-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman who has often presented with various physical complaints is diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder. Despite receiving low intensity psychological interventions, her symptoms remain unchanged. What medication would be the most suitable next step in her treatment?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 21-year-old student has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.
What is the most frequent type of hallucination experienced in schizophrenia?Your Answer: Auditory
Explanation:Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations
Psychosis is a mental health condition that can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations. Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without any corresponding sensory stimulation. While they can occur in any sensory modality, auditory hallucinations are particularly common in patients with schizophrenia. However, it is important to note that the presence or absence of one symptom or type of symptom does not determine the psychiatric diagnosis.
Visual hallucinations are more common in delirium or psychedelic drug intoxication than in schizophrenia. Olfactory and gustatory hallucinations are associated with partial complex seizures, while tactile hallucinations are characteristic of delirium tremens, a severe form of alcohol withdrawal.
To aid in the diagnosis of schizophrenia, clinicians often use mnemonics. Negative symptoms, also known as type II schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym LESS. Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia, in the absence of cerebral damage, intoxication, epilepsy, or mania, can be remembered with the acronym DEAD. Positive symptoms, also known as type I schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym THREAD.
Overall, understanding the characteristics of different types of hallucinations can aid in the evaluation and diagnosis of psychotic patients. However, it is important to consider the overall spectrum of symptoms and the course of the disease when making a diagnosis.
Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman and her 14-year-old daughter are apprehended after being caught trying to destroy a statue in the town square. When asked why, they both explain how the statue comes to life and terrorizes them at night, breaking things in their house, whispering violent thoughts in their minds and urging them to kill themselves. The police officer brings them to the Emergency Department where you evaluate them. The mother is a well-known psychiatric patient, but the daughter has never been seen before.
Which of the following is most likely to acutely reverse the psychosis in at least one of the patients?Your Answer: Separate the patients
Explanation:Treatment Approach for Shared Delusional Disorder
Shared delusional disorder, also known as folie à deux, is a rare psychiatric condition where two individuals develop a paired delusion. In cases where one of the individuals has a history of psychiatric illness, separating the patients is the first step in treating the disorder. This is because the dominant force in the duo may be the source of the delusion, and separating them may resolve the delusion in the other individual.
While benzodiazepines can sedate the patients, they will not acutely reverse psychosis. Similarly, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not indicated as they take time to work and are not effective in acutely reversing psychosis.
Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a treatment approach that takes time and is not effective in acutely reversing psychosis in either of the patients. Therefore, in cases of shared delusional disorder, separating the patients and providing anti-psychotic therapy to the dominant individual may be the most effective treatment approach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and swollen legs for the past few months. She reported having a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), schizophrenia, and hypertension. Her current medications include tiotropium inhaler, ipratropium bromide inhaler, olanzapine, and nifedipine. She had previously taken bendroflumethiazide, which was discontinued two years ago, and had a 5-day course of 30mg oral prednisolone six months ago due to a COPD exacerbation. Her fasting blood tests revealed:
Fasting plasma glucose 7 mmol/L (3.9-5.4)
Random plasma glucose 12 mmol/L (<7.8)
Which medication is likely responsible for her abnormal blood results?Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Antipsychotics can cause metabolic side effects such as dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus. In this case, the patient’s persistent hyperglycaemia in both fasting blood tests and HBA1c tests has led to a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, likely caused by her regular medication, olanzapine. While the patient has also experienced swollen legs, this is likely due to nifedipine rather than the cause of her deranged blood result. A 5-day course of prednisolone given half a year ago is unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Ipratropium bromide is also an unlikely culprit, as it is not known to increase blood sugar levels. Thiazide diuretics, which can increase blood sugar levels, were stopped two years ago and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Other potential metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics include hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, dyslipidemia, and hyperuricemia.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of developing schizophrenia or a similar psychotic disorder?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy
Correct Answer: Being brought up in an institution
Explanation:Schizophrenia and Related Factors
Nurture in an institution does not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. However, individuals from social classes IV and V are more prone to the condition. In the United Kingdom, the lifetime risk of schizophrenia is 1%, but this risk increases to 8-10% if there is an affected sibling. It is important to note that temporal lobe epilepsy can cause hallucinations that mimic schizophrenia. Additionally, amphetamines can induce a state that resembles hyperactive paranoid schizophrenia with hallucinations.
Overall, while environmental factors may play a role in the development of schizophrenia, genetics and neurological conditions are also significant factors to consider. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. He began taking citalopram four months ago to treat his depression, and he now feels that his symptoms have significantly improved. He believes that he has returned to his usual self and no longer requires the antidepressant medication. What advice should the GP provide to minimize the risk of relapse?
Your Answer: Continue citalopram for 6 more months
Explanation:Antidepressant medication should be continued for a minimum of 6 months after symptoms have remitted to reduce the risk of relapse. Therefore, the correct course of action is to continue treatment for 6 more months from the point of remission. Continuing for only 2 or 3 more months would not meet the recommended duration of treatment. Gradually reducing doses over 4 weeks is a suitable approach for weaning off SSRIs, but it should only be done after the 6-month period of treatment. Stopping citalopram abruptly is not safe and could lead to discontinuation syndrome or a relapse of depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A client under your care has been prescribed imipramine for depression. What combination of side-effects is most probable in an individual taking this type of antidepressant?
Your Answer: Dry mouth + urinary frequency
Correct Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth
Explanation:Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old is brought to the on-call psychiatry team at a hospital after being found wandering aimlessly on the streets. The patient had a breakdown in a local convenience store where they were caught stealing cigarettes and had a violent outburst when confronted by the store clerk. When asked about their behavior, they state that they do not care about the consequences of their actions and that they have stolen many times before. They also admit to enjoying hurting others in the past and have a history of animal cruelty. Although they report self-harming in the past, there are no visible scars.
Which of the following characteristics would be more indicative of a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder rather than borderline personality disorder?Your Answer: Concurrently low mood
Correct Answer: Male gender
Explanation:Men are more commonly affected by antisocial personality disorder, while borderline personality disorder is more frequently diagnosed in young women. However, there can be some overlap in the symptoms of both disorders, such as impulsivity. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by unstable emotions, fluctuating self-image, and recurrent thoughts of self-harm or suicide. On the other hand, antisocial personality disorder is marked by a repeated failure to follow social norms or rules, reckless behavior that endangers oneself and others, and a lack of remorse for these actions. If there are persistent mood changes or psychotic symptoms present, it may indicate a different primary diagnosis than a personality disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer: Avoidance
Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male comes in for a psychiatric check-up for his depression and reports frequently losing his train of thought, attributing it to the government stealing his ideas. What is the symptom he is displaying?
Your Answer: Ideas of reference
Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal
Explanation:Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing an 'ocean of bees' surrounding him. He is unable to provide a detailed medical history due to his extreme anxiety and confusion, constantly yelling about the 'deafening buzzing.' His heart rate is 140 beats per minute and his breathing rate is 23 breaths per minute. Reviewing his records, it is noted that he has been admitted to the emergency department multiple times due to alcohol intoxication.
What is the initial treatment for his condition?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are administered to manage delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal.
When a patient experiences delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal after dependency, chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are commonly prescribed. This condition often leads to the manifestation of visual and auditory hallucinations. While haloperidol can be beneficial in calming the patient, the primary treatment for delirium tremens is administering 10-30 mg of chlordiazepoxide four times daily.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man has been admitted to a psychiatric ward for a fourth time. He is withdrawn, irritable, restless and afraid. He says that he has been depressed for about 8 weeks. He has insomnia, loss of appetite and weight loss. He also has suicidal ideation with a plan to overdose on medicine, which he has done in the past under the influence of commanding auditory hallucinations. He hears voices often even when he is not depressed, but they only talk of suicide when he is depressed. He was divorced 5 years ago and has trouble holding jobs due to his paranoia and odd behaviour.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizoaffective disorder, depressed
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Depression and Psychotic Disorders
Depression and psychotic disorders can be complex and difficult to diagnose. One condition that can be particularly challenging to identify is schizoaffective disorder, which involves both mood and psychotic symptoms. In some cases, people with schizophrenia may also experience depressive symptoms, but sub-threshold levels of depression are considered a part of the primary disorder.
A major depressive episode is characterized by mood symptoms that last for at least two weeks, along with changes in sleep, appetite, energy, and other neurovegetative functions. Depression can also involve feelings of guilt, worthlessness, and thoughts of suicide.
Dysthymic disorder is a less severe form of depression that does not involve hallucinations. However, if a person experiences hallucinations only during depressive episodes, they may be diagnosed with a major depressive episode with mood-congruent psychotic features.
If a person experiences hallucinations that are not related to their mood, they may be diagnosed with a major depressive episode with mood-incongruent psychotic features. While the presence of psychotic symptoms does not necessarily mean a person has two separate disorders, it can negatively impact their overall outcome. Understanding the different types of depression and psychotic disorders can help clinicians provide more accurate diagnoses and effective treatments.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about symptoms that have been affecting her for several years but are now becoming more disruptive to her daily life. She has been experiencing obsessive thoughts about her loved ones being harmed and feels compelled to perform certain rituals to prevent this from happening. She spends hours each day checking and rechecking that appliances are turned off and doors are locked. Her relationships are suffering, and she is struggling to maintain her job. She is hesitant to take medication but is open to exploring other treatment options.
What is the most appropriate psychological approach for managing OCD in this case?Your Answer: ERP and psychoanalysis
Correct Answer: Exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Different Therapies for OCD: A Comparison
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that can be managed with various therapies. The most effective ones are exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), which are recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). ERP involves exposing the patient to situations that trigger their compulsive behaviour while preventing them from acting on it. CBT, on the other hand, focuses on changing the patient’s thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes that contribute to their OCD.
Transactional analysis and psychoanalysis are not recommended for treating OCD as there is no evidence to support their use. Transactional analysis involves analysing social transactions to determine the ego state of the patient, while psychoanalysis involves exploring the unconscious to resolve underlying conflicts.
Counselling is also not appropriate for managing OCD as it is non-directive and does not provide specific coping skills.
Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) is not effective for treating OCD either, as it is primarily used for post-traumatic stress disorder. EMDR combines rapid eye movement with cognitive tasks to help patients process traumatic experiences.
In conclusion, ERP and CBT are the most effective therapies for managing OCD, while other therapies such as transactional analysis, psychoanalysis, counselling, and EMDR are not recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of the mental health act for suspected bipolar disorder. She has a 4-month history of manic episodes and has been experiencing delusions of grandeur. She started lithium 3 weeks ago. She has no other medical conditions and takes no other medications. Today, staff on the ward raised concerns due to her abnormal behaviour. She was found in the common room dancing and singing loudly, despite it being late at night. It is reported that she has been like this for the last hour. Her observations are normal. She has not responded to attempts to engage her in conversation or to calm her down. What is the most appropriate description of her current presentation?
Your Answer: Catatonia
Explanation:The most likely cause of the woman’s presentation, who is suspected to have schizophrenia and has been sitting in an uncomfortable position for the last 2 hours, is catatonia. Catatonia is a condition where voluntary movement is stopped or the person stays in an unusual position. It is believed to occur due to abnormalities in the balance of neurotransmitter systems, particularly dopamine, and is commonly associated with certain types of schizophrenia. Treatment for catatonia includes benzodiazepines and electroconvulsive therapy.
Extrapyramidal side effects, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and serotonin syndrome are not the correct answers for this scenario. Extrapyramidal side effects can occur with antipsychotic medications but would not present with the withdrawn status described. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications and presents with different symptoms than catatonia. Serotonin syndrome is caused by excess serotonin in the body and is not associated with the patient’s medication or presentation.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 3 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated the urinary retention?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention may be a side effect of tricyclic antidepressants, particularly with the use of Amitriptyline due to its anticholinergic properties. This can lead to symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, and mydriasis. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are less likely to cause urinary retention and dry mouth. Benzodiazepines like diazepam do not have anticholinergic effects.
Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife. Since retiring from the navy, he has been struggling with anger issues. This is affecting his marriage, and he has been drinking more heavily to help him to relax. He also reports feeling low in mood and having frequent nightmares, including flashbacks from his past experiences while fighting in Afghanistan.
Which one of the following psychological therapies would be most appropriate to manage this condition?Your Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR)
Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Different Approaches to Treating PTSD in Combat-Related Trauma
When it comes to treating post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) caused by combat-related trauma, there are several approaches available. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is often recommended, which involves educating the patient about their reactions to trauma and providing strategies for managing symptoms. Anger management may also be appropriate if the patient is only experiencing anger without other PTSD symptoms. However, eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) is not the most suitable treatment for combat-related trauma. Psychoanalytic therapy, which involves exploring the unconscious to resolve underlying conflicts, is also not recommended. Finally, psychologically focused debriefing is not recommended for treating PTSD in combat- or non-combat-related trauma. It’s important to consider the specific needs of each patient and tailor treatment accordingly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of her tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia 10 years ago and has been on flupenthixol and then haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, her temperature is 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Her respiratory rate is 14 cycles/min. There is pronounced choreoathetoid movement of the hand and fingers.
What is the next line of management of this patient?Your Answer: Give anticholinergics
Correct Answer: Stop the haloperidol and start olanzapine
Explanation:Treatment options for extrapyramidal side-effects of anti-psychotic medication
Extrapyramidal side-effects are common with anti-psychotic medication, particularly with typical anti-psychotics such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine. Tardive dyskinesia is one such side-effect, which can be treated by switching to an atypical anti-psychotic medication like olanzapine. Acute dystonia, on the other hand, can be managed with anticholinergics. Decreasing the dose of haloperidol can help alleviate akathisia, or motor restlessness. Supportive therapy is not effective in treating extrapyramidal side-effects. It is important to monitor patients for these side-effects and adjust medication accordingly to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A teenager has been referred because of bizarre behaviour at school. His teachers have reported that he alternates between very passive and very aggressive behaviours. At times, he cries and withdraws from sight when he thinks he is being slighted in some manner. At other times, he yells wildly and fights over the smallest of infractions. Upon further examination, you discover that the patient has been the victim of significant abuse at home.
Which one of the following defence mechanisms is he likely employing?Your Answer: Sublimation
Correct Answer: Dissociation
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defense Mechanisms: Dissociation, Sublimation, Identification, Reaction Formation, and Splitting
Ego defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations. These mechanisms can be either mature or immature, depending on their effectiveness and adaptability. Here are some examples of common ego defense mechanisms and how they manifest in individuals:
Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person temporarily modifies their personal identity to avoid distress. For instance, a victim of abuse may develop multiple personalities to cope with the trauma.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person takes an unacceptable personality trait and channels it into a respectable work that aligns with their values. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.
Identification: This is when a person models the behavior of a more powerful figure. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.
Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.
Splitting: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person is unable to reconcile both good and bad traits in a given person and sees people as either all good or all bad.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address maladaptive coping strategies and work towards healthier ways of dealing with stress.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from her General Practitioner. The patient is experiencing persistent low mood for the past two months and finds it difficult to get out of bed to go to work at times. She used to enjoy playing tennis, but now she does not find pleasure in any sports. Additionally, she has lost interest in food and lacks the motivation to go out and meet her friends. The patient also reports waking up early in the morning and having difficulty falling back asleep. She lives alone and has been divorced for two years. She smokes and drinks moderate amounts of alcohol.
What is the most affected aspect of pleasure in this patient?Your Answer: Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Neurotransmitters and Depression: Understanding the Role of Dopamine
Depression is a complex mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact causes of depression are not fully understood, research has shown that neurotransmitters play a crucial role in its pathophysiology. One of the main neurotransmitters involved in depression is dopamine.
Dopamine is primarily involved in the reward system of the brain, which is responsible for feelings of pleasure and motivation. Anhedonia, the lack of pleasure in doing pleasurable activities, is a major symptom of depression. Studies have shown that the reward system, which works primarily via the action of dopamine, is affected in depression.
While most antidepressants work by increasing the concentration of serotonin or norepinephrine in the neuronal synaptic cleft, anhedonia has been a symptom that is hard to treat. This is because dopamine is the main neurotransmitter involved in the reward system, and increasing its concentration is crucial in relieving anhedonia.
Other neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, serotonin, noradrenaline, and GABA, also play a role in depression, but they are not primarily involved in the reward system and anhedonia symptoms. Understanding the role of dopamine in depression can help in the development of more effective treatments for this debilitating condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to harm herself. She is currently stable. What form of psychotherapy would be most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer: Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Psychotherapy Options for Schizophrenia
There are several psychotherapy options available for individuals with schizophrenia. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a structured, goal-directed, problem-focused, and time-limited therapy that combines principles of both behavioural and cognitive therapy. It focuses on the environment, behaviour, and cognition simultaneously. Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy primarily relies on insight, bringing unconscious or unclear material into awareness, and linking past and present experiences to address the patient’s difficulties. Interpersonal therapy is derived partially from a psychodynamic perspective and focuses primarily on the patient’s interpersonal relationships. It is fairly non-directive and addresses issues such as grief, role transitions, interpersonal role disputes, and interpersonal deficits as they relate to the patient’s current symptoms.
Family therapy is another option that helps family members learn about the disorder, solve problems, and cope more constructively with the patient’s illness. There is evidence that family interventions can reduce relapse rates in schizophrenia. Systemic desensitisation is an exposure-based behavioural treatment that utilises gradual, systematic, repeated exposure to the feared object or situation to allow patients with anxiety disorders to become desensitised to the feared stimulus.
