative care, while metoclopramide is used for acute migraine, chemotherapy or radiotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is indicated for chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is a steroid that may be used in palliative care for treating nausea, anorexia, spinal cord compression, and liver capsule pain. If the cause of nausea is suspected to be raised intracranial pressure, cyclizine should be the first-line option, and dexamethasone may be considered as an additional treatment.

      Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: A Mechanistic Approach

      Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, often caused by multiple factors. Identifying the primary cause is crucial in selecting the appropriate anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In palliative care, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting. Two approaches can be used in selecting drug therapy: empirical or mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      The mechanistic approach involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting. For example, pro-kinetic agents are useful in scenarios where reduced gastric motility is the primary cause. First-line medications for this syndrome include metoclopramide and domperidone. However, metoclopramide should not be used in certain situations, such as complete bowel obstruction or gastrointestinal perforation. If the cause is chemically mediated, correcting the chemical disturbance should be the first step. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while cyclizine is recommended for nausea and vomiting due to intracranial disease. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred, with the intravenous route used if access is already established.

      In summary, a mechanistic approach to managing nausea and vomiting in palliative care involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the symptoms. This approach can improve the effectiveness of anti-emetic therapy and reduce the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal pain. She is typically healthy and takes a combined oral contraceptive pill. Her mother has a history of hereditary spherocytosis and is with her during the visit. The pain is intermittent but has intensified today. There have been no alterations to her bowel movements, and she has not experienced any nausea or vomiting. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Chronic haemolysis and gallstone formation are present in this patient with hereditary spherocytosis. It is crucial to consider splenic rupture as a potential differential diagnosis in a patient with hereditary spherocytosis who is unwell.

      Understanding Hereditary Spherocytosis

      Hereditary spherocytosis is the most common hereditary haemolytic anaemia in people of northern European descent. It is an autosomal dominant defect of the red blood cell cytoskeleton, which replaces the normal biconcave disc shape with a sphere-shaped red blood cell. This condition reduces the red blood cell survival as they are destroyed by the spleen. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis may present with failure to thrive, jaundice, gallstones, splenomegaly, and aplastic crisis precipitated by parvovirus infection. The degree of haemolysis is variable, and the mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is elevated.

      The diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis is based on a family history of the condition, typical clinical features, and laboratory investigations such as spherocytes, raised MCHC, and an increase in reticulocytes. The osmotic fragility test was previously the recommended investigation of choice, but it is now deemed unreliable and is no longer recommended. If the diagnosis is equivocal, the EMA binding test and the cryohaemolysis test are recommended. For atypical presentations, electrophoresis analysis of erythrocyte membranes is the method of choice.

      The management of hereditary spherocytosis involves supportive treatment during acute haemolytic crisis, including transfusion if necessary. Longer-term treatment includes folate replacement and splenectomy. It is important to note that hereditary spherocytosis differs from G6PD deficiency, which is an X-linked recessive condition that affects males of African and Mediterranean descent. The diagnostic test for G6PD deficiency involves measuring enzyme activity, while the EMA binding test is used for hereditary spherocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence of gallstones in her gallbladder, following her recent diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma (RCC). She is interested in discussing the available management options. The patient reports no history of abdominal pain and is in good health otherwise. She is scheduled to undergo a left-sided nephrectomy for her RCC in three weeks. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness over the left flank, but no palpable masses. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      If you have been diagnosed with asymptomatic gallbladder stones, there is no need to worry. These stones are often found incidentally during imaging tests that are unrelated to gallstone disease. As long as you have not experienced any symptoms for at least a year before the diagnosis and the stones are located in a normal gallbladder and biliary tree, no intervention is necessary.

      However, if you are experiencing symptoms or if the stones are located in the common bile duct, intervention is required. This can be done through surgical removal during laparoscopic cholecystectomy or through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) before or during the surgery. Rest assured that with proper intervention, you can effectively manage your gallbladder stones and prevent any complications.

      Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman complains of rectal bleeding and discomfort during bowel movements for...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of rectal bleeding and discomfort during bowel movements for the past two weeks. She has a history of poor dietary habits and chronic constipation. Upon wiping, she notices fresh blood on the toilet paper. During examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and rectal examination is painful but reveals no masses.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Anal Pain: Understanding the Causes

      Anal pain can be a distressing symptom that can have various underlying causes. One of the most common causes is an anal fissure, which is a painful tear in the anal canal. This condition is often caused by trauma from hard or painful bowel movements and is associated with low-fiber diets.

