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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of feeling easily fatigued. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of feeling easily fatigued. Upon further inquiry, it is discovered that she experiences double vision towards the end of the day and that her level of tiredness increases with physical activity. During the examination, she reports that her hands feel exhausted after repeatedly opening and closing them for 5 minutes. What is the most conclusive test for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer: MRI scan

      Correct Answer: Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is a condition that affects a significant number of patients and is often associated with the presence of Antimuscarinic antibodies. Thymomas are typically linked to the presence of anti-striational receptor antibodies. While MRI scanning is important in ruling out other potential causes of symptoms, it is not a diagnostic tool. Lumbar puncture is not useful in diagnosing myasthenia gravis, but it can help eliminate infection as a potential cause when there is a mixed clinical presentation.

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of deteriorating vision. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of deteriorating vision. He reports seeing flashing lights and experiencing difficulty with near vision. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 25-pack-year history of smoking. Upon fundoscopy, yellow pigment deposition is observed around the macula. Amsler grid testing reveals distorted perception of straight lines. The intraocular pressure is 15 mmHg.

      What is the most suitable course of action based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Referral to ophthalmology urgently

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary within one week for this patient suspected of having age-related macular degeneration (AMD). The patient is experiencing worsening vision, photopsia, and has drusen on fundoscopy, all of which are consistent with AMD. It is important to rule out wet AMD, which can lead to preventable blindness. Referring to an optometrist or prescribing medication such as latanoprost or vitamins is not appropriate at this stage. The patient requires urgent ophthalmological intervention.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old man with ulcerative colitis and chronic lower back pain presents with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with ulcerative colitis and chronic lower back pain presents with a complaint of a red painful eye. What is the most probable feature that will be observed during the examination?

      Your Answer: Photophobia on ophthalmoscopy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of HLA-B27 Associated Uveitis

      HLA-B27 associated uveitis is a condition that affects the eyes and is associated with several symptoms. One of the most common symptoms is photophobia, which is a sensitivity to light that can cause discomfort and pain. Other symptoms include ocular injection, miosis (due to ciliary spasm), normal or near-normal visual acuity, and a normal fundus.

      While retinal and vitreous haemorrhages have been reported with severe uveitis, retinal haemorrhages are not a common symptom. Additionally, a dilated pupil is not typically associated with uveitis, as a small pupil is more common in acute anterior uveitis. Chronic uveitis may cause irregular-shaped pupils due to the presence of synechiae.

      Profound visual loss is not a common symptom of uveitis, although some blurring of vision may occur with anterior uveitis. More severe loss of vision can occur with posterior uveitis and panuveitis. Finally, purulent discharge is not a symptom of uveitis, as it is typically associated with conjunctivitis.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms of HLA-B27 associated uveitis can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of a one day history...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of a one day history of right temporal headache, jaw claudication, fever and reduced appetite. She stated that her vision had not worsened.
      Upon examination, there was tenderness on palpation of the right scalp at the temporal region and the right temporal artery was palpable and hard. The patient's visual acuity was 6/6 on both eyes according to the Snellen chart.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to an ophthalmologist urgently

      Correct Answer: Start the patient on oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis: Urgent Management Required

      This patient’s history strongly suggests giant cell temporal arteritis (GCA), a medical emergency that requires urgent management. While ophthalmologists may be involved in the management of GCA, their involvement is only necessary if the condition is affecting the patient’s vision. In this scenario, the patient’s vision is not affected.

      The recommended course of action is to start the patient on 40-60mg of prednisolone per day (for patients without visual symptoms) and refer them urgently to a physician, typically a Rheumatologist. It is important to note that national guidance should be followed, rather than local variations, when assessing patients in an exam setting. Shared care is recommended, and patients may require treatment for several years.

      In addition to steroids, aspirin and PPIs are recommended. However, long-term treatment with oral steroids can increase the risk of osteoporosis, which should be assessed. For more information on national guidance and associated information, CKS provides a comprehensive summary of GCA management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the ophthalmology clinic. Both intra-ocular pressures are within...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the ophthalmology clinic. Both intra-ocular pressures are within normal limits. There are open anterior chamber angles, normal visual fields, and healthy optic discs in both eyes. What is the most suitable term/diagnosis to summarize these results?

      Your Answer: Open angle glaucoma of the right eye

      Correct Answer: Normal findings

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glaucoma and Ocular Hypertension

      The intra-ocular pressures are normal and the additional findings are all in keeping with a normal examination. Normal pressure glaucoma (NTG) is a form of open-angle glaucoma characterized by glaucomatous optic neuropathy in patients with consistently lower IOP measurements. On the other hand, ocular hypertension is defined as consistently or recurrently elevated IOP greater than 21 mmHg with open anterior chamber angles, normal visual fields, and healthy optic discs.