The decision between CBT and family therapy would be highly influenced by patient preference. However, if only CBT is presented as an option, it would be the appropriate choice. It is important to consider the different psychotherapy options available and choose the one that best suits the patient’s needs and preferences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Upon conducting an ECG, torsades de pointes is observed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the cardiac anomaly?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Citalopram, an SSRI used to treat major depressive disorder, has been identified as the most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes. In 2011, the MHRA issued a warning against its use in patients with long-QT syndrome. While fluoxetine and sertraline can also cause prolonged QT, citalopram is more frequently associated with this side effect. Gentamicin, a bactericidal antibiotic, does not appear to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Although sertraline is another SSRI that can cause prolonged QT, citalopram remains the most concerning in this regard.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
An 85-year-old man with early-stage dementia is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by his daughter to discuss appointing a Lasting Power of Attorney.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the Mental Capacity Act (MCA)?Your Answer: There are four statutory principles in the MCA
Correct Answer: If a person lacks capacity to make a decision, the Act states that a decision should be made that is in their best interests
Explanation:Understanding the Mental Capacity Act: Myths and Facts
The Mental Capacity Act (MCA) is a crucial piece of legislation that outlines how decisions should be made for individuals who lack capacity. However, there are several myths surrounding the MCA that can lead to confusion and misunderstandings. Here are some common myths and the facts that debunk them:
Myth: If a person has a severe learning disability or brain injury, they automatically lack capacity.
Fact: Capacity should be assessed on an individual basis, and a diagnosis alone does not determine whether someone lacks capacity. If there is any doubt, a capacity assessment should be performed.Myth: Relatives who have not been appointed as a Lasting Power of Attorney have no role in decision-making for people who lack capacity.
Fact: Any relative who has knowledge of the person’s wishes and beliefs can be consulted for their opinion on which treatment they feel the person would find the least restrictive and in their best interests.Myth: There are only four statutory principles in the MCA.
Fact: There are five principles of the MCA, which include the presumption of capacity, supporting individuals to make their own decisions whenever possible, recognizing the right to make unwise decisions, prioritizing the best interests of the person, and choosing the least restrictive treatment option.Myth: The MCA only applies to people aged 18 years and over.
Fact: The MCA applies to anyone aged 16 years or over. In individuals under the age of 16, capacity can be assessed using the Gillick competence.Myth: If a person lacks capacity, decisions should be made based solely on what healthcare professionals think is best.
Fact: If a person lacks capacity, decisions should be made that are thought to be in their best interests. This should take into account any expressed wishes from the person previously and advice about the person’s opinions from anyone who is close to the person, including relatives or carers.By understanding the facts about the MCA, we can ensure that individuals who lack capacity receive the best possible care and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Manic episode
Correct Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Differentiating between Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode
Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode are all mental health conditions that can present with similar symptoms. However, each disorder has its own unique characteristics that differentiate it from the others.
Conduct Disorder is a disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18 and is associated with disruptive, bullying behavior and often torture of animals. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others.
Major Depression is associated with depressed mood, in addition to five of the following symptoms: sleep changes, loss of interest in previous hobbies or activities, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts persisting for 2 weeks.
Oppositional Defiant Disorder is characterized by behavior in opposition to authority, but there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty.
Antisocial Disorder is diagnosed in individuals who are 18 or older and exhibit signs of Conduct Disorder. It is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others and a lack of empathy.
Manic Episode is associated with elevated mood lasting for 7 days. These patients feel as though they have increased energy, do not need sleep, engage in risky sexual activity and sometimes illicit behavior, feel above the law or invincible, are easily distractible, have flight of fancy, are agitated, and have pressured speech.
It is important to differentiate between these disorders to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate treatment and support for their specific condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after attempting suicide with an overdose of medication. Upon questioning, she says that she has recently broken up with her boyfriend and that he does not let her use cocaine and marijuana. This is the second time that they have broken up, and she tells you that she fights constantly with him. Hospital records show that she has been admitted to hospital many times and that she has had many previous suicide attempts. She admits to drinking heavily at weekends and to having had unprotected sex with multiple partners over the last year.
Which one of the following personality disorders best describes this patient?Your Answer: Schizoid
Correct Answer: Borderline
Explanation:Personality Disorders: Types and Characteristics
Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. There are several types of personality disorders, each with its own set of characteristics.
Borderline Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, intense mood swings, and unpredictable behavior. Individuals with this disorder may struggle with maintaining stable relationships and may have difficulty regulating their emotions.
Avoidant Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially inhibited and may avoid social situations due to a fear of rejection. They may also struggle with feelings of inadequacy and low self-esteem.
Dependent Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder may have an excessive need for nurture and may struggle with making decisions on their own. They may also have low self-confidence and be overly submissive in relationships.
Schizoid Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially isolated and may have limited emotional expression. They may prefer to be alone and may struggle with forming close relationships.
Schizotypal Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by odd thought patterns and interpersonal awkwardness. Individuals with this disorder may also have an unusual appearance or behavior.
Overall, personality disorders can significantly impact an individual’s daily life and relationships. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know may be struggling with a personality disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review this morning, he appears to be a poor historian, providing minimal answers and insisting that he is deceased and does not belong in a hospital meant for the living. What is the specific name of this delusional disorder and with which condition is it typically linked?
Your Answer: Capgras delusion and Dementia
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder
Explanation:Severe depression is often linked to Cotard syndrome, a rare form of nihilistic delusions where individuals believe they are dead or non-existent. This condition can also be observed in individuals with schizophrenia.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.
The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?
Your Answer: Bartter's syndrome
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.
Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging
Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.
Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female complains of headache, weakness, and pains in her arms and legs. She reports feeling like her symptoms are worsening. She has no significant medical history except for a miscarriage two years ago.
Upon examination, her neurological and musculoskeletal functions appear normal, and there are no alarming signs in her headache history. Her GP conducts a comprehensive blood test, which yields normal results.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Delusional disorder
Correct Answer: Somatoform disorder
Explanation:The young woman has physical symptoms without any disease process, which may be a form of somatisation/somatoform disorder. This disorder is often caused by underlying psychological distress and may result in depression or anxiety. Hypochondriasis is a belief that one is suffering from a severe disorder, while Münchausen syndrome is a disorder where a patient mimics a particular disorder to gain attention. To diagnose malingering, there needs to be evidence that the patient is purposefully generating symptoms for some kind of gain. In a somatisation disorder, the patient may have no clinical evidence of illness or physical injury but believes they have one.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in hospital for the past year. He was diagnosed with depression at the age of 23 and has been on antidepressants since. He has had multiple self-harm and suicide attempts in the past. For the past year, he has been receiving treatment in hospital and has been making some progress with regard to his mental health. He is not happy to be in hospital, but the doctors thought that it was in his best interests to keep him in hospital for treatment. He has been under a Section which allowed him to be kept in hospital for six months. At the end of the first six months, the doctors applied for a second time for him to be kept for another six months, as they feel he is not yet fit for discharge.
For how long can the relevant Section be renewed for this patient for the third time?Your Answer: Six months
Correct Answer: One year
Explanation:Understanding the Time Limits of Mental Health Detention in the UK
In the UK, mental health detention is governed by specific time limits depending on the type of detention and the purpose of the detention. Here are some of the key time limits to be aware of:
– Section 2: This is the Section used for assessment, and a patient can be kept in hospital for a maximum of 28 days under this Section. It cannot be extended.
– Section 3: This is the Section used for treatment, and a patient can be detained for up to six months initially. The Section can be renewed for another six months, and then for one year at a time. Treatment without consent can be given for the first three months, and then only with the approval of an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ for the next three months.
– Two years: While a patient can be kept in hospital for up to two years for treatment, Section 3 cannot be renewed for two years at a time. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough.
– Six months: This is the time for which an initial Section 3 can be applied for and the time for which it can be renewed for a second time. For a third time and onwards, Section 3 can be renewed for one year each time, but the patient can be discharged earlier if doctors think it is not necessary for the patient to be under Section anymore.Understanding these time limits is important for both patients and healthcare professionals involved in mental health detention in the UK.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very concerned about him, saying that over the last few weeks, he has been hiding himself in their bedroom, heard to be talking to himself and accusing her of stealing his secret work and selling it to the government.
You conduct a mental state examination and elicit the following symptoms.
Which of these symptoms is a negative symptom?Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations
Correct Answer: Blunted affect
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms are those that reflect an increase or excess of the sufferer’s normal function, while negative symptoms are those that reflect a decrease or loss of normal function.
Blunted affect, social withdrawal, apathy, and anhedonia are examples of negative symptoms. These symptoms can be very prominent and are often associated with a less favorable prognosis. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations, delusions of grandeur, and thought echo are examples of positive symptoms.
Delusions of passivity, which imply that a person feels their actions, feelings, or impulses are being controlled by an external force, are not negative symptoms. It is important to understand the different symptoms of schizophrenia to properly diagnose and treat the disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. She is seeking medication to help her sleep. What is her response?
Your Answer: Panic disorder
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after four weeks have passed. Although this patient’s symptoms have the potential to develop into PTSD, they currently meet the criteria for acute stress disorder. It is important to monitor their progress and reassess in two weeks.
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month after the initial episode.
Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness or loss of pleasure in activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry that is pervasive and persistent, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms. This disorder must be present for longer than two weeks and is typically experienced on a continuum of severity.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental state examination on one of the patients on the inpatient psychiatry ward, a 22-year-old man who was admitted 2 days ago.
Whenever you ask him a question, you notice that he repeats the question back to you. You notice that he is also repeating some of the phrases you use.
What form of thought disorder is this an example of?Your Answer: Neologism
Correct Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the questions being asked. Clang association is when someone uses words that rhyme with each other or sound similar. Neologism is the formation of new words. Perseveration is when ideas or words are repeated several times.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 22-year-old male with depression who has had limited success with various antidepressants and counseling. You opt to initiate a trial of mirtazapine. What side effect of this antidepressant can you advise him is a common feature?
Your Answer: Agranulocytosis
Correct Answer: Increase in appetite
Explanation:Mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that works by blocking alpha-2 receptors, but it often causes unwanted side effects such as increased appetite and sedation, which can make it difficult for patients to tolerate. On the other hand, MAOI antidepressants like phenelzine can cause a dangerous reaction when consuming foods high in tyramine, such as cheese, leading to a hypertensive crisis. While tardive dyskinesia is typically associated with typical antipsychotics, it can rarely occur as a result of some antidepressants. It’s worth noting that headache is a common withdrawal symptom of mirtazapine, rather than a side effect during its use.
Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.
Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.
Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum with symptoms of low mood, lack of energy, and loss of pleasure for the past 3 weeks. She is currently breastfeeding. She has previously taken fluoxetine and found it effective but stopped during pregnancy. After a conversation, she has decided to resume her medication.
Which antidepressant would be the best choice to initiate treatment?Your Answer: Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
A 40-year-old mid-level manager is referred by his company after a recent incident. He had been working on a major project that would secure his promotion and position in the firm. After months of hard work, he was just about to finalize the project when his team member made a mistake that caused a setback. Frustrated by the setback, your patient began yelling, stomping on the floor and throwing objects until he broke a window.
Which one of the following ego defences best describes his behaviour?Your Answer: Regression
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defence Mechanisms: Types and Examples
Regression, Sublimation, Identification, Dissociation, and Reaction Formation are all ego defence mechanisms that individuals use to cope with stress and anxiety.
Regression is an immature defence mechanism where individuals revert to childish behaviour when faced with stress. For example, a frustrated person may throw a temper tantrum like a toddler.
Sublimation, on the other hand, is a mature defence mechanism where individuals channel their unacceptable personality traits into respectable work that aligns with their values.
Identification is when individuals model the behaviour of a more powerful person. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.
Dissociation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals temporarily modify their personal identity to avoid distress. An extreme form of dissociation is dissociative identity disorder.
Finally, Reaction Formation is an immature defence mechanism where individuals repress unacceptable emotions and replace them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.
Understanding these ego defence mechanisms can help individuals recognize and cope with their own stress and anxiety in a healthy way.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A patient who has been attending your GP surgery with a worsening depressive episode on a background of known depression presents with occasional suicidal thoughts and is finding it difficult to cope with some daily activities despite use of psychological therapies and regular consultation with the GP. You agree to trial use of an antidepressant.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for a patient in their 60s?Your Answer: Lorazepam
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Depression: Understanding Antidepressants
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While psychological interventions are the first line of treatment, drug therapy may be necessary in some cases. This article discusses the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression.
Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is the first line choice for treating depression. It is well-tolerated and effective in improving depression symptoms. However, it should be used in conjunction with psychological therapies.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that has largely been replaced by SSRIs due to its toxicity in overdose.
Paroxetine is also an SSRI, but it is only licensed for treating major depressive episodes, not moderate ones.
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is not recommended for treating depression due to issues with dependence and addiction.
Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that is primarily used for Parkinson’s disease but can be used for treatment-resistant depression under the guidance of a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression is crucial in providing effective care for patients. Primary care providers should work closely with mental health professionals to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a backache that has persisted for the last two weeks. The doctor diagnoses her with a muscle strain and recommends rest with paracetamol for pain as needed. The patient requested narcotic pain medicine, but the doctor refused to prescribe the drug because she thought a medicine of that strength was unnecessary. The patient left the examination room angrily and yelled at the reception staff on her way out.
Which of the following defence mechanisms was the patient demonstrating?Your Answer: Splitting
Correct Answer: Displacement
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms in Psychology
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations or emotions. These mechanisms can be conscious or unconscious and can be adaptive or maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms:
Displacement: This occurs when a person redirects their emotions or impulses from the original source to a neutral or innocent person or object.
Projection: This is when a person attributes their own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to someone else.
Denial: This is when a person refuses to accept reality or a diagnosis, often to avoid the pain or discomfort associated with it.
Fixation: This is when a person becomes overly focused on a particular thought, idea, or object as a way of coping with stress.
Splitting: This is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder, where a person sees others as either all good or all bad, and may switch between these views rapidly.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize when they are using them and work towards more adaptive coping strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 22-year old woman comes to see her GP, seeking medication for opioid withdrawal. She explains that she has been using heroin for the past six months since losing her job as a store manager. She informs the GP that she has decided to quit using heroin and has not taken any for the past three days. She reports experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms that have been affecting her daily life and asks if there is anything that can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms.
What are the observable indications of opioid withdrawal?Your Answer: Pinpoint pupils, nausea, piloerection
Correct Answer: Dilated pupils, yawning, rhinorrhoea, epiphora
Explanation:Identifying Objective Signs of Opioid Withdrawal and Intoxication
It is crucial to recognize objective signs of opioid withdrawal and intoxication to prevent fatal outcomes. In psychiatric settings, individuals may falsely claim withdrawal to obtain opioid medications. Objective signs of withdrawal include epiphora, rhinorrhoea, agitation, perspiration, piloerection, tachycardia, vomiting, shivering, yawning, and dilated pupils. Pinpoint pupils, yawning, and galactorrhoea are indicative of opiate intoxication. Respiratory depression is a feature of opioid intoxication, along with pinpoint pupils and bradycardia. Opioid intoxication can also cause pulmonary oedema, stupor, pallor, severe respiratory depression, and nausea. By recognizing these objective signs, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat opioid withdrawal and intoxication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
What type of psychotherapy focuses on a patient's early past experiences, particularly within the family, to determine perceptions of others, including the therapist, and identify patterns of thinking and relating to others? The goal of this therapy is to allow the patient to gain insight into unconscious motivations, improve effectiveness in the adult world, and enhance interpersonal relationships.
Your Answer: Behaviour therapy
Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis
Explanation:Overview of Different Types of Psychotherapies
Psychoanalysis, cognitive therapy, behavior therapy, brief interpersonal therapy, and structural family therapy are some of the different types of psychotherapies available today. Each therapy has its own unique approach to treating mental health issues.
Psychoanalysis, the forerunner of all contemporary psychotherapies, focuses on the theory of human mental life and psychological symptom formation. It posits that adult beliefs and patterns of relating are determined by early experiences with important people. Cognitive therapy, on the other hand, works with the patient’s conscious beliefs about themselves, others, and their world. Behavior therapy, derived from animal research, teaches patients to behave in more adaptive ways. Brief interpersonal therapy deals with specific circumstances thought to contribute to depression, while structural family therapy is designed to help families in which a child shows psychiatric symptoms, behavior problems, or unstable chronic illness.
Regardless of the type of therapy, the goal is to help patients achieve better mental health and well-being. Each therapy has its own unique approach, but all aim to help patients understand and overcome their mental health issues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
The man experiences periods of elevated mood, where he spends a lot of money and sleeps very little. He denies having any delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
The man also has episodes of severe depression, where he feels suicidal, loses interest in his hobbies, and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cyclothymia
Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder
Explanation:The woman’s alternating episodes of hypomania and severe depression suggest that she has type 2 bipolar disorder. There are no indications of an anxiety disorder, and the severity of her symptoms is not consistent with cyclothymia. Major depressive disorder is also not a likely diagnosis, as she experiences ‘highs’ consistent with hypomania. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as her ‘high’ periods are more in line with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.
Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old female with depression is seen by her psychiatrist. She reports that her antidepressants are not improving her depressed mood. She expresses a sense of detachment from her surroundings, including her loved ones.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormality?Your Answer: Depersonalisation
Correct Answer: Derealisation
Explanation:Derealisation
Derealisation is a phenomenon where an individual experiences a sense of detachment from their surroundings, leading them to believe that the world around them is not real. It is different from depersonalisation, which is a feeling of detachment from oneself. While depression may cause symptoms such as anhedonia, nihilistic delusions, and reduced affect display, these are not necessarily present in someone experiencing derealisation.
In summary, derealisation is a dissociative experience that can make an individual feel as though their environment is not real. It is important to note that this is a distinct experience from depersonalisation and may occur without other symptoms commonly associated with depression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman visits her GP and complains of constant worrying, difficulty sleeping, and lack of focus on activities she used to enjoy. She is prescribed a new medication and referred for CBT. After a month, she returns to her GP feeling weak, lethargic, and experiencing muscle cramps. Her blood tests reveal the following results:
Sodium: 126 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium: 3.7 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine: 95 µmol/l (normal range: 68-98 µmol/l)
Calcium: 2.40 mmol/l (normal range: 2.05-2.60 mmol/l)
Phosphate: 1.41 mmol/l (normal range: 0.8-1.50 mmol/l)
Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Common Anxiety Medications and their Side Effects
Anxiety disorders are commonly treated with medication, and there are several options available. The first-line pharmacological treatment for anxiety is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as sertraline, paroxetine, or escitalopram. Alternatively, serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) like venlafaxine or duloxetine may be used. However, it is important to note that SSRIs can cause hyponatraemia, particularly in the elderly.
Diazepam is another medication used to treat anxiety, but it is not known to cause hyponatraemia. Its main side-effects are drowsiness and decreased concentration.
Pregabalin may be used if SSRIs or SNRIs are contraindicated or cannot be tolerated. It is not known to cause hyponatraemia.
Propranolol is a medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure, but it can also be used to treat anxiety. Its main side-effects are dizziness, fatigue, cold peripheries, insomnia, and nightmares. However, hyponatraemia is not a known side-effect of propranolol.
Finally, zopiclone may be prescribed for insomnia, but it is usually a short-term prescription and not given for more than four weeks due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms and tolerance. It is not known to cause hyponatraemia.
In summary, while there are several medications available to treat anxiety, it is important to be aware of their potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down. She finds it difficult to work with her colleagues and believes they are not performing up to par. Consequently, she declines to delegate tasks and has become exhausted.
Upon further inquiry, she adheres to a strict daily routine and tries to avoid deviating from it as much as possible. If she fails to follow this plan, she becomes anxious and spends her free time catching up on tasks.
What is the most suitable course of action in managing her probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy
Explanation:The female librarian seeking advice exhibits inflexible behavior in her work and becomes easily annoyed when her routines are disrupted. She prefers to work alone, relying on lists and rules to structure her day, which are indicative of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is the recommended approach for managing personality disorders, including OCPD. Exposure and response prevention (ERP) and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) are not appropriate for her condition, as they are used to manage obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), respectively. Prescribing fluoxetine may be considered for any associated depression, but addressing the underlying cause with DBT is the initial priority.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man presents with a range of physical symptoms that have been ongoing for the past 7 years. Despite multiple investigations and consultations with various specialists, no organic cause has been found for his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Conversion disorder
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:The appropriate diagnosis for a patient who is experiencing persistent, unexplained symptoms is somatisation disorder, as they are primarily concerned with the symptoms rather than a specific underlying diagnosis like cancer (which would be indicative of hypochondria). It is important to note that intentional production of symptoms, such as self-poisoning, would fall under the category of Munchausen’s syndrome.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine for elderly patients?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a type of antidepressant known as a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor. When choosing an antidepressant, factors such as patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost should be considered, although SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio.
Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors
Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.
Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man without medical history is beginning treatment with tranylcypromine for his depression. What foods should he be cautioned against consuming?
Your Answer: Eggs
Correct Answer: Cheese
Explanation:To prevent a hypertensive crisis, individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should steer clear of tyramine-containing foods, such as cheese. Other foods have not been found to have an interaction with MAOIs.
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors and their Adverse Effects
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are drugs that inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is responsible for the breakdown of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and noradrenaline in the presynaptic cell. Non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors, such as tranylcypromine and phenelzine, are used in the treatment of atypical depression and other psychiatric disorders. However, they are not commonly used due to their adverse effects.
One of the main adverse effects of non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors is hypertensive reactions when consuming tyramine-containing foods such as cheese, pickled herring, Bovril, Oxo, Marmite, and broad beans. This is because monoamine oxidase normally breaks down tyramine, but when inhibited by the drug, tyramine can accumulate and cause a sudden increase in blood pressure. Therefore, patients taking non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors must adhere to a strict diet that avoids these foods.
Another adverse effect of non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors is anticholinergic effects, which can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. These effects are due to the inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, acetylcholine levels increase and can lead to these side effects.
In conclusion, while non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors can be effective in treating certain psychiatric disorders, they are not commonly used due to their adverse effects. Patients taking these drugs must adhere to a strict diet and be monitored for potential side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
What is a common side effect of olanzapine?
Your Answer: Hypoadrenalism
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Side Effects of Olanzapine
Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause several side effects. One of the most common side effects is akathisia, which is characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still. Other side effects associated with the use of olanzapine include agranulocytosis, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperglycaemia, depression, and anxiety. Agranulocytosis is a condition where the body’s immune system is unable to produce enough white blood cells, which can lead to infections. Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition where the body produces too much of the hormone prolactin, which can cause breast enlargement and lactation in both men and women. Hyperglycaemia is a condition where the body has high levels of glucose in the blood, which can lead to diabetes. Depression and anxiety are also common side effects of olanzapine, which can be particularly problematic for individuals with pre-existing mental health conditions. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking olanzapine and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
As a healthcare professional, you are asked to evaluate a patient in their early 30s who is experiencing chest pain and is awaiting assessment by the psychiatry team. Upon examination and investigations, no abnormalities are found. However, you observe that the patient is exhibiting unusual behavior, avoiding eye contact and being hesitant to answer questions. After building a rapport with the patient, they reveal that they have never been in a romantic relationship and prefer to be alone to avoid embarrassment. They have no friends and do not communicate with their family due to constant criticism. What type of personality disorder is the patient likely experiencing?
Your Answer: Histrionic
Correct Answer: Avoidant
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder exhibit a strong fear of criticism, rejection, ridicule, and being disliked. This fear often leads to social isolation and avoidance of activities that may result in embarrassment or negative judgment from others. It is important to note that this disorder is distinct from other personality disorders such as antisocial, borderline, and histrionic, which have their own unique symptoms and characteristics.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very hygienic person, but since the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic, she has been washing her hands excessively - up to 60 times a day. She is aware that this is causing her skin to become dry and irritated, but her anxiety about contracting the virus is too great to stop. She works in a hospital and is worried about her colleagues noticing her frequent hand washing. You suspect she may have obsessive-compulsive disorder and decide to refer her to the community mental health team. What treatment options are likely to be offered to her?
Your Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR)
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A 56-year-old man presents to the community mental health team with a history of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). He reports obsessive thoughts about his family members being in danger and admits to calling his wife and daughters 3-4 times an hour to ensure their safety. Despite undergoing cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP), he still experiences distressing symptoms. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, unstable angina, and pre-diabetes. What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this man's OCD?
Your Answer: Add sertraline
Explanation:Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Sarah, a 15-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father as Sarah has not had her first period. She is 1.50m tall and weighs 40 Kg. Her heart rate is 60 beats per minute. Blood pressure is 120/90 mmHg. She has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics. There is a strong family history of eating disorder. You suspect that the delayed puberty may be due to anorexia nervosa.
What evidence supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa in Sarah?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Correct Answer: Lanugo hair
Explanation:The presence of lanugo hair, which is fine and downy hair that grows in response to body fat loss, can be a characteristic physical finding that supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. However, this should be considered alongside other features such as the failure of secondary sexual characteristics, bradycardia, cold intolerance, and a yellow tinge on the skin (hypercarotenaemia). Anosmia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa, but it may be relevant in patients with Kallmann syndrome, which involves anosmia and delayed or absent puberty. Hirsutism, which is excessive hair growth, is indicative of elevated testosterone levels and is not compatible with anorexia nervosa. Hyperkalaemia is an incorrect feature, as hypokalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in anorexia. Patients with anorexia nervosa often have high cholesterol levels in their blood.
Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.
Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.
Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 51
Correct
-
A 47-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with worsening anxiety. He describes one of his symptoms as feeling severely nauseous and even vomiting every time he smells a particular perfume. What theory of learning explains this?
Your Answer: Classical conditioning
Explanation:Types of Learning and Conditioning in Psychology
Classical conditioning, latent inhibition, habituation, operant conditioning, and tolerance are all types of learning and conditioning in psychology.
Classical conditioning involves learning through association, where an unfamiliar stimulus becomes associated with a conditioned response through repetitive exposure.
Latent inhibition refers to the slower acquisition of meaning or response to a familiar stimulus compared to a new stimulus.
Habituation is the decrease in responsiveness to a stimulus with repeated exposure.
Operant conditioning involves learning through positive or negative reinforcement, where a voluntary response is followed by a reinforcing stimulus.
Tolerance is the reduced response to a drug over time, requiring a higher concentration to achieve the desired effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of mood changes eight days after giving birth. She expresses that she does not want the baby and believes that it is dying. She feels like crying constantly. She experiences auditory and visual hallucinations that tell her to harm herself. Apart from this, she has no significant medical history.
What is the diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Schizoid disorder
Correct Answer: Postpartum psychosis
Explanation:Differentiating Postpartum Psychosis from Other Psychiatric Disorders
Postpartum psychosis is a severe form of postpartum depression that presents with psychotic features, including auditory hallucinations instructing the patient to harm herself and rejection of the child. Antipsychotic medication is required for intervention in severe cases, while cognitive behavioural therapy and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may be used for milder cases. On the other hand, postnatal blues is a mild, transient disturbance in mood occurring between the third and sixth day after delivery, while adjustment disorder is diagnosed in the absence of another psychiatric diagnosis and does not involve auditory or visual hallucinations. Anxiety disorder, specifically generalised anxiety disorder, is characterised by excessive worry disproportionate to the situation, restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, muscle tenderness, and poor sleep, but does not occur specifically post-delivery. Schizoid personality disorder, which involves a lack of interest in social relationships, solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, emotional coldness, and apathy, is not an acute presentation like postpartum psychosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
Which statement about the causation and dynamics of schizophrenia is accurate?
Your Answer: The lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia if one parent is affected is of the order of 50%
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia is commoner in individuals not in stable relationships
Explanation:Schizophrenia Risk Factors
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. The risk of developing schizophrenia is influenced by various factors, including heavy cannabis use, marital status, socioeconomic status, and genetics.
According to the Swedish conscript study, heavy cannabis users have a sevenfold increase in the risk of developing schizophrenia. However, it is unclear whether cannabis use directly causes schizophrenia or if there are other underlying factors at play.
Marital status also appears to be a factor in schizophrenia risk, with unmarried and divorced individuals being twice as likely to develop the disorder compared to married or widowed individuals. This may be due to the alienating effects of schizophrenia rather than any causal relationship with being single.
Additionally, people with schizophrenia are more likely to be in the lowest socioeconomic groups. While poverty may not directly cause schizophrenia, it may increase the risk of exposure to biological factors or social stressors that could trigger the illness in susceptible individuals.
Finally, genetics also play a significant role in schizophrenia risk, with monozygotic twins having a 50% concordance rate and 10% of offspring being affected. This suggests a strong inheritance component to the disorder.
Overall, while the exact causes of schizophrenia are not fully understood, it is clear that multiple factors contribute to its development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
An 87-year-old man who lives in a care home is reported missing after breakfast. The care home actively tries to find him but is not able to for the next few hours. A police report is made, and later that day, the man is found wandering two streets away from the care home. He is brought back to the care home, and the care home is concerned that he might try to get out again. The nurse caring for the patient reports that the man has been trying to get out of the care home for the past few weeks but did not manage to do so, as they were able to prevent him on time. The care home wants to fit a lock to the patient’s room door to restrict his mobility during busy times of the day when limited staff are available to make sure he does not get out. The patient is medically stable, has a diagnosis of dementia, and is known to lack capacity to make a decision about his treatment and freedom.
Which of the following is the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer: The patient should be admitted to hospital
Correct Answer: The patient can be restricted for seven days under urgent DoLS authorisation
Explanation:Understanding Urgent DoLS Authorisation
In situations where a person’s best interest requires the authorisation of Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS) but there is not enough time for a standard authorisation, an urgent authorisation can be applied for by the care home manager or hospital. This allows the individual to be deprived of their liberty for up to seven days. It is important to note that this can only be done if it is in the person’s best interest.
In the case of a patient who lacks capacity, they cannot make decisions regarding their freedom and treatment. Therefore, the option of allowing the patient to be free is not applicable. However, if the patient is medically stable and does not require hospital admission, they should not be admitted.
It is crucial to understand that an urgent DoLS authorisation can only be applied for seven days, not 21 days. Additionally, the Mental Health Act 1983 is not appropriate for detaining patients who are not in the hospital for assessment or treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
Sarah, a 44-year-old taxi driver, visits her GP 4 months after being involved in a car accident. During the consultation, the GP takes a thorough psychiatric history. Sarah is unable to recall the specifics of the accident, but the thought of driving her car causes her to feel anxious. Consequently, she avoids driving whenever possible, which worries her as it may impact her income.
Further investigation by the GP reveals that Sarah has been compulsively buying clothes and electronics online. Additionally, she has been relying on her sister and son to help with household tasks such as cooking and cleaning due to a lack of motivation. Sarah's sister has also noted that she has been crossing busy roads recklessly on several occasions.
Which aspect of Sarah's history provides the strongest indication of a PTSD diagnosis?Your Answer: Increased reliance on family members for cooking and cleaning
Correct Answer: Avoidance of driving
Explanation:PTSD is characterized by several common features, including re-experiencing of the traumatic event through flashbacks and nightmares, avoidance of triggering situations or people, and hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and sleep disturbances. Those with PTSD may avoid situations that cause anxiety related to the traumatic event, as well as certain individuals or objects. While disordered mood and thinking are present in PTSD, individuals with the disorder often remember specific details of the traumatic event in vivid detail. Compulsive behavior is not a recognized symptom of PTSD, but may be present in other psychiatric conditions such as bipolar disorder. While increased reliance on family members is not a recognized feature of PTSD, individuals with the disorder may experience difficulties in relationships and interpersonal interactions.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Given her age and first episode of psychosis, what crucial investigation is necessary to rule out other potential underlying causes?
Your Answer: ECG
Correct Answer: CT head
Explanation:When elderly patients present with sudden onset psychosis, it is important to consider and rule out organic causes before attributing it to a primary psychotic disorder. In such cases, a CT head scan or even an MRI should be considered to detect any underlying organic causes such as a brain tumour, stroke or CNS infection. While HbA1c is typically used to assess diabetes control, PET scans are more commonly used to provide detailed information about metabolic processes in tissues, such as identifying active cancer cells. Chest X-rays may also be useful in certain cases.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman, with a history of hearing voices, was brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She described the voices as telling her to kill her father as ‘he has the devil in him’. She also reported noting her intelligence being tapped through the Internet by a higher power. This has been going on for the past 6 months. Her family denies either depression or manic episodes. The patient was admitted to an inpatient Psychiatry Unit and started on haloperidol for her symptoms, after an evaluation and diagnosis of schizophrenia. Twelve hours after initiation of therapy, the patient started to have stiffness in the neck muscles and spine. Physical examination revealed muscular spasms in the neck and spine, a temperature of 37.2 °C, blood pressure 125/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80 bpm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: Acute dystonia
Explanation:Complications of Haloperidol: Acute Dystonia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, Serotonin Syndrome, and Meningitis
Haloperidol is an anti-psychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia. However, it can also cause various complications. Acute dystonia is a condition where the patient experiences muscle spasms in different muscle groups, which can occur shortly after taking haloperidol. Treatment for acute dystonia involves administering anticholinergics.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another complication that can occur as a result of taking anti-psychotic medication, particularly high-potency ones like haloperidol. Symptoms include abnormal vital signs, such as high fever, and treatment involves discontinuing the medication and managing symptoms with cooling measures and medications like dantrolene or bromocriptine.
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that can occur when a patient takes multiple doses or an overdose of medications like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), or serotonin agonists like sumatriptans. Symptoms include muscular twitching, agitation, confusion, hyperthermia, sweating, hypertension, tachycardia, and diarrhea.
Meningitis, on the other hand, is not a complication of haloperidol. It is an inflammation of the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, usually caused by a bacterial or viral infection.
Finally, malignant hyperthermia is a condition that can manifest with similar symptoms to neuroleptic malignant syndrome, but it usually occurs during anesthesia administration and is caused by an inherited autosomal dominant disorder of the ryanodine receptor gene in the skeletal muscle. Treatment involves using dantrolene and providing supportive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of struggling to maintain positive relationships with her coworkers. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the woman has a rigid value system and moral code, making it challenging for her to work with colleagues who have different beliefs and work practices. What personality disorder is most likely present in this patient?
Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:Patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder tend to be inflexible when it comes to morals, ethics, and values. They often have difficulty delegating tasks to others, as seen in this case. Other symptoms include an excessive focus on details, rules, lists, and order, as well as perfectionism that can interfere with completing tasks.