      Patients with anal fissures typically experience severe pain during bowel movements, which can lead to constipation and worsening symptoms. However, medical therapy with stool-bulking agents and fiber supplementation can help resolve acute anal fissures in most cases.

      Other potential causes of anal pain include distal colonic polyps, anal warts, hemorrhoids, and rectal carcinoma. Distal colonic polyps are slow-growing overgrowths of the colonic mucosa that carry a small risk of becoming malignant. Anal warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and can present as painless bumps or eruptions in the anogenital area.

      Hemorrhoids are swollen blood vessels in the lower rectum that can cause rectal bleeding, pain, pruritus, or prolapse. Rectal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that can cause bleeding, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, and malaise.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of anal pain is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. A thorough physical examination and medical history can help identify the underlying cause and guide management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 22 - Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She is also a heavy...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She is also a heavy drinker, consuming around 30-35 units per week. During the examination, a palpable gallbladder is detected, but there is no history of abdominal pain. The doctor orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:
      - Albumin: 28 g/L
      - Alk Phos: 320 U/L
      - ALT: 90 U/L
      - Bilirubin: 100 umol/L
      - INR: 1.5
      - GGT: 120 U/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is the correct answer for this question, as indicated by Courvoisier’s sign. This sign suggests that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones, but rather by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. While alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, the presence of a painless, enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a likely cause, as it would not result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice is not typically associated with this type of overdose.

      Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.

      Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

      In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the clinic with advanced cirrhosis and ascites. A recent ascitic tap revealed a protein concentration of 12 g/L and no evidence of organisms. What is the best course of action to manage the risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      To prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, it is recommended to administer oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin as prophylaxis to patients with ascites and protein concentration of 15 g/L or less.

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a type of peritonitis that typically affects individuals with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and ascites. Diagnosis is usually made through paracentesis, which involves analyzing the ascitic fluid for a neutrophil count of over 250 cells/ul. The most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli.

      Management of SBP typically involves the administration of intravenous cefotaxime. Antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended for patients with ascites who have previously experienced an episode of SBP or have a fluid protein level of less than 15 g/l and a Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome. NICE recommends prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin until the ascites has resolved.

      Alcoholic liver disease is a significant predictor of poor prognosis in SBP. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of SBP is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman is admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) due to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. She has an uneventful procedure but is re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain.
      On examination, she is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on her chest X-ray (CXR).
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 180 mg/l < 10 mg/l
      White cell count (WCC) 15.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Creatine (Cr) 140 µmol/l 50–120µmol/l
      Urea 7.5mmol/l 2.5–6.5mmol/l
      Phosphate (PO4-) 1.0mmol/l 0.8–1.5 mmol/l
      Corrected Calcium (Ca2+) 0.8 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      What is her most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Complications of ERCP: Pancreatitis, Cholangitis, and More

      ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) is a common procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions of the bile ducts and pancreas. However, like any medical procedure, it carries risks and potential complications. One such complication is pancreatitis, which can present with non-specific symptoms but may be accompanied by hypocalcaemia. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Another potential complication is ascending cholangitis, which can present with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Biliary perforation is a serious but infrequent complication that is usually recognized during the procedure, while intestinal perforation is not an expected complication. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. It is important to understand these potential complications and their symptoms in order to provide prompt and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old man with ulcerative colitis visits the GP clinic due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with ulcerative colitis visits the GP clinic due to a flare-up. He reports having diarrhoea 5 times a day with small amounts of blood, which has not improved with oral mesalazine. He feels fatigued but is otherwise in good health. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
      - Heart rate: 94 beats/minute
      - Blood pressure: 121/88 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 12 breaths/minute
      - Temperature: 37.4ºC
      - Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If a patient with mild-moderate ulcerative colitis does not respond to topical or oral aminosalicylates, the next step is to add oral corticosteroids. In the case of this patient, who is experiencing five episodes of diarrhea and some blood but is otherwise stable, oral prednisolone is the appropriate treatment option. Intravenous ceftriaxone, intravenous hydrocortisone, and oral amoxicillin with clavulanic acid are not indicated in this situation. Oral azathioprine may be considered after the flare is controlled to prevent future exacerbations.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his symptoms through dietary changes alone. He is primarily bothered by abdominal discomfort and bloating.
      What is the most suitable next step in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Mebeverine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. The condition is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Management of IBS involves psychological support, dietary measures, and pharmacological treatment for symptom relief.