      If there is a visual field defect, open-angle glaucoma should be suspected. Ophthalmoscopy may reveal cupping of the optic discs. It is important to diagnose and treat these conditions early to prevent vision loss. The American Academy of Ophthalmology and NICE CKS provide guidelines for the diagnosis and treatment of normal-tension glaucoma and glaucoma and ocular hypertension. Regular eye exams and monitoring of IOP are crucial in maintaining good eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening headaches that have been occurring daily for the past eight weeks. He reports experiencing some visual blurring and double vision. He has been using over-the-counter co-codamol to manage the pain. He has a history of good health. During the examination, the doctor observes left-sided mydriasis.
      What medical condition is commonly associated with dilation of the pupil (mydriasis)?

      Your Answer: Horner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Third (oculomotor) nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy and Other Related Conditions

      Third nerve palsy is a condition where the eye is displaced outwards and downwards, resulting in ptosis and mydriasis. Treatment with pilocarpine drops may not be effective in this case. Cluster headaches may cause miosis instead of mydriasis, while Horner syndrome presents with unilateral partial ptosis, miosis, and hemifacial anhidrosis. Opioid addiction may also cause mydriasis during acute withdrawal. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 7 - John is a 50-year-old man who visits his doctor with a rash around...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who visits his doctor with a rash around his left eye. The rash is causing him a lot of pain. Upon examination, he has a vesicular rash on one side of his face that extends to his nose. His eye appears normal, and his vision is not affected. The doctor suspects that he may have shingles.

      What should be the next course of action in John's treatment?

      Your Answer: Treat with oral aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Refer to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. Treatment for shingles includes oral aciclovir within 72 hours of rash onset, but steroids and antibiotics are not recommended. Hospitalization is necessary if there are serious complications, visual symptoms, unexplained red eye, severe or widespread rash, or if the patient is severely immunocompromised. While topical aciclovir is available over the counter for oral herpes, NICE guidelines do not recommend routine prescription due to limited evidence of its effectiveness.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is a type of shingles that affects around 10% of cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.

      The management of HZO involves oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be given for severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review.

      Complications of HZO include conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man complains of itching and burning of his eyelid margins for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man complains of itching and burning of his eyelid margins for two weeks. Upon examination, redness and scaling are observed on the edges of his eyelids.

      Which of the following is the correct statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be advised to use dilute baby shampoo to clean the eyelids twice a day

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Blepharitis

      Blepharitis is a chronic condition that can be caused by staphylococcal infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, meibomian gland dysfunction, or a combination of these factors. It is characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins and can be managed with self-care measures. Good eyelid hygiene is crucial in treating blepharitis, and patients should be advised to clean their eyelids twice a day using dilute baby shampoo.

      While topical or oral antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, they should be reserved for second-line use when eyelid hygiene alone is ineffective. Contact dermatitis and acute conjunctivitis are not the same as blepharitis, and treatment with artificial tears is not always necessary.

      In some cases, chronic blepharitis may be a symptom of rosacea and can be treated with oral tetracycline. It is important for patients to understand the causes and treatment options for blepharitis in order to effectively manage their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful, red eye with watering and blurred vision for the past few days. She has a family history of glaucoma and is myopic. Upon examination, you diagnose her with scleritis. What potential complication should you be concerned about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perforation of the globe

      Explanation:

      Scleritis is a serious condition that requires urgent ophthalmology attention within 24 hours to prevent complications such as perforation of the globe, glaucoma, cataracts, raised intraocular pressure, retinal detachment, and uveitis. It is important to note that scleritis can lead to raised intraocular pressure, not decreased, and entropion is not a complication of scleritis. Episcleritis, a less severe inflammatory condition of the episclera, can be managed within primary care and doesn’t affect vision.

      Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.

      Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with raised intraocular pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) on routine review. The physician notes that there are no visual symptoms or headaches and on examination, there are no visual field defects demonstrated. The optic disc appears normal and specifically, there is no cupping or pallor.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Management of Raised Intraocular Pressure

      Raised intraocular pressure (IOP) is a common finding in adults over 40 years of age, with up to 2% having an IOP > 21 mmHg without signs of glaucoma. While chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic, it can cause deterioration in visual fields and peripheral sensitivity, leading to tunnel vision. Patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and should be referred to an ophthalmologist.

      In cases of acute angle closure glaucoma, patients may experience pain and nausea due to a rapid increase in IOP. This condition requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent permanent visual loss. However, if the patient is asymptomatic and there are no signs of acute angle closure glaucoma, reassurance may be provided.

      Treatment of glaucoma and intraocular hypertension is typically initiated and monitored by specialists. Topical latanoprost and timolol are commonly prescribed medications for glaucoma management. However, these medications should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care.

      In summary, patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and referral to an ophthalmologist. Acute angle closure glaucoma requires urgent ophthalmology review, while chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic and requires specialist management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Eyes And Vision (2/7) 29%
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