Antisocial personality disorder is not applicable in this case. This disorder is characterized by aggressive and unlawful behavior, deception, and a lack of empathy.
Borderline personality disorder is also not applicable. This disorder is characterized by unstable self-image, unstable relationships, fear of abandonment, and chronic feelings of emptiness.
Paranoid personality disorder is not applicable. This disorder is characterized by a tendency to question the loyalty of friends, hypersensitivity to insult, and preoccupation with conspiracies and hidden meanings.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not applicable. This disorder is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, sense of entitlement, and preoccupation with fantasies of success, power, or beauty.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?Your Answer: Word salad
Correct Answer: Clanging
Explanation:Language Disturbances in Mental Illness
Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.
These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his friends who are concerned about his behavior. The patient's friends report that over the past few days the patient has hardly slept or eaten and is talking non-stop about a new business idea that he believes will make him a millionaire. He has also been spending a lot of money on his credit card and started making impulsive purchases. During the interview, the emergency department doctor observes that the patient is speaking rapidly and is difficult to interrupt. Despite the speed of his speech, the words themselves are coherent and follow a logical, albeit unusual, pattern of thought.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormal speech pattern?Your Answer: Clanging
Correct Answer: Pressured speech
Explanation:Mania and Related Speech Patterns
Mania is a mental state characterized by elevated mood, energy, and activity levels. A patient presenting with decreased need for sleep, increased risk-taking behavior, and delusions of grandeur may be exhibiting symptoms of mania. One common speech pattern associated with mania is pressured speech, which is characterized by rapid speech that is difficult to interrupt.
Other speech patterns that may be observed in patients with mania include clanging, echolalia, neologism, and word salad. Clanging refers to the use of rhyming words, while echolalia involves repeating what the examiner says. Neologism refers to the creation of new words, and word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.
It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize these speech patterns and other symptoms of mania in order to provide appropriate treatment and support for patients. By the characteristics of mania and related speech patterns, healthcare professionals can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 61
Correct
-
As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old man who is noted to prefer solitude, has never been in a romantic relationship, and has no desire for one. He also displays minimal interest in engaging in sexual activities with others. Despite performing well at work, he places little importance on feedback from his colleagues. Based on this information, which personality disorder is most likely present in this individual?
Your Answer: Schizoid
Explanation:Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a preference for solitude, a lack of interest in close relationships, and a low libido. It is important to note that while asexuality is recognized as part of the LGBTQ+ spectrum, it is not included in the diagnostic criteria for this disorder. The DSM-5 and ICD-10 both list a lack of desire for close relationships, a preference for solitary activities, and a limited capacity for expressing emotions as key features of schizoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder may also appear indifferent to praise or criticism, lack close friends or confidants, and exhibit emotional detachment or flattened affectivity. In contrast, borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability in relationships, including sudden mood swings, rages, self-harming behaviors, and intense jealousy. Dependent personality disorder involves a reliance on others for reassurance and decision-making.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner for follow-up 1 week after being attacked and raped by an acquaintance on her university campus. Immediately after the episode, she was seen in the Emergency Department for her injuries and evidence gathering, interviewed by the police and discharged home. Today she reports difficulty sleeping and flashbacks about the event. She has had difficulty concentrating at university and feels anxious that ‘something bad’ might happen to her again.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Generalized anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Differentiating between Acute Stress Disorder, Adjustment Disorder, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, and Panic Disorder
Acute Stress Disorder: This disorder is characterized by persistently heightened awareness, difficulty sleeping, flashbacks, and interference of thoughts with daily activities. It occurs within 1 month of a life-threatening or extremely traumatic event.
Adjustment Disorder: To diagnose this disorder, there must be an identifiable stressor, a maladaptive response to the stressor that interferes with activities, symptom onset within 3 months of the stressor, and symptoms that do not meet criteria for any other psychiatric disorder. Symptoms typically last no longer than 6 months after removal of the stressor.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by pervasive, excessive worry about many different aspects of a person’s life such as finances, work, and family. It often manifests first with somatic symptoms such as fatigue, difficulty sleeping, irritability, and muscle tension.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD): If symptoms persist longer than 1 month, patients meet criteria for PTSD. The diagnostic differentiation between acute stress and PTSD is the duration of symptoms only.
Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by shortness of breath, chest pain, palpitations, diaphoresis, nausea, choking, abdominal distress, and feelings of impending doom. Symptoms mimic those of extreme autonomic arousal, are abrupt in onset, and resolve quickly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother to discuss his acne. His mother takes care of all his medications, as he cannot understand the instructions. He lives with his parents and depends on them to do all his cooking and washing. He does not work but attends a day centre a few days per week, where he enjoys craft activities and has a number of close friends. The staff report he is always very polite and interacts well with everyone at the centre. His mother says he is unable to be left alone in the house and cannot go out on his own without the support of another adult.
Which one of the following conditions does he have?Your Answer: Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Correct Answer: Learning disability
Explanation:The patient is unable to function independently and relies on his parents for daily care, indicating a possible diagnosis of a learning disability. This condition is defined by the Department of Health as a significant reduction in the ability to learn new skills and understand complex information, leading to a decreased ability to cope independently. Symptoms must have started before adulthood and have a lasting impact on development. Other potential diagnoses, such as ADHD, autism spectrum disorder, learning difficulty, and oppositional defiant disorder, do not fit the patient’s symptoms and behaviors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of lower back pain, constipation, headaches, low mood, and difficulty concentrating. Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia, which is indicated by the presented signs and symptoms, can be a result of long-term use of lithium. The mnemonic ‘stones, bones, abdominal moans, and psychic groans’ can be used to identify the symptoms. The development of hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia is believed to be caused by lithium’s effect on calcium homeostasis, leading to parathyroid hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, a U&Es and PTH test can be conducted. Unlike lithium, other psychotropic medications are not associated with the development of hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcaemia.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not experiencing clinical depression, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He occasionally feels indifferent and disheartened, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has heard his late wife speaking to him on several occasions over the last 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he acknowledges that this is impossible. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer: Section the patient under the Mental Health Act
Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or smelling their deceased loved one, especially during acute grief. This can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured that this is a common experience.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would not be appropriate to arrange blood tests or urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, the patient is not clinically depressed and is unlikely to benefit from them. In fact, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent psychiatric involvement or sectioning under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with recently developed symptoms. He has a complicated medical history, including depression, schizophrenia, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis. He had an episode one hour ago where his left eye moved upwards and inward, and he began blinking repeatedly. The episode lasted for three minutes, and he did not lose consciousness. He is currently experiencing severe neck pain. However, he is feeling fine at the moment. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Acute dystonic reactions are a negative effect of antipsychotic medications, particularly first-generation ones that are known to cause extrapyramidal side effects. Chlorpromazine is a medication that can cause an oculogyric crisis, which is a type of acute dystonic reaction. The exact cause of these reactions is not fully understood, but they can be managed with the use of an anticholinergic medication like procyclidine. Fluoxetine, on the other hand, is an SSRI used to treat depression and is not known to cause acute dystonic crisis. Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic that was developed to reduce the risk of extrapyramidal side effects, so it is less likely to cause acute dystonic reactions compared to chlorpromazine. Prednisolone, a medication used to treat various conditions, has not been shown to cause acute dystonic reactions but can lead to other side effects like Cushing’s syndrome and osteoporosis.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with her partner, concerned about her recent behavior. She has been having trouble sleeping for the past week and has been very active at night, working tirelessly on her new art project, which she believes will be a groundbreaking masterpiece. When questioned further, she admits to feeling very energetic and has been spending a lot of money on new materials for her project. Her partner is worried that this may be a recurrence of her known psychiatric condition. She is currently taking olanzapine and was recently started on fluoxetine for low mood six weeks ago. She has no significant family history. The couple has been actively trying to conceive for the past six months.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Switch olanzapine to quetiapine
Correct Answer: Stop the fluoxetine
Explanation:Managing Mania in Bipolar Disorder: Treatment Options
When a patient with bipolar disorder develops mania while on an antidepressant and antipsychotic, it is important to adjust their medication regimen. According to NICE guideline CG185, the first step is to stop the antidepressant. In this case, the patient was on olanzapine and fluoxetine, so the fluoxetine should be discontinued.
While lithium is a first-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, it is contraindicated in this patient as she is trying to conceive. Instead, the patient could be switched from olanzapine to quetiapine, another antipsychotic that is similar in effectiveness.
It is important not to stop both the antipsychotic and antidepressant, as this could worsen the patient’s condition. By adjusting the medication regimen, the patient can be effectively managed during a manic episode.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A worried parent comes to your clinic with concerns that their 14-year-old son may be purging after meals. They have noticed that he has become increasingly preoccupied with his appearance and often disappears after eating. They want to know more about purging. What information can you provide them about this behavior?
Purging is a behavior that involves getting rid of food and calories from the body after eating. This can be done through self-induced vomiting, using laxatives or diuretics, or excessive exercise. Purging is often associated with eating disorders such as bulimia nervosa. It is important to note that purging can have serious health consequences, including dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and damage to the digestive system. If their son is indeed purging, it is important to seek medical and psychological help as soon as possible.Your Answer: Purging occurs after every meal in an individual with bulimia
Correct Answer: Purging behaviours can include exercising, laxatives or diuretics
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa involves purging behaviors that go beyond just vomiting, and can also include the use of laxatives or diuretics, as well as excessive exercising. Binging episodes are followed by these purgative behaviors, which occur on average once a week and do not necessarily happen after every meal. Fasting, which involves restricting or stopping food intake, is more commonly associated with anorexia nervosa.
Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging
Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.
Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
You are discussing bipolar disorder with your consultant in a geriatric trainees teaching session as part of your psychiatry attachment.
Which of the following is the most common medical treatment in the long-term management of bipolar disorder in older adults?Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Pharmacological Treatments for Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder, also known as manic depression, is a mental health condition characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. Lithium is the most commonly used medication for long-term management of bipolar disorder. It helps to stabilize mood and prevent relapses of both manic and depressive episodes. However, it is important to note that medication alone is not enough to manage bipolar disorder effectively. Holistic care, including therapy and lifestyle changes, is essential for patients to cope with their condition.
Carbamazepine is another medication used for mood stabilization in bipolar disorder, but it is less commonly used than lithium. Sertraline, on the other hand, is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is primarily used to treat depression, not bipolar disorder. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, may be helpful in managing acute manic episodes, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of dependence.
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication that is primarily used to treat treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It is not commonly used for bipolar disorder due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with clozapine use. If clozapine is used for bipolar disorder, it should only be done under close monitoring and evaluation by a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.
In summary, lithium is the most commonly used medication for long-term management of bipolar disorder, but holistic care is essential for effective management of the condition. Other medications may be used in certain situations, but they should be used with caution and under close supervision.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) on an emergency appointment due to her worsening anxiety state. She reveals to the GP that she has been experiencing this for several years and is now seeking treatment. What is the most effective approach for long-term management?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Medications for Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Generalised anxiety disorder can severely impact a patient’s daily life. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is the recommended first-line treatment. However, caution must be taken when prescribing to young adults, those over 65, and patients on other medications due to potential side effects. Zopiclone, Haloperidol, and Diazepam are not appropriate treatments for this disorder and should be avoided. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is not considered the best management for generalised anxiety disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 71
Correct
-
The risk of developing schizophrenia if one monozygotic twin is affected is approximately:
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects a significant portion of the population. The strongest risk factor for developing this condition is having a family history of the disorder. Individuals with a parent who has schizophrenia have a relative risk of 7.5. Additionally, monozygotic twins have a 50% chance of developing schizophrenia, while siblings have a 10% chance. In contrast, individuals without relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% chance of developing the disorder.
Aside from family history, other factors can increase the risk of developing schizophrenia. Black Caribbean ethnicity has a relative risk of 5.4, while migration and living in an urban environment have relative risks of 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use also increases the risk of developing schizophrenia, with a relative risk of 1.4.
Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who may be at risk of developing the disorder. By recognizing these risk factors, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and support to prevent or manage the onset of schizophrenia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman who is currently an informal inpatient at a mental health hospital is being evaluated for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), a treatment she has never undergone before. What is an appropriate indication for ECT?
Your Answer: Depression with a PHQ-9 score of 13
Correct Answer: Catatonia
Explanation:Electroconvulsive therapy is indicated for patients with treatment-resistant depression, as well as those experiencing manic episodes, moderate depression that has previously responded to ECT, and life-threatening catatonia. The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is used by general practitioners to assess the severity of depression, with scores ranging from no depression to severe depression. However, the decision to pursue ECT is based on more than just the PHQ-9 score and requires a diagnosis of severe treatment-resistant depression.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She reports feeling persistently anxious and unable to cease worrying about everything. The GP suspects she may have an anxiety disorder.
What is the most effective tool to use in making a diagnosis?Your Answer: Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M SASQ)
Correct Answer: Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7)
Explanation:Common Screening Tools for Mental Health Conditions
There are several screening tools used in healthcare settings to identify and monitor mental health conditions. These tools help healthcare professionals assess the severity of symptoms and determine appropriate treatment plans. Here are some commonly used screening tools:
1. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This questionnaire consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder. It measures the severity of symptoms as mild, moderate, or severe.
2. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): The AUDIT is a screening tool used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.
3. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): The MMSE is a questionnaire consisting of 30 questions used to identify cognitive impairment. It is commonly used to screen for dementia.
4. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M SASQ): The M SASQ is a single-question alcohol-harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on their frequency of consuming six or more units (if female, or eight or more if male) on a single occasion in the last year.
5. Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9): The PHQ-9 is used in primary care to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment. It uses each of the nine Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition criteria for a diagnosis of depression and scores each domain depending on how often the patient experiences these symptoms.
These screening tools are valuable resources for healthcare professionals to identify and monitor mental health conditions. By using these tools, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 74
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male with a history of daily alcohol consumption for the last five years is admitted to the hospital emergency room. He is experiencing acute visual hallucinations, seeing spiders all around him, and is unable to recognize his family members. He is also exhibiting aggressive behavior and tremors. The patient had stopped drinking alcohol for two days prior to admission. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment, and insight. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Delirium tremens
Explanation:Delirium Tremens
Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe and potentially life-threatening condition that can occur when someone abruptly stops drinking alcohol. Symptoms can begin within a few hours of cessation, but they may not peak until 48-72 hours later. The symptoms of DT can include tremors, irritability, insomnia, nausea and vomiting, hallucinations (auditory, visual, or olfactory), confusion, delusions, severe agitation, and seizures. Physical findings may be non-specific and include tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea, diaphoresis, tremor, mydriasis, ataxia, altered mental status, hallucinations, and cardiovascular collapse.
It is important to note that not everyone who stops drinking alcohol will experience DT. However, those who have a history of heavy alcohol use or have experienced withdrawal symptoms in the past are at a higher risk. DT can be a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has since entered into a new relationship, but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bipolar affective disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship, but it is troubled by her frequent outbursts of anger. These symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by intense and rapidly changing emotions, difficulties with relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder, dependent personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder are not likely diagnoses based on the information provided.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She has been awake for 4 days and is convinced that she will become the next big pop star by recording 3 albums simultaneously. When asked about her emotions, she immediately talks about her music projects, providing intricate details about each album, her plans for distribution, and her future as a famous musician. She then mentions that her mood has been fantastic because of these topics. When the conversation shifts, she continues to respond in a similar fashion. What term best describes this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Tangentiality
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Circumstantiality is the appropriate term to describe this patient’s response. They provide excessive and unnecessary detail before eventually answering the question about their mood. Flight of ideas, Knight’s move, and perseveration are not applicable in this case as the patient eventually returns to the original topic and follows along with subsequent topic changes.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 77
Correct
-
Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at university. She is described by others as quite a reserved character. She has one friend but prefers solitary activities and has few interests. Sarah has never had a boyfriend and does not seem to be interested in companionship. When she is praised or criticised by others, she remains indifferent to their comments. There is no history of low mood or hallucinations.
What is the most probable diagnosis for Sarah's condition?Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Schizoid personality disorder exhibits similar negative symptoms to those seen in schizophrenia. This disorder is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise or criticism, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and a disregard for social norms. John displays more than three of these traits, indicating a possible diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by feelings of inadequacy and social inhibition, while borderline personality disorder involves mood swings and impulsive behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is marked by attention-seeking behavior and exaggerated emotions.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful of various tablets following an argument with her current partner. She has a history of tumultuous relationships and struggles to maintain friendships or romantic relationships due to this. She also admits to experiencing intense emotions, frequently oscillating between extreme happiness and anger or anxiety. In the past, she has engaged in self-harm and frequently drinks to excess. A psychiatry review is requested to evaluate the possibility of a personality disorder. What personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Borderline Personality Disorder and Other Types
Personality disorders are complex and severe disturbances in an individual’s character and behavior, causing significant personal and social disruption. These disorders are challenging to treat, but psychological and pharmacological interventions can help manage symptoms. One of the most common types of personality disorder is borderline personality disorder, characterized by intense emotions, unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, self-harm, and abandonment anxieties. Other types of personality disorders include schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder. Understanding these disorders can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The wife reports that her partner has been acting strangely, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and night, sometimes up to twenty times. When questioned, he reveals that he had a frightening experience with his son last month and cannot stop reliving it in his mind. He avoids going to places where he might lose sight of his son and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man visits his GP in a state of distress. He recently returned from a vacation and forgot to renew his prescriptions, resulting in him not taking his medications for the past week. The patient is currently experiencing general discomfort, nausea, and excessive diarrhea. Upon conducting a thorough examination and reviewing his medical history, the GP suspects that his symptoms are due to the discontinuation of one of his medications. The patient has a medical history of depression, gout, hypothyroidism, and type two diabetes mellitus. He also occasionally uses zopiclone to treat his insomnia. Which medication withdrawal is likely causing the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause gastrointestinal side-effects such as diarrhoea, with paroxetine having a particularly high risk of such symptoms. Withdrawal of SSRIs should be done gradually over several weeks to reduce the incidence of discontinuation symptoms. Colchicine, a gout medication, is associated with gastrointestinal side effects but does not cause significant symptoms upon withdrawal. Levothyroxine withdrawal does not cause any particular symptoms, but stopping long-term use can lead to hypothyroidism symptoms such as constipation. Metformin withdrawal does not cause acute symptoms, but stopping long-term use can worsen diabetic control, and diarrhoea is a side effect of metformin treatment.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old retiree comes in for his annual diabetes review. He has type II diabetes; the condition seems to be well controlled with metformin, with HbA1c levels in the target range and no signs of end-organ damage.