      Antispasmodics, such as mebeverine hydrochloride, are commonly used to alleviate pain and bloating in IBS patients. Loperamide is the first choice of antimotility agent for diarrhea, while laxatives are recommended for constipation. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, are considered a second-line treatment option for IBS patients who do not respond to other medications. However, the use of opioids, such as tramadol, is not recommended due to the risk of constipation, dependence, and tolerance.

      In conclusion, pharmacological management of IBS should be tailored to the individual patient’s symptoms and needs, with a focus on providing relief from pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. Regular review and adjustment of medication dosages are necessary to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old man complains of dyspepsia without any alarm symptoms. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man complains of dyspepsia without any alarm symptoms. He has no significant medical history and this is his first episode. The plan is to use a test-and-treat approach. What is the most suitable test to detect Helicobacter pylori?

      Your Answer: Hydrogen breath test

      Correct Answer: 13C-urea breath test

      Explanation:

      The urea breath test is a non-invasive, highly specific and sensitive method. Therefore, there is no need for an endoscopy. Instead, an alternative option is to use stool antigen instead of culture.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

      Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash over his shins, which was dusky blue in appearance at first but has now faded to a bruise-like appearance. His past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, occasionally with blood. There is no other past history of note. On examination, there is minor tenderness on the left side of his abdomen, and proctoscopy reveals moderate inflammation of the rectum. Blood testing reveals a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) level and normochromic/normocytic anaemia.
      Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis (UC)

      Explanation:

      Erythema Nodosum and its Association with Various Diseases

      Erythema nodosum is a skin condition characterized by painful, red nodules on the legs. It can be associated with various underlying diseases. In patients with ulcerative colitis, erythema nodosum is a common extraintestinal manifestation, along with uveitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, ankylosing spondylitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum. However, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and mycoplasma infection can also cause erythema nodosum. It is important to consider the patient’s clinical presentation and other symptoms to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s gastrointestinal symptoms suggest inflammatory bowel disease, specifically ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right upper quadrant...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right upper quadrant pain and rigors that have been ongoing for 2 days. She had previously seen her GP 6 months ago for biliary colic and was referred for an elective cholecystectomy. Upon examination, her blood work reveals elevated levels of WCC, CRP, and bilirubin. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      If a patient with a history of gallstones experiences RUQ pain along with elevated inflammatory markers, it is more likely to be acute cholecystitis or cholangitis rather than biliary colic. The presence of fever and abnormal LFTs suggests ascending cholangitis, as opposed to cholecystitis, which is indicated by Charcot’s triad of RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice. Acute pancreatitis is unlikely if amylase levels are normal, and the sudden onset of symptoms makes malignancy, particularly cholangiocarcinoma, less probable.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin for the past 2 weeks. She claims that is a lot worse during this pregnancy compared to her last one. History reveals that she is currently 30 weeks pregnant with no complications up until presentation.

      On examination, the only notable findings are mild jaundice seen in the sclerae, as well as excoriations around the umbilicus and flanks. She denies any tenderness in her abdomen during the examination. Blood tests show the following:

      ALT 206 U/L
      AST 159 U/L
      ALP 796 umol/l
      GGT 397 U/L
      Bilirubin (direct) 56 umol/L
      Bile salts 34 umol/L
      Bile salts reference range 0 - 14 umol/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis

      Explanation:

      Obstetric cholestasis, also known as intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, is a condition that occurs when the flow of bile is impaired, resulting in a buildup of bile salts in the skin and placenta. The cause of this condition is believed to be a combination of hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors. While the pruritic symptoms can be distressing for the mother, the buildup of bile salts can also harm the fetus. The fetus’s immature liver may struggle to break down the excessive levels of bile salts, and the vasoconstricting effect of bile salts on human placental chorionic veins may lead to sudden asphyxial events in the fetus, resulting in anoxia and death.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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