During the consultation, the nurse asks some routine questions and is alarmed to find that the patient drinks almost 50 units of alcohol a week. The patient insists that he only drinks at the end of the day to relax, and on a Sunday when he goes to the pub with friends. He is adamant that he does not have a drinking problem and that he could stop at any time if he wanted to.
The nurse refers the patient to the doctor to assess for potential signs of alcohol dependency.
Which of the following are indications of alcohol dependency?Your Answer: Physiological withdrawal state, solitary drinking, avoidance of sweet drinks
Correct Answer: Physiological withdrawal state, a strong desire or sense of compulsion to drink alcohol, increased tolerance to alcohol
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Substance Dependence
Substance dependence, including alcohol dependence, is diagnosed based on a set of criteria. These criteria include a strong desire or compulsion to use the substance, difficulty controlling substance use, physiological withdrawal symptoms when substance use is reduced or stopped, evidence of tolerance, neglect of other interests or activities, and continued substance use despite harmful consequences. It is important to note that the presence of a physiological withdrawal state is a key factor in the diagnosis of substance dependence. However, drinking late at night or avoiding sweet drinks are not indicative of dependence. Understanding these criteria can help in identifying and treating substance dependence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 82
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatry clinic by her spouse. The spouse reports that the patient has been displaying abnormal behaviour, such as staying up all night, talking rapidly, excessive shopping, and claiming she will become a millionaire by investing in cryptocurrency.
The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking sertraline. During the mental state examination, the patient exhibits signs of overly familiar behaviour, pressured speech, and flight of ideas.
What is the best medication to treat this condition?Your Answer: Stop sertraline and start olanzapine
Explanation:When managing mania or hypomania in patients who are taking antidepressants, it may be necessary to discontinue the use of the antidepressant and initiate treatment with antipsychotic medication.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.
Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18 paracetamol tablets three hours earlier. She had a row with her husband and took the tablets as she was angry and upset. She called her husband after she took the tablets, who rang for an ambulance.
This is the first time she has ever done anything like this, and she regrets the fact that she did it. She is currently studying at university, and only drinks recreationally. She is normally fit and well and has no history of mental health conditions.
Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of a further suicide attempt in someone who has already made a suicide attempt?Your Answer: History of violence, age 25-54 years, married
Correct Answer: Alcohol or drug abuse, history of violence and single, divorced or separated
Explanation:Risk Factors for Repeated Suicide Attempts
Individuals who have previously attempted suicide are at an increased risk of making another attempt. Factors that contribute to this risk include a history of previous attempts, personality disorders, alcohol or drug abuse, previous psychiatric treatment, unemployment, lower social class, criminal record, history of violence, and being between the ages of 25 and 54, as well as being single, divorced, or separated. Rates of further suicide attempts in the year following an attempt are high, ranging from 15 to 25 percent. However, being married or having short stature does not appear to be a significant risk factor for repeated suicide attempts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Supportive psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses that he no longer takes pleasure in his usual pastimes. The patient used to enjoy playing video games and going to the gym, but now finds these activities uninteresting and lacks motivation to engage in them.
Which symptom of schizophrenia is the patient exhibiting?Your Answer: Apathy
Correct Answer: Anhedonia
Explanation:Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Anhedonia, affective flattening, alogia, apathy, and delusions are all symptoms of schizophrenia. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Affective flattening is the loss of a normal range of emotional expression, making it difficult for individuals to express their emotions appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for individuals to communicate effectively. Apathy is a sense of indifference and lack of interest in activities that were once enjoyable. Delusions are firmly held false beliefs that are not based in reality. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s ability to function in daily life and can lead to social isolation and difficulty maintaining relationships. It is important for individuals experiencing these symptoms to seek professional help and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of feeling down and fatigued. She struggles to fall asleep at night and has difficulty getting up in the morning. Despite her love for exercise, she lacks motivation and finds it hard to engage in physical activity.
What is the duration of her symptoms that would warrant a diagnosis of a depressive episode?Your Answer: One month
Correct Answer: Two weeks
Explanation:DSM-IV Criteria for Diagnosing Depression
Depression is a mental health condition that can significantly impact a person’s daily life. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has adopted the DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing depression. The key symptoms include persistent sadness or low mood and marked loss of interests or pleasure. These symptoms must be present for at least two weeks, most days, most of the time.
In addition to the core symptoms, other associated symptoms may include disturbed sleep, changes in appetite and weight, fatigue, agitation or slowing of movements, poor concentration or indecisiveness, feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt, and suicidal thoughts or acts.
It is important to note that these symptoms can vary in duration. Some individuals may experience symptoms for only two days, while others may experience them for up to two months. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of depression, it is important to seek professional help.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia has been under the care of mental health services for a few years with a fluctuating pattern of illness. Her consultant, in collaboration with the patient’s Community Psychiatric Nurse (CPN), decides to initiate clozapine treatment. As a component of the prescription, she is registered into the Clozapine Monitoring Service scheme.
What is the primary rationale for her registration?Your Answer: Due to a limited budget for this medication
Correct Answer: To monitor the white cell count
Explanation:The Importance of Monitoring White Cell Count in Patients on Clozapine Therapy
Schizophrenia is commonly treated with anti-psychotic medications, including typical and atypical agents. Clozapine, an atypical anti-psychotic, is often prescribed for patients who do not respond to other medications. While effective, clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a lowered white blood cell count that increases the risk of infection. To mitigate this risk, patients on clozapine therapy must be enrolled in a monitoring program that includes regular blood tests to check their white cell count. This monitoring is crucial for patient safety and should be a top priority for healthcare providers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male presents in clinic, insisting that you diagnose his colon issues. He describes experiencing vague sensations of incomplete stool passage and is worried that he may have a tumor causing obstruction. He reports regular bowel movements and denies any episodes of diarrhea or constipation. There is no history of blood in his stool, unintentional weight loss, or loss of appetite. He has no family history of cancer. After discussing your negative findings, he abruptly leaves the office, stating, You're just like the other four doctors I've seen, all incompetent and willing to let me die.
What is the most accurate description of his gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms?Your Answer: Splitting
Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:Understanding Hypochondriasis: A Case Study
A 21-year-old man is convinced that he has an occult GI malignancy, despite having no signs, symptoms, or family history of such a problem. He has seen three doctors who have told him otherwise, but he persists in his belief and is now doctor shopping by seeing four doctors for the same issue. This behavior is a classic sign of hypochondria.
Hypochondriasis is a condition where a person is excessively worried about having a serious illness, despite having no or minimal symptoms. The fear and anxiety associated with this condition can be debilitating and can interfere with a person’s daily life. In this case, the patient’s fixation on a particular disease is causing him distress and leading him to seek out multiple doctors for reassurance.
It is important to note that hypochondriasis is not the same as somatisation disorder, which refers to patients with a constellation of physical complaints that cannot be explained by a somatic process. While the patient in this case is fixated on a particular disease, he does not fit the criteria for somatisation.
It is also important to rule out other conditions, such as acute stress disorder or conversion disorder, which can present with similar symptoms. Acute stress disorder is an anxiety condition that is precipitated by an acute stressor and resolves within a month. Conversion disorder is a neurological deficit in the absence of a somatic cause and is usually preceded by a psychosocial stressor.
In conclusion, understanding hypochondriasis and its symptoms is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients who may be suffering from this condition. It is important to approach these patients with empathy and understanding, while also ruling out other potential conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 89
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past 4 months. She reports having trouble sleeping and losing interest in activities she used to enjoy. Additionally, she has been experiencing excessive worry about the future. The patient has a history of dysmenorrhoea, which is managed with mefenamic acid. The GP recommends cognitive behavioural therapy and prescribes sertraline. What other medication should be considered given the patient's medical history?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:To reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taking both an SSRI and an NSAID like mefenamic acid, it is recommended to prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not appropriate in this case as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid for dysmenorrhoea. Duloxetine, an SNRI, should not be prescribed as the patient has not yet tried an SSRI. Naproxen, another NSAID, is also not recommended as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her friend. The friend reports that she has been acting strangely and unable to focus on one task at a time. He has observed over the past few days that she has been walking around in the early hours of the morning and not sleeping. He is particularly concerned that she has been returning home with multiple bags of expensive shopping every day for the past three days.
The patient denies experiencing any hallucinations but reports feeling fantastic and having an increased appetite. She has no prior medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Frontal lobe injury
Correct Answer: Hypomania
Explanation:The patient is displaying signs of hypomania, which is characterized by an elevated mood, pressured speech, and flight of ideas, but without any psychotic symptoms. She is experiencing agitation, insomnia, and an increased appetite. Patients with hypomania may also exhibit disinhibition, such as increased sexuality, spending, or risk-taking behaviors. Hypomania differs from mania in terms of duration (less than 7 days) and the absence of hallucinations. The patient’s history does not suggest any prior episodes of depression, so hypomania is the most appropriate diagnosis at this time. Frontal lobe injury can cause motor symptoms, speech difficulties, and disinhibition, but there is no indication of this in the patient’s history. Mania is more severe than hypomania and lasts longer than 7 days, often involving psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations or delusions, which are not present in this case. The patient is not exhibiting any signs of psychosis, which can also involve thought disorganization, such as tangentiality, word salad, and poverty of speech.
Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.
Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.
Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 91
Correct
-
An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in behaviour, insomnia and fever. Staff in the nursing home state that over the last five days, he has appeared confused and agitated and seems to be having visual hallucinations, as he has been talking and gesturing to people who are not present in the room. He has a past medical history of Lewy body dementia. On clinical examination, he is not orientated to time, place or person. He is mildly agitated. His blood pressure is 112/60 mmHg, pulse 96 bpm and temperature 38.2 °C. Urinalysis is positive for nitrites and leukocytes.
Which of the following management plans should be considered as initial treatment for delirium?Your Answer: Treat the underlying cause, ensure effective communication and reorientation, provide reassurance for people diagnosed with delirium, provide a suitable care environment
Explanation:Managing Delirium: Strategies for Treatment and Care Environment
Delirium is a serious condition that requires prompt identification and management of underlying causes. Effective communication and reorientation, as well as reassurance for the patient, are crucial in managing delirium. Involving family, friends, and carers can also be helpful. Providing a suitable care environment, such as a well-lit and quiet room with minimal stimulation, is important. If verbal and non-verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective, short-term use of antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be necessary, but caution should be exercised, especially for patients with conditions like Parkinson’s disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. Frequent reorientation and monitoring in a dimly lit room may also be necessary in some cases. Overall, a comprehensive approach that addresses both the underlying causes and the patient’s immediate needs is essential in managing delirium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of the mental health act for suspected first-episode psychosis. During his mental state examination, burns are observed on his arms and he claims that insects are burrowing into his skin. He suggests that the burns are caused by bleach. The evaluating psychiatrist could not detect any insects, and when questioned, the patient became agitated and insisted that his skin was infested. What is the most probable disorder being described?
Your Answer: Paranoid delusion
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The patient in the scenario is experiencing delusional parasitosis, a psychiatric disorder characterized by a fixed, false belief that one is infested by parasites or ‘bugs’. This delusion can lead to extreme measures to try to eradicate the perceived infestation. Delusional parasitosis is also known as Ekbom syndrome. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s delusion, and formication are not applicable in this case.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.
In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Tourette’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Tourette’s syndrome is a neurological disorder that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. It is characterized by the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics, which may not occur concurrently. The vocal tics can be throat-clearing, grunting, or other sounds that are not complete words or phrases. In some cases, there may also be associated gestural echopraxia, which can be of an obscene nature.
Schizophrenia, on the other hand, does not typically present with involuntary movements or tics. Conduct disorder is a mental disorder that is diagnosed before or after the age of 10 and is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Malingering is the fabrication of symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, while dissocial personality disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others.
Treatment options for Tourette’s syndrome include anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride, which have been shown to be effective. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Tourette’s syndrome to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 94
Correct
-
A 42-year-old accountant comes to see you for a follow-up review 2 weeks after presenting with symptoms suggesting low mood. He had felt ‘down’ for several weeks, no longer enjoyed work or seeing friends and was sleeping more than usual. Despite this, he had a normal appetite, a strong sense of self-worth, denied any thoughts of self-harm or suicide and came across as reasonably active and lively. He says that he feels very anxious on Sunday evenings before going to work on a Monday and is getting increasingly ‘short and snappy’ with his colleagues. However, he says that work is otherwise going well and he is managing to get through the day. He does not feel any better at today’s consultation and is requesting advice about treatment options. He says he is ‘not a tablet person’.
What should you advise?Your Answer: A trial of computer-based cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or peer support
Explanation:For a patient with mild depression symptoms, the recommended first-line treatment is low-intensity psychosocial interventions such as computer-based CBT, group-based CBT, or peer support groups performing physical activity programs. If the patient prefers non-pharmacological treatment, antidepressants should not be used as first-line. Benzodiazepines should be avoided due to their addictive potential and side-effect profile. In the presence of both depression and anxiety, depression should be treated first according to NICE guidelines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. According to his family, he has become increasingly apathetic and neglectful of his personal hygiene and household chores. When asked about his behavior, he responds with statements such as it doesn't matter and why bother? What symptom of schizophrenia is this patient exhibiting?
Your Answer: Affective flattening
Correct Answer: Apathy
Explanation:Common Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, affective flattening, alogia, anhedonia, and catatonia. Apathy is a feeling of indifference and lack of interest in things that would normally be enjoyable or important. Affective flattening refers to a reduced range of emotional expression, making it difficult for the person to express their feelings appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for the person to communicate effectively. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Finally, catatonia is a disturbance in motor function, which can cause the person to become unresponsive to their environment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man with general anxiety disorder (GAD) visits his GP for a review of his medication. He was prescribed sertraline during his last appointment, but he reports that he still experiences physical and psychological symptoms of anxiety on most days. Although there has been no recent deterioration in his condition, he feels that the medication has not been effective. What alternative medication should be considered?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Escitalopram
Explanation:If sertraline is ineffective or not tolerated for GAD, consider trying escitalopram – another SSRI. Alternatively, an SNRI may also be considered. It is important to also incorporate psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy alongside medication. Risperidone, clomipramine, and lorazepam are not appropriate for the treatment of GAD in this scenario.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department claiming that he is infested with fleas. He reports feeling extremely itchy and is requesting treatment. This is his fourth visit in the past year for this issue. The patient has no notable medical history and denies using any illicit drugs. He drinks 12 units of alcohol per week and is employed full-time as a teacher.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Delirium tremens
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs is delusional parasitosis. This rare condition can occur on its own or alongside other psychiatric disorders, but typically does not significantly impair the patient’s daily functioning. Capgras syndrome, delirium tremens, and Fregoli syndrome are all incorrect diagnoses for this particular case.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.
In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.
What is one of the potential hazards linked to the use of zopiclone in older adults?Your Answer: Tremor
Correct Answer: Increased risk of falls
Explanation:Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling due to its mode of action on GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA. This is similar to benzodiazepines. Zopiclone can cause adverse effects such as agitation, constipation, dry mouth, dizziness, and decreased muscle tone. However, diarrhea is not a known side effect. Withdrawal from zopiclone may lead to convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.
Understanding Z Drugs and Their Adverse Effects
Z drugs are a class of medications that have similar effects to benzodiazepines, but they differ in their chemical structure. These drugs work by acting on the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. There are three groups of Z drugs: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon.
Despite their effectiveness in treating sleep disorders, Z drugs have adverse effects that are similar to benzodiazepines. One of the most significant risks associated with these drugs is an increased risk of falls in the elderly. Therefore, it is essential to use these medications with caution, especially in older adults. It is also important to follow the prescribed dosage and not to mix them with other medications or alcohol. By understanding the potential risks and benefits of Z drugs, patients can make informed decisions about their use and work with their healthcare providers to manage any adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lewy-body dementia
Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep. He reports experiencing paralysis upon waking up and occasionally when falling asleep, accompanied by what he describes as 'hallucinations' such as seeing another person in the room. These episodes are causing him increasing anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe epilepsy
Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis
Explanation:Understanding Sleep Paralysis
Sleep paralysis is a condition that affects many people and is characterized by a temporary inability to move the skeletal muscles when waking up or falling asleep. It is believed to be linked to the natural paralysis that occurs during REM sleep. This phenomenon is recognized in various cultures and is often accompanied by hallucinations or vivid images.
The paralysis occurs either before falling asleep or after waking up, and it can be a frightening experience for those who are not familiar with it. However, it is a relatively harmless condition that does not require medical attention in most cases. If the symptoms are particularly bothersome, medication such as clonazepam may be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms.
In summary, sleep paralysis is a common occurrence that affects many people. It is characterized by temporary paralysis of the skeletal muscles and is often accompanied by hallucinations. While it can be a frightening experience, it is generally harmless and does not require medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP for her 6-week postnatal check-up. She mentions feeling mildly depressed at times but denies any issues with her eating or sleeping habits. She is managing well with taking care of her baby and has a strong support system from her loved ones. She is currently breastfeeding.
What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?Your Answer: Arrange admission to a Mother and Baby Psychiatric Unit urgently
Correct Answer: Advise her about local social support: local children’s centres, mother and baby groups and the health visitor
Explanation:For a patient experiencing mild postnatal depression symptoms, it is recommended to offer social support, non-directive counseling, or self-help strategies. Close follow-up is necessary, and if the condition worsens, other treatments may be necessary. Severe depression symptoms may include feelings of hopelessness or guilt, self-neglect, self-harm, or suicidal thoughts. The use of St John’s wort is not recommended for breastfeeding women due to safety concerns and potential interactions with other medications. Admission to a Mother and Baby Psychiatric Unit is reserved for patients with severe depression or psychosis who pose a high risk to themselves or others. Referral to psychiatry may be necessary if the patient’s condition changes. In mild cases, psychological and social interventions are preferred over pharmacological treatments such as SSRIs, which should only be considered in more severe cases and under the guidance of a specialist.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a state of distress. She admits to having lost a significant amount of money through gambling and then taking 4 packets of paracetamol. This is not the first time she has engaged in such behavior. She discloses that her partner of 3 years has been offered a job overseas and is considering accepting it. Despite her initial heartbreak, they had a major argument and she now claims to be indifferent about whether he stays or goes.
What is the most appropriate course of action based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Commence citalopram
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation as a way to cope with strong emotions during strained relationships. The defense mechanism of devaluation is evident in the patient’s quick emotional switches, without middle ground. Dialectical behavior therapy is an effective treatment for BPD, while cognitive behavior therapy is more suitable for depression or anxiety disorders. The clinical picture is more consistent with BPD than depression, and antidepressants may not be effective for BPD. Lithium, the mood stabilizer of choice for bipolar disorder, is not appropriate for this acute event, which occurred over the past few hours rather than days.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old woman comes to the surgery, distressed that her midwife has advised her to stop taking sertraline at 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had taken it during her previous two pregnancies and had two healthy children. She insists on knowing the potential risks associated with sertraline use during the first trimester. What are the increased risks during this period?
Your Answer: Cleft lip and palate
Correct Answer: Congenital heart defects
Explanation:When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess both the potential benefits and risks. Research has shown that using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects in the baby. Additionally, using SSRIs during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension in the newborn. It is important to note that paroxetine, in particular, has been associated with a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially when used during the first trimester.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old male student spontaneously disrobed while watching a film. He saw wavy lines on the screen and then reported a brief episode of mental blankness, followed soon after by a headache and extreme fatigue.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizophreniform disorder
Correct Answer: Partial complex seizure or Focal Impaired Awareness epilepsy
Explanation:Neuropsychiatric Syndromes and Seizure Disorders: Understanding the Differences
Seizure disorders can be complex and varied, with different symptoms and causes. One type of seizure disorder is the partial complex seizure (PCS), which is confined to the limbic structures of the brain. Symptoms of PCS can include visual distortions and disruptions of cognitive function. Patients may also experience intense dysphoria, anxiety, or rage during or after a seizure. However, organised, directed violent behaviour is not typical of a seizure.
Another type of seizure disorder is the generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, which can cause a loss of consciousness and convulsions. Inhibition-type behaviour is not typical of this disorder, and there is no history of tonic-clonic seizure activity.
Schizophreniform disorder is a condition that involves schizophrenic symptoms of short duration. Patients with repeated focal seizures may exhibit personality changes that closely resemble chronic schizophrenia, such as passivity, unusual sexual behaviour, anhedonia, obsessiveness, religiosity, and psychosis.
Migraine behavioural syndrome can involve visual auras, but it is unlikely to involve bizarre behaviour such as inappropriate disrobing. Finally, exhibitionism involves attracting attention to oneself, such as compulsive exposure of genitals in public.
Understanding the differences between these neuropsychiatric syndromes and seizure disorders is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 105
Correct
-
A 29-year-old man is admitted to a medical ward for treatment of an abscess in his leg. He has a history of intravenous heroin use and reports that he is beginning to experience symptoms of opioid withdrawal. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Give her 60 mg of codeine phosphate and wait 30 minutes to determine its effect
Explanation:Managing Acute Opioid Withdrawal in Heroin Users
Managing acute opioid withdrawal in patients who are actively using heroin can be challenging. However, a good way to manage this is by titrating codeine to effect. Codeine can be given in doses of 30-60 mg and repeated every 30 minutes until the symptoms begin to subside. It is important to note that most trusts will have a local policy on this matter.
If a patient normally takes methadone, it is crucial to contact their dispensing pharmacy to confirm their dose before administering codeine. Codeine can be used in the meantime to alleviate symptoms of opioid withdrawal. By following this approach, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute opioid withdrawal in heroin users.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of many years passed away recently. He shares that when he woke up this morning, he believed he was lying next to her and heard her voice calling his name. Despite knowing that this is impossible, it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he may be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Depression with psychosis
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with her sister. The sister is worried that the patient may have a personality disorder due to her lack of interest in socializing and her preference for being alone. Upon further discussion, the patient admits to having no desire for romantic relationships, being unemployed, and lacking motivation to work. She denies any self-harm or suicidal thoughts and has no history of legal issues. During the consultation, she displays a flat and emotionless facial expression. What personality disorder is most likely present in this patient?
Your Answer: Avoidant
Correct Answer: Schizoid
Explanation:The man’s presentation suggests that he may have schizoid personality disorder, which is characterized by negative symptoms similar to those seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms include a lack of interest in others, solitary behavior, and emotional detachment. It is important to rule out positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions. Antisocial personality disorder, which involves disregard for others and criminal behavior, is not a likely diagnosis for this man as he has no history of such behavior. Avoidant personality disorder, which involves a desire for social contact but fear of rejection, is also not a likely diagnosis as the man has no desire for interpersonal contact. Emotionally unstable personality disorder, also known as borderline personality disorder, is not a likely diagnosis as the man does not exhibit the unstable relationships, self-image, or emotional reactions associated with this disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 108
Correct
-
A 22-year-old female with paranoid schizophrenia is currently admitted as an inpatient and receiving treatment with antipsychotic medication under section 3 of the Mental Health Act. She has recently reported experiencing breast tenderness and enlargement. As the current antipsychotic regimen is not being well-tolerated, what would be the most suitable alternative antipsychotic medication to minimize these side effects?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Compared to other atypical antipsychotics, aripiprazole is known for having a more tolerable side effect profile, particularly when it comes to causing hyperprolactinemia. This condition, which can result in breast tenderness, enlargement, and lactation, is a common side effect of most typical and some atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone and amisulpride.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old individual presents with obsessive thoughts about causing harm to others since moving away from home to attend college. They are particularly anxious about using the shared kitchen in their dormitory and tend to prepare and eat meals during the night to avoid contact with their roommates. After completing a Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS), they are diagnosed with mild OCD. What treatment option would be most suitable for this individual?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:For patients with mild symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and mild impairment, the recommended first-line treatment is cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP). While clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, may be used in some cases, it is not typically the first choice. Dialectical behaviour therapy is not commonly used in the treatment of OCD, as CBT and ERP are more effective. Fluoxetine, an SSRI antidepressant, may also be used in the treatment of OCD, but is not typically the first-line treatment for mild cases.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old-male presents to his GP with a chief complaint of forgetfulness over the past 3 months. He reports difficulty recalling minor details such as where he parked his car and the names of acquaintances. He is a retired accountant and reports feeling bored and unstimulated. He also reports difficulty falling asleep at night. His MMSE score is 27 out of 30. When asked to spell WORLD backwards, he hesitates before correctly spelling the word. His medical history includes hyperlipidemia and osteoarthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest pseudodementia caused by depression rather than dementia. Managing the depression should reverse the cognitive impairment.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.
Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.
What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She appears lethargic. When asked about her emotions, she responds, 'Let me start by telling you about my recent job interview. It went well, but I'm still waiting to hear back. I really need this job to pay off my student loans and start saving for a house. I've been feeling stressed about money lately.' She continues to talk about her financial situation.
Upon further questioning, she exhibits similar behavior and speaks slowly throughout.
How would you describe her behavior?Your Answer: Clang associations
Correct Answer: Tangentiality
Explanation:Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and displays obvious signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer: Impostor syndrome
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.
Capgras syndrome is a delusional disorder where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.
Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that affects patients with significant vision loss. These patients experience vivid visual hallucinations, which can be simple or complex. However, they are aware that these hallucinations are not real and do not experience any other forms of hallucinations or delusions.
De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may also perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.
The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 114
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 35-year-old married woman with two children. She comes to you in distress and expresses suicidal thoughts, stating that she has considered taking an overdose. She has no history of self-harm or suicide attempts, and no psychiatric background. Despite having a loving family and enjoying her job, she is struggling. What is a risk factor for suicide in this case?
Your Answer: First presentation to mental health services
Correct Answer: Male gender
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 115
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old male comes to the GP with concerns about his difficulty falling asleep. He believes that he may be suffering from chronic insomnia, which he has read about online.
The patient reports that he has attempted various methods to help him sleep, such as meditation and taking a warm bath before bed. However, he feels that he has too many thoughts racing through his mind and cannot seem to turn them off. This occurs at least three times a week and has persisted for the past month.
What indication would suggest that this individual has misdiagnosed himself?Your Answer: Insomnia refers to 'waking up' in the night, not difficulty falling asleep
Correct Answer: The duration of insomnia is too brief; it must be over 3 months
Explanation:If a person experiences difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep for at least three nights per week, they may be diagnosed with chronic insomnia after three months. This form of insomnia can occur alone or together with other sleep disturbances. The diagnosis of chronic insomnia is not limited by age and can be made in patients of any age.
Insomnia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Insomnia is a common problem reported in primary care, often associated with other physical and mental health complaints. It is defined as difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, or early-morning awakening that leads to dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality, despite adequate time and opportunity for sleep, resulting in impaired daytime functioning. Insomnia may be acute or chronic, with chronic insomnia diagnosed if a person has trouble falling asleep or staying asleep at least three nights per week for 3 months or longer.
Patients with insomnia typically present with decreased daytime functioning, decreased periods of sleep, or increased accidents due to poor concentration. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia, as management can differ. Risk factors for insomnia include female gender, increased age, lower educational attainment, unemployment, economic inactivity, widowed/divorced/separated status, alcohol and substance abuse, stimulant usage, poor sleep hygiene, chronic pain, chronic illness, and psychiatric illness.
Diagnosis is primarily made through patient interview, looking for the presence of risk factors. Sleep diaries and actigraphy may aid diagnosis, while polysomnography is not routinely indicated. Short-term management of insomnia involves identifying potential causes, advising good sleep hygiene, and considering the use of hypnotic drugs only if daytime impairment is severe. The recommended hypnotics for treating insomnia are short-acting benzodiazepines or non-benzodiazepines, with the lowest effective dose used for the shortest period possible. Diazepam may be useful if insomnia is linked to daytime anxiety. It is important to review after 2 weeks and consider referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). Other sedative drugs are not recommended for managing insomnia.
In summary, insomnia is a common problem that can significantly impact a person’s daily functioning. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia and manage it appropriately, with short-term management involving good sleep hygiene and the cautious use of hypnotic drugs. Referral for CBT may also be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended dose increase. When should her levels be re-checked?
Your Answer: In 6 months
Correct Answer: In 1 week
Explanation:Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, if the levels remain stable, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old male has been taking olanzapine for the last 3 years. After experiencing an episode of tardive dyskinesia, he researched the potential side-effects of the medication. What is the most probable biochemical side-effect that this patient may experience?
Your Answer: Hypoprolactineamia
Correct Answer: Hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Antipsychotics have been found to cause metabolic side effects such as dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus. Olanzapine, along with other antipsychotics, is known to primarily cause hyperlipidemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperglycemia, and weight gain. These drugs act as dopamine antagonists, leading to hyperprolactinemia as dopamine is a prolactin antagonist. However, they do not have any impact on parathyroid hormones or electrolytes.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 118
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man visits the police station complaining about his wife. He tells the police she regularly physically beats their 5-year-old daughter with a belt and that she often slaps the girl. The woman is arrested by the police for hitting and brutally beating her 5-year-old daughter. When the woman is asked why she does this, she responds that, ‘This is how my mother treated me, it’s how women should act’.
Which of the following types of learning behaviour in the woman does this represent?Your Answer: Social learning
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Learning
Learning is a complex process that can occur in various ways. Here are some of the different types of learning:
Social Learning: This type of learning occurs when individuals observe and assimilate the behaviors of others. It is non-verbal and not dependent on reinforcement, which can make it resistant to change.
Classical Conditioning: This type of learning occurs through associations between an environmental stimulus and a naturally occurring stimulus.
Cognitive Learning: This theory explains how mental processes are influenced by internal and external factors to produce learning in individuals.
Imprinting: This type of learning occurs at a particular age or life stage and is rapid and apparently independent of the consequences of behavior.
Operant Conditioning: This type of learning occurs when the strength of a behavior is modified by its consequences, such as reward or punishment.
Understanding these different types of learning can help us better understand how individuals acquire and modify behaviors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due to concerns about her behavior. During your conversation with her, you observe that she speaks rapidly and does not allow you to interrupt her. She frequently changes the subject, but you can discern connections between them. What psychiatric disorder is most commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer: Drug addiction
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder
Explanation:Mania is often characterized by flight of ideas, which is when a person speaks rapidly and jumps between different topics. This is a common symptom of bipolar disorder. It is important to differentiate flight of ideas from Knight’s move thinking, which is associated with schizophrenia. In flight of ideas, there are identifiable connections between the topics that the person jumps between, while in Knight’s move thinking, there are no apparent connections between the topics. This is referred to as loosening of association.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 120
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man comes for his scheduled psychiatry visit after being prescribed Risperidone for his recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Although he has been stable since starting this medication, he reports experiencing milky discharge from both nipples and inquires about alternative medications that can manage his schizophrenia without causing this side effect. What would be the most suitable medication to consider as an alternative?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole is the most suitable medication to try for this patient as it has the least side effects among atypical antipsychotics, especially in terms of prolactin elevation. This is important as the patient’s nipple discharge is likely caused by high prolactin levels. Chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic, is not recommended as it has a higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Clozapine, another atypical antipsychotic, is not appropriate for this patient as it is only used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and requires two other antipsychotics to be trialled first. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is also not recommended due to its higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 121
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his friends as they are concerned that he is talking and behaving oddly.
When asked about the health of his parents he responded that Yesterday I went to visit my father. He was on the roof cleaning the gutters. This seems like a dangerous activity, as there is a high risk of falling and causing an injury. Still, we are all at risk of injuries a lot of the time, for example when driving our cars. We could also cause injuries to ourselves simply by tripping and falling. I think you are at greater risk of falling if your house is poorly lit, you have trip hazards such as loose cables and if your reflexes or depth perception are impaired, for example, when you are intoxicated. When I saw my father yesterday he seemed well and he has no current medical conditions.
What is the best term to describe the abnormality of speech that the patient is demonstrating?Your Answer: Clanging
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:– Circumstantiality: vague speech that wanders off topic before returning to answer the question
– Clanging: using words that sound similar instead of their meaning
– Echolalia: repeating what the examiner says
– Neologism: creating new words
– Perseveration: repeating a word or activity too much -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 122
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old man is brought to the psychiatrist by his father. He expresses concern for his son's mental health, as he has noticed him talking to himself frequently over the past 6 months. The patient is hesitant to speak with the psychiatrist and insists that his father stay in the room with him. During the psychiatric evaluation, it is revealed that the patient has been hearing a voice in his head for the past year, but denies any thoughts of self-harm or harm to others. The psychiatrist recommends a referral for further treatment, which causes the father to become emotional and question if he did something wrong as a parent. Which factor from the patient's history is a poor prognostic indicator for his condition?
Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations
Correct Answer: Pre-morbid social withdrawal
Explanation:Schizophrenia is more likely to be diagnosed if the patient presents with Schneider’s first-rank symptoms, such as auditory hallucinations, which are characteristic of the condition. However, the presence of auditory hallucinations alone does not indicate a poor prognosis. A poor prognosis is associated with pre-morbid social withdrawal, low IQ, family history of schizophrenia, gradual onset of symptoms, and lack of an obvious precipitant. There is no known link between a family history of an eating disorder and a poor prognosis in schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 123
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is currently on 40 mg fluoxetine for her depression but is planning to conceive. Her psychiatrist has recommended switching to sertraline. What is the appropriate regimen for transitioning from one selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to another?
Your Answer: Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, then start sertraline as soon as fluoxetine has stopped
Correct Answer: Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, and wait 4–7 days after stopping fluoxetine before starting sertraline
Explanation:Switching from Fluoxetine to Sertraline: Recommended Approach
When switching from fluoxetine to sertraline, it is important to follow a recommended approach to minimize the risk of adverse effects. Here are some options and their respective explanations:
1. Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, and wait 4-7 days after stopping fluoxetine before starting sertraline. This approach is recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI. Gradual withdrawal is also recommended for doses over 20 mg.
2. Reduce fluoxetine gradually over two weeks, then start sertraline as soon as fluoxetine has stopped. This approach is not recommended because a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI.
3. Reduce fluoxetine to 20 mg, and cross-taper with low-dose sertraline for two weeks. This approach is not recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI.
4. Stop fluoxetine immediately, and start sertraline the following day. This approach is not recommended because fluoxetine has a long half-life, and a washout period is necessary before starting another SSRI. Gradual withdrawal is also recommended for doses over 20 mg.
5. Stop fluoxetine immediately, wait 4-7 days, then start sertraline. This approach is not recommended because gradual withdrawal is recommended for doses over 20 mg. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to adverse effects.
In summary, reducing fluoxetine gradually over two weeks and waiting for a washout period before starting sertraline is the recommended approach. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 124
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He feels she is distant and suspects she is spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of feeling uninterested in past relationships and struggles with mood swings. He expresses feeling alone in the world and that even his friends are against him. Although he self-harms, he denies any suicidal thoughts. A referral to psychiatry leads to a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 125
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman has been experiencing a pattern of tumultuous endings in all of her relationships. She confides in you that she seems to have a knack for choosing friends and romantic partners who ultimately reveal themselves to be awful people.
What defense mechanism is most likely at play in this patient?Your Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms: Understanding How We Cope
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that we use to protect ourselves from anxiety and emotional pain. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be both adaptive and maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms and their explanations:
Splitting: This is a common defense mechanism in borderline personality disorder. It involves seeing people as either all good or all bad, and the inability to reconcile both good and bad traits in a person.
Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where one’s personal identity is temporarily modified to avoid distress. An extreme form is dissociative identity disorder.
Identification: This is when someone models the behavior of a more powerful example. An example would be a victim of child abuse becoming a child abuser in adulthood.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where the person takes an unacceptable personality trait and uses it to drive a respectable work that does not conflict with their value system.
Reaction formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where unacceptable emotions are repressed and replaced by their exact opposite. A classic example is a man with homoerotic desires championing anti-homosexual public policy.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help us recognize when we are using them and how they may be impacting our relationships and mental health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 126
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?
Your Answer: Cyanopsia
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 127
Correct
-
A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol per day. His liver function is normal.
After 12 hours of admission, he suddenly becomes unwell. His vital signs are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/minute
- Oxygen saturations: 96%
- Blood pressure: 123/76 mmHg
- Heart rate: 106 bpm
- Capillary blood glucose: 4.1 mmol/L
An ECG shows sinus tachycardia at a rate of 103 bpm. Upon examination, he appears tremulous and sweaty and complains of feeling anxious.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide regimen and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement
Explanation:The administration of glucose IV is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing hypoglycemia. Simply providing regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement is insufficient as the patient also requires a benzodiazepine regimen for alcohol withdrawal. A stat dose of bisoprolol is not appropriate as the patient’s sinus tachycardia is a result of alcohol withdrawal and will not be effectively treated with bisoprolol.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 128
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy and taking fluoxetine, but her symptoms persist. Her doctor decides to prescribe clomipramine, but warns her of potential side effects. What is the most likely side effect she may experience as a result of taking clomipramine?
Your Answer: Miosis
Correct Answer: Dry mouth and weight gain
Explanation:Clomipramine, a TCA, can cause dry mouth due to its anticholinergic effects and weight gain due to its antihistaminic effects. While rare, extrapyramidal side effects and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are also possible but more commonly associated with antipsychotic drugs. Increased urinary frequency and thirst are side effects of lithium, not TCAs. Additionally, mydriasis, not miosis, is a side effect of TCAs.
Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 129
Incorrect
-
A mental state examination is conducted on a 32-year-old individual. When asked about their breakfast, they start by describing their morning routine, then talk about their favourite recipes, followed by a story about a cooking competition they participated in, and finally mention having cereal for breakfast. Their speech is at a regular pace and flow.
What type of thought process is demonstrated in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Circumstantiality refers to the tendency to provide excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, ultimately reaching the intended goal but taking a circuitous route. This is different from tangentiality, where the patient wanders away from the topic without returning, derailment of thoughts, where there are illogical jumps between topics, and flight of ideas, where the patient quickly moves from one related topic to another.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 130
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department after being diagnosed with migraines by his primary care physician. He reports experiencing headaches on the right side of his head that last for approximately 6 hours and are triggered by work-related stress. He frequently experiences nausea during these episodes, which subside when he rests in a quiet environment. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking sertraline. He has no known allergies. During the examination, the physician becomes worried about a medication that the patient has recently started taking for his symptoms.
Which medication is the physician most likely concerned about in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sumatriptan
Explanation:When treating a patient with an acute migraine, it is important to avoid using triptans if they are also taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline. This is because there is a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can cause symptoms such as agitation, hypertension, muscle twitching, and dilated pupils. Instead, anti-emetics and analgesia should be used to manage the migraine.
While ibuprofen and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be effective for pain relief, they can also cause gastric irritation. If a patient is taking an SSRI, it is important to give them a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Metoclopramide is a commonly used anti-emetic for managing nausea and vomiting associated with migraines, and there are no contraindications for its use in this patient.
Paracetamol can be used as part of the analgesic ladder for managing acute migraines in patients without a history of chronic hepatic impairment.
Prochlorperazine is an alternative option for managing nausea in this patient, and there is no reason why it cannot be used in conjunction with an SSRI.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 131
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with concerns about recurring thoughts. He has been experiencing thoughts of needing to repeatedly check that his car is locked when leaving it, even though he knows he locked it. Sometimes he feels the need to physically check the car, but other times it is just thoughts. He denies any symptoms of depression or psychosis and has no significant medical or family history. He is not taking any medications. What is the recommended first-line treatment for his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Explanation:The recommended treatment for a patient with OCD is exposure and response prevention, which involves exposing them to anxiety-inducing situations (such as having dirty hands) and preventing them from engaging in their usual compulsive behaviors. This therapy is effective in breaking the cycle of obsessive thoughts and compulsive actions.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 132
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old divorced man gives a history of moderately heavy drinking for 10 years. In the 2 years since his divorce, he has experienced disrupted sleep, fatigue, irritability and cynicism. He typically drinks excessively. For example, he consumes a case of beer in a weekend and now drinks before work.
Which is the most appropriate initial form of psychotherapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Self-help group
Explanation:Different Forms of Therapy for Alcohol Dependence: Pros and Cons
Alcohol dependence is a serious issue that requires professional intervention. There are various forms of therapy available for individuals struggling with alcohol abuse. Here are some of the most common types of therapy and their pros and cons:
1. Self-help group: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) and similar self-help programs are free, widely available, and confidential. The diversity of membership, vast experience with alcohol among participants, and flexibility of meeting times provide therapeutic advantages. However, the lack of accountability and wide variation in quality among different groups can be a disadvantage.
2. Interpersonal psychotherapy and antidepressants: Interpersonal psychotherapy deals with specific circumstances thought to contribute to depression, including losses, social transitions, role disputes, and unsatisfactory interpersonal relations. Antidepressants are only considered after a month of abstinence. However, this form of therapy may not be suitable for everyone.
3. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT): CBT may be useful for addressing underlying reasons for alcohol abuse in the long run. However, first-line support for patients with addiction is self-help groups such as AA.
4. Structural family therapy: This form of treatment is developed for helping families in which a child shows psychiatric symptoms, behaviour problems, or unstable chronic illness. However, it may not be suitable for patients with isolated alcoholism or fractured families.
5. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy: This therapy posits that therapeutic change requires making early experiences conscious and their influence explicit. However, it may not be suitable for everyone and may require a longer time commitment.
In conclusion, there are various forms of therapy available for individuals struggling with alcohol dependence. It is important to consider the pros and cons of each type of therapy and choose the one that is most suitable for the individual’s needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 133
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of poor memory. He works in a consulting company and recently faced trouble at work after missing a flight to a client in Tokyo. He has difficulty falling asleep and wakes up feeling exhausted. Sometimes he wakes up in the middle of the night screaming. When awake, he cannot relax and appears to be constantly on edge.
The patient has a history of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder during childhood and one major depressive episode during his university years. He has not had any mental health-related complaints since then. He drinks one bottle of wine on Saturdays with his wife and admits to occasional past cocaine use. However, he stopped using cocaine after being ambushed and stabbed while dealing with a dealer during his last vacation in Thailand two months ago. His wife has recently complained that he appears emotionally unavailable.
Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found. However, during the mental state examination, the patient exhibits low mood and an increased startle response. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder
Explanation:The individual is displaying common symptoms of PTSD, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through nightmares, avoiding triggers associated with the event, and experiencing hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and difficulty sleeping. It has been over a month since the traumatic event occurred, ruling out acute stress disorder. There are no signs of psychosis, and the individual has been sober from cocaine for two months. While anxiety is a symptom of PTSD, there is no indication of a generalized anxiety disorder or major depressive episode.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end her life by jumping from a height. On examination, she is conscious and has significant bruising over the occiput region. She reports that her parents are recently divorced and it has caused significant strain on her current relationship and as a result, is failing to do well at work. She has no significant medical history, apart from an incident when she was 17 where she was admitted to the hospital after intentionally taking too many paracetamol.
Which of the following from the patient’s history is most associated with an increased risk of repeated attempts of self-harm/suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous attempted suicide
Explanation:Risk Factors for Repeated Self-Harm and Suicide Attempts
Previous suicide attempts or episodes of self-harm are the biggest predictor of future attempts, with 15% of people attempting again within a year and 1% succeeding in committing suicide. Strained relationships with partners or dissatisfaction with work alone have not been linked to repeated attempts. However, significant life events such as parental divorce, bereavement, abuse, or family breakdown may increase the risk. Age alone, particularly for adults in their twenties, has not been associated with repeated self-harm or suicide attempts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 135
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden paralysis in their right leg and left arm, four weeks after being involved in a car accident. Despite being discharged from the hospital without injuries, they woke up this morning unable to move these limbs. There is no pain, but the paralysis is causing significant distress. On examination, there are no visible injuries, normal tone, and intact sensation in all four limbs. All reflexes are normal, but power in the affected limbs is MRC 0/5, while the contralateral limbs are MRC 5/5. Hoover's sign is positive on the affected leg, and there are no abnormalities in the cranial nerve exam. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition that typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function and may be triggered by stress. In this case, the patient has experienced a stressful accident and is now exhibiting functional paralysis, without voluntary movement but some involuntary movements due to reflexes and a positive Hoover’s sign. This sign indicates that the unaffected leg is compensating for the affected leg’s lack of movement by contracting synergistically.
It is unlikely that the patient is suffering from factitious disorder, which involves feigning symptoms to gain attention from healthcare professionals. This is because the neurological symptoms and the recent stressful event suggest conversion disorder, and the presence of Hoover’s sign is not consistent with feigned paralysis.
Lacunar strokes, which cause paralysis on one side with contralateral sensory loss, would not present with this pattern of paralysis and would not be delayed in onset after the accident. Malingering, or faking symptoms for personal gain, is also unlikely at this stage.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old individual visits their GP with symptoms of flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty relaxing after being involved in a pub brawl 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history and has attempted breathing exercises to alleviate their symptoms without success. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for cognitive-behavioural therapy
Explanation:For individuals experiencing acute stress disorder within the first 4 weeks of a traumatic event, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) should be the primary treatment option. The use of benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, should only be considered for acute symptoms like sleep disturbance and with caution. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and other drug treatments should not be the first-line treatment for adults. Debriefings, which are single-session interventions after a traumatic event, are not recommended. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing may be used for more severe cases of post-traumatic stress disorder that occur after 4 weeks of exposure to a traumatic experience.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 137
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal behaviour in a police cell. He claimed that there was a conspiracy against him and started acting irrationally. After 36 hours of admission, the patient complains of visual hallucinations and experiences a grand-mal seizure. What is the probable reason behind the seizure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdrawal from alcohol
Explanation:Possible Causes of Fits in a Patient with a History of Substance Abuse
There are several possible causes of fits in a patient with a history of substance abuse. LSD withdrawal and amphetamine withdrawal are not known to cause seizures, but amphetamine withdrawal may lead to depression, intense hunger, and lethargy. Hypercalcaemia is not likely to be the cause of fits in this patient, but hyponatraemia due to water intoxication following ecstasy abuse is a possibility. Alcohol withdrawal is a well-known cause of fits in habitual abusers, along with altered behavior. Although idiopathic epilepsy is a differential diagnosis, it is unlikely given the patient’s history of substance abuse. Overall, there are several potential causes of fits in this patient, and further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 138
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged man presents with persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. His expression appears to have a reduced affect. He has disorganised speech and thinking.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Understanding Common Psychiatric Conditions
Schizophrenia is a prevalent psychiatric condition that affects individuals with positive and negative symptoms, as well as a breakdown in thinking. Positive symptoms include delusions and hallucinations, while negative symptoms refer to reduced mood and blunted affect. Agoraphobia, on the other hand, is an anxiety disorder where patients perceive the outside environment as unsafe. Frontotemporal dementia and early-onset dementia are unlikely presentations for a young patient with disorganized speech and thinking and reduced affect. Endogenous depression, which is more common in women, presents with sudden loss of energy or motivation in daily routines and neurotic thinking, such as anxiety, sleep disturbance, and mood swings. Understanding these conditions can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 139
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. He discloses that he has been struggling with motivation, insomnia, and loss of interest in social activities since losing his job two years ago. He denies any suicidal ideation or intent. On the PHQ 9, he scores 9, indicating mild-moderate depression. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or low-intensity psychological therapy
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment Options for Patients with Low Mood: A Guide for General Practitioners
When a patient presents with low mood, it is important for general practitioners (GPs) to consider the most appropriate treatment options. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, self-help and talking to people should be tried before offering low-intensity psychological therapy or cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, if symptoms have been present for two years, intervention is required and psychological therapies should be trialled first before considering antidepressant medication. Diazepam should be avoided due to the high risk of dependency. While self-help advice and a follow-up appointment in two weeks’ time are offered, it is important to note that psychological therapies are the best option for patients with long-standing symptoms. Urgent referral to the Crisis Team is not necessary if the patient denies suicidal or self-harm thoughts, but they should be provided with the team’s contact information in case of emergency. By following these guidelines, GPs can provide appropriate treatment options for patients with low mood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female patient complains of experiencing difficulty sleeping for the past six months. She frequently stays awake at night due to worrying about work and family-related stressors. These episodes of anxiety are often accompanied by chest tightness and palpitations. Despite trying mindfulness, sleep hygiene, and reducing caffeine intake, she has not experienced significant improvement and is now considering medication. What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Sertraline is the recommended first-line medication for generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This is because the patient has already tried non-pharmacological measures with little benefit. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not recommended due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Duloxetine, a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), is not first-line but may be considered if the patient does not respond to sertraline. Mirtazapine, a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA), is not generally recommended for GAD.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 141
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with concerns about her interpersonal relationships both at work and in her personal life. She reveals that this has been a persistent issue since her teenage years. She finds it challenging to collaborate with others and identifies herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, she has been described by others as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder tend to have inflexible attitudes towards morals, ethics, and values, and are often hesitant to delegate tasks to others. They exhibit perfectionistic tendencies and adhere to strict protocols in their work. This disorder makes it challenging for them to collaborate with others and adapt to different ways of doing things.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 142
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman visits her GP for a follow-up on her depression. She is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of low mood, anhedonia, poor appetite, and poor sleep, despite completing a full course of cognitive behavioural therapy. Her therapist has recommended medication, and the patient is open to this option. What is the appropriate first-line treatment for her depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressant Medications: Recommended Use and Precautions
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for moderate to severe depression or mild depression that has not responded to initial interventions. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are not recommended as first-line treatment due to their toxicity in overdose. Dosulepin, in particular, has been linked to cardiac conduction defects and other arrhythmias. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), like phenelzine, may be prescribed by a specialist in refractory cases but are not recommended as first-line treatment. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor, is also not recommended as first-line treatment due to the risk of hypertension, arrhythmias, and potential toxicity in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the most appropriate medication for individual cases of depression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 143
Incorrect
-
You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
What is a temporary side effect of this treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac arrhythmias
Explanation:Knowing the side effects of ECT is crucial as it is a treatment that is often viewed with apprehension by the public. ECT is typically used to treat depression that is resistant to other treatments, as well as severe mania and catatonic schizophrenia. While it was once a feared treatment due to its use of high strengths and lack of anesthesia, it is now considered to be a relatively safe intervention. Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, memory problems, and cardiac arrhythmias. There are few long-term effects, although some patients may experience long-term memory issues. ECT is used to treat mania and is being studied as a potential treatment for Parkinson’s disease. It induces a generalized seizure but is not associated with epilepsy or glaucoma.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 144
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his friends. They report that for the past 6 days, he has not slept or eaten, and he believes that aliens are communicating with him through his phone.
During the examination, he speaks rapidly and loudly. When asked about his condition, he describes in detail what the aliens have been telling him, including the frequency and duration of the calls, as well as the tone and pitch of their voices. He also expresses feelings of anxiety and paranoia.
What type of thought disorder is present in this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question. This can be a symptom of a manic episode, which is likely the case for this patient. The woman has been experiencing irrational thoughts for the past 5 days, which has resulted in a lack of sleep and eating. Her speech is loud and pressured, and she has a delusion that the government has given her a special mission to stop global warming. This delusion is a sign of a formal thought disorder, which is further demonstrated by her circumstantiality. She is unable to answer a question without providing excessive detail, such as describing the color of the television before finally expressing that she feels stressed. Echolalia, the repetition of someone else’s speech, is not observed in this woman. Flight of ideas, which involves accelerated speech and wandering ideas, is also not present. Knight’s move thinking, which involves poor associations to the previous topic, is also not observed.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 145
Incorrect
-
An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.
What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of a successful suicide attempt?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Making efforts to not be found
Explanation:The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol has not been found to increase the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self-harm does increase the risk of suicide, it does not necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 146
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man with moderate learning difficulty visits your clinic with his father. His father complains that he has trouble sleeping at night and frequently wakes up, disrupting his own sleep and causing him to be excessively drowsy during the day. He frequently takes a nap in the late afternoon, which is impacting his ability to participate in local community services. They have already attempted conventional sleep hygiene recommendations. Given the history of learning difficulty, what would be the most appropriate medication to assist with his sleep problems?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Melatonin
Explanation:Medication Options for Sleep Disturbance in Patients with Learning Disabilities
Patients with learning disabilities often experience chronic sleep-wake cycle disruption, leading to insomnia. Melatonin has been found to be effective in regulating natural sleep-wake cycles and treating insomnia in these patients. However, it is not licensed for use in individuals under 55 years old and should only be prescribed by a psychiatrist with expertise in sleep disturbance in learning disability.
Other medications, such as zopiclone, diazepam, promethazine, and trazodone, can also be used for insomnia. Zopiclone is helpful for patients with trouble falling asleep, while diazepam can be used for anxiety and sedation but may lead to dependence. Promethazine is useful for maintaining sleep, particularly in cases of agitation or insomnia. Trazodone, on the other hand, is an antidepressant medication with sedating properties and is typically used for patients with depression and sleep disturbance.
However, given the history of learning disability in the stem, melatonin would be the most appropriate medication to trial in this patient. It is important to consult with a psychiatrist with expertise in sleep disturbance in learning disability to determine the best course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 147
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia and prescribed clozapine for the past three months. She is due for a review appointment and has had regular blood tests. What is the primary abnormality she is at risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased leukocytes
Explanation:Monitoring of FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine due to the potential life-threatening side effect of agranulocytosis/neutropenia. This condition is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cell count, particularly neutrophils. Therefore, a decrease in leukocytes will be observed in the blood test results. Clozapine is commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia that is resistant to other therapies.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 148
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol due to a recent breakup with her partner. She expresses remorse for her actions, denies any suicidal thoughts, and requests to be discharged. Her parents and a friend arrive at the hospital soon after. Paracetamol levels at 4 hours are below the treatment limit.
What should be the next course of action in managing her case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange review by mental health liaison team prior to discharge
Explanation:Importance of Mental Health Liaison Team Review Prior to Discharge for Paracetamol Overdose Patients
Paracetamol overdose is a common presentation of self-harm in emergency departments. While medical management is crucial, patients may also require mental health support. A hospital-based mental health liaison team can provide advice on discharge and arrange follow-up if necessary. Discharging a patient without follow-up increases the risk of further self-harm. However, temporary compulsory detention under the Mental Health Act is not appropriate for low-risk patients. Prescribing N-acetyl-L-cysteine is unnecessary if the paracetamol levels are below treatment threshold. Emergency admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit is only necessary for high-risk patients. Therefore, mental health liaison team review prior to discharge is crucial for appropriate management of paracetamol overdose patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She has been experiencing forgetfulness and absent-mindedness for the past three weeks. She cannot recall conversations that occurred earlier in the day and has forgotten to lock her front door. Additionally, she has been feeling fatigued and has lost interest in her usual activities, such as going out for walks. Living alone, she is worried about the potential risks associated with her memory loss. Although initially appearing cheerful, she becomes emotional and starts crying while discussing her symptoms. The following blood test result is obtained: TSH 2 mU/L. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Depression and dementia can be distinguished based on their respective characteristics. Depression typically has a short history and a sudden onset, which can cause memory loss due to lack of concentration. Other symptoms include fatigue and loss of interest in usual activities. Hypothyroidism can be ruled out if TSH levels are normal. On the other hand, dementia progresses slowly and patients may not notice the symptoms themselves. It is usually others who notice the symptoms, and memory loss is not a concern for patients with dementia. Finally, there is no indication of bipolar disorder as there is no history of manic episodes.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 150
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening low mood and uncontrollable behaviors. She reports feeling distressed and finds relief only by repeating a certain phrase in her mind. She has no significant medical history and is in good physical health.
What is the symptom being described in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compulsion
Explanation:An obsession is an unwelcome and intrusive thought that causes discomfort. On the other hand, a compulsion is an irrational behavior that a person feels compelled to perform in order to alleviate the anxiety caused by the obsession.
Compulsions can be either mental or physical, such as repeatedly washing one’s hands or checking if a door is locked. In contrast, thought insertion is a symptom of schizophrenia where a person feels that their thoughts are not their own and have been inserted by someone else.
Intrusive thoughts are involuntary and unwelcome thoughts that can be experienced by anyone. However, if they become frequent and distressing, they can develop into obsessions, which are a more severe form of intrusive thoughts. Obsessions, when coupled with compulsions, are a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
Lastly, thought withdrawal is another delusion found in schizophrenia where a person believes that their thoughts have been taken away by an external force.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 151
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner on the advice of the Community Psychiatric Nurse. He has been experiencing a fever and sore throat lately. He is currently on clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct, considering his recent symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:When treating patients with clozapine, it is important to monitor for agranulocytosis, a rare but potentially fatal side-effect. Patients should report flu-like symptoms and undergo regular blood tests. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever may indicate agranulocytosis, so a full blood count is necessary. While an ECG should be done before starting antipsychotic treatment, it is not the most important test in this scenario. Blood glucose should be monitored to exclude organic causes and hyperglycemia caused by antipsychotics. Liver function and urea/electrolytes should also be monitored regularly, but are not the most important tests to conduct immediately in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 152
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 30-year-old teacher who has been referred to the mental health team with suspected bipolar disorder. The psychiatrist has confirmed the diagnosis and prescribed lithium, which has stabilized her condition. They have requested that you take over the monitoring of her medication levels. When you call Sarah to advise her on when to have her lithium levels checked, she cannot recall the specific timing related to her medication. How would you recommend that her medication levels be monitored?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood test 12 hours post dose every 3 months
Explanation:According to NICE, lithium levels should be checked one week after starting treatment, one week after any dose changes, and weekly until stable levels are achieved. Once stable levels are reached, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months, with the sample taken 12 hours after the dose. It is important to note that a trough level taken immediately before a dose is only applicable for certain medications, such as twice-daily clozapine.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 153
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning symptoms. He has a medical history of schizophrenia, which was diagnosed at the age of eighteen and is currently managed with olanzapine. He has not undergone any surgical procedures and is generally in good health.
What are the symptoms he is likely to be experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyuria and polydipsia
Explanation:Long-term use of atypical antipsychotics can result in glucose dysregulation and diabetes, with polyuria and polydipsia being common symptoms. While these drugs are preferred for treating schizophrenia due to their reduced extrapyramidal side effects, they can also cause metabolic dysregulation leading to insulin resistance and diabetes. Diarrhoea is an unlikely side effect, as these drugs tend to cause constipation instead. Sexual dysfunction is a more common side effect than priapism, and the mechanism behind it is not fully understood. Tinnitus is not a likely side effect in this case, as the patient does not have a history of depression or SSRI use. Weight gain is the most common side effect of long-term atypical antipsychotic use, due to the metabolic disturbances they cause.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 154
Incorrect
-
You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have been asked to assess a patient by the nursing staff as they are currently occupied by a distressed patient and relative. The patient you've been asked to review has known schizophrenia and wishes to leave the unit. However, following consultation with the patient, you are concerned they are exhibiting features of an acute psychotic episode.
Which section of the Mental Health Act (2007) could be used to detain the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Section 5(2)
Explanation:Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act (2007)
The Mental Health Act (2007) provides a legal framework for patients with confirmed or suspected mental disorders that pose a risk to themselves or the public. The Act outlines specific guidelines for detention, treatment, and the individuals authorized to use its powers. Here are some of the key sections of the Mental Health Act:
Section 5(2): This section allows for the temporary detention of a patient already in the hospital for up to 72 hours, after which a full Mental Health Act assessment must be conducted. A doctor who is fully registered (FY2 or above) can use this section to detain a patient.
Section 3: This section is used for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, with the exact mental disorder being treated stated on the application. It can be renewed for a further six months if required, and the patient has the right to appeal.
Section 2: This section allows for compulsory admission for assessment of presumed mental disorder. The section lasts for 28 days and must be signed by two doctors, one of whom is approved under Section 12(2), usually a consultant psychiatrist, and another doctor who knows the patient in a professional capacity, usually their GP.
Section 5(4): This section can be used by psychiatric nursing staff to detain a patient for up to 6 hours while arranging review by appropriate medical personnel for further assessment and either conversion to a Section 5(2). If this time elapses, there is no legal right for the nursing staff to detain the patient. In this scenario, the nursing staff are unavailable to assess the patient.
Section 7: This section is an application for guardianship. It is used for patients in the community where an approved mental health practitioner (AMHP), usually a social worker, requests compulsory treatment requiring the patient to live in a specified location, attend specific locations for treatment, and allow access for authorized persons.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 155
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of symptoms due to irregular medication intake, leading to his admission under section 2 of the Mental Health Act following a formal mental state assessment. He had been taking Risperidone orally once daily for several years, which had effectively stabilized his mental state while living in the community. Considering his non-adherence, what treatment option would be most appropriate for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switching to a once monthly IM anti-psychotic depo injection
Explanation:Patients who struggle with taking their antipsychotic medication as prescribed may benefit from receiving a once monthly intramuscular depo injection. It is important to maintain a stable mental state and overall well-being for these patients, and switching medications can increase the risk of relapse and recurring symptoms. The goal is to provide the least restrictive treatment possible and minimize hospitalization time as outlined by the Mental Health Act. While daily visits from a home treatment team to administer medication may be a temporary solution, it is not a sustainable long-term option. Similarly, a once-daily intramuscular injection may not be practical or feasible for the patient.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 156
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman comes to the GP for a mental health check-up. She had previously sought help 9 months ago for a major depressive episode that was successfully treated with fluoxetine, which she has now discontinued. Presently, she reports feeling fantastic. She has only slept for 4 hours each night over the past 5 days and has been busy renovating her entire house while still managing to attend work, where her boss has commended her on her newfound confidence and productivity. You observe that she speaks rapidly and that her thoughts are occasionally difficult to follow. There are no indications of self-neglect. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar affective disorder
Explanation:The distinction between type I and type II bipolar disorder lies in the presence of mania versus hypomania, respectively. Today, the patient exhibits symptoms of elated mood, decreased need for sleep, increased productivity, rapid speech, and flight of ideas, which are characteristic of mania. However, the absence of psychotic symptoms and the lack of impairment in functioning suggest a diagnosis of hypomania instead. Given the patient’s history of depression, her current presentation is consistent with bipolar affective disorder.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.
Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 157
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by security after attempting to enter a music studio. He claims to have a close relationship with a famous musician and just wanted to see him. Despite never having met the musician, he has sent numerous letters and messages. He reports feeling great. He denies any hallucinations. He appears normal and speaks clearly.
What is the probable diagnosis based on his behavior?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional disorder
Explanation:Erotomania, also known as De Clerambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusional disorder where the individual believes that a famous person is in love with them. This belief is not accompanied by any other symptoms of psychosis or mood disturbances. Other types of delusions include grandiose and persecutory delusions. Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by odd beliefs and behaviors, but not to the extent of delusional conviction. Narcissistic personality disorder involves a long-standing pattern of inflated self-importance, a need for excessive admiration, and a lack of empathy. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior. Bipolar disorder involves periods of both mania and depression.
De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love
De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. Typically, the patient is a single woman who firmly believes that a well-known person is in love with her. This condition is characterized by a persistent and irrational belief that the famous person is sending secret messages or signals of love, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. The patient may engage in behaviors such as stalking, sending letters or gifts, or attempting to contact the object of their affection. Despite repeated rejections or lack of response, the patient remains convinced of the love affair. This syndrome can be distressing for both the patient and the object of their delusion, and it often requires psychiatric treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 158
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman has had >10 very short relationships in the past year, all of which she thought were the love of her life. She is prone to impulsive behaviour such as gambling and binge eating, and she has dabbled in drugs. She also engages in self-harm.
Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits
Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.
Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.
Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.
Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 159
Incorrect
-
A very thin 20-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of weight loss. Anorexia nervosa is suspected, but various screening tests are conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following findings would support the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low white cell count
Explanation:Biochemical and Haematological Abnormalities in Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a condition that can lead to a wide range of biochemical and haematological abnormalities. These abnormalities include hypokalaemia and hypochloraemic alkalosis, which are caused by vomiting and/or diuretic/laxative abuse. Additionally, hypercholesterolaemia is often present in individuals with anorexia nervosa, although the mechanism behind this is not yet fully understood.
When it comes to haematological abnormalities, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is typically normal or reduced in individuals with anorexia nervosa. Furthermore, the white cell count may be low. These abnormalities can have serious consequences for individuals with anorexia nervosa, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of them in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man is admitted from the angiography suite after the cardiologist discovered severe triple vessel disease. He awaits transfer to a tertiary hospital for a coronary artery bypass graft. After 48 hours of admission, you receive a call to see him as he has become confused, sweaty, tremulous, and agitated.
Upon reviewing his record, you note a history of asthma, variceal bleed, and cirrhosis secondary to alcohol excess. His observations show a pyrexia at 37.9ºC, heart rate of 105 bpm, and blood pressure 175/98 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate immediate intervention given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are effective treatments for delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can include confusion, agitation, tremors, hallucinations, and autonomic dysfunction such as high blood pressure, sweating, and fever.
Chlordiazepoxide is the most appropriate answer for this scenario. While confusion, sweating, and agitation can be signs of infection, the patient’s alcohol history suggests that delirium tremens is the more likely diagnosis. IV antibiotics would not address the primary issue of alcohol withdrawal. The patient’s high blood pressure also suggests that infection is not the cause of their symptoms.
Intravenous hydration may be necessary if the patient is experiencing excessive fluid loss due to sweating, but it would not be the best treatment for alcohol withdrawal in this case.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 161
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man with type I diabetes mellitus visits his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about his deteriorating glycaemic control. The GP suspects poor compliance with diet and medication. What is the most effective approach to enhance his compliance during a brief consultation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motivational interview
Explanation:Effective Psychological Interventions in Primary Care
Primary care settings are often the first point of contact for patients seeking help for mental health or physical conditions. To provide effective care, healthcare professionals can employ various psychological interventions. Here are some of the most effective ones:
Motivational Interviewing: This patient-centred approach involves resisting a didactic course of action, understanding the reasons for the change in behaviour, listening to the patient’s ideas, concerns or expectations, and empowering the patient to understand they are able to change their behaviour. It has been proven to increase compliance with medication.
Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT): This talking therapy explores the patient’s understanding, concepts and reactions towards a certain problem, gradually building behavioural changes to challenge the concepts and manage the problem. It is used predominantly in the treatment of anxiety and depression, but can also be employed in many other mental health or physical conditions.
Self-Help Materials: Self-help materials in the form of leaflets and aids are a useful tool in the primary care setting, but the patient needs to be motivated for change in order for these to work.
Psychotherapy: This form of counselling employs various techniques to induce behavioural changes and habits that will stay with the patient in the long term. This requires a set amount of sessions over a period of time and therefore, cannot be performed in a short consultation.
Supportive Counselling: This psychological intervention has been shown to be best suited for treating mild to moderate depression and can be used in combination with other methods such as CBT.
By employing these psychological interventions, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients seeking help for mental health or physical conditions in primary care settings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 162
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. His sister is worried that her brother firmly believes that he is a superhero, despite having no evidence or abilities to support this belief. Upon assessment, the man appears physically healthy. There are no signs of delusions, disorientation, or unusual speech patterns. However, he maintains an unyielding conviction that Beyonce is in live with him. What is the appropriate diagnosis for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome
Explanation:The correct term for the delusion that a famous person is in love with someone, without any other psychotic symptoms, is De Clerambault’s syndrome. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, refers to the delusion that a close relative has been replaced by an impostor, while De Frégoli syndrome is the delusion of seeing a familiar person in different individuals.
De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love
De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. Typically, the patient is a single person who firmly believes that a well-known person is in love with them. This condition is characterized by a persistent and irrational belief that the famous person is sending secret messages or signals of love, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. The patient may engage in behaviors such as stalking, sending letters or gifts, or attempting to contact the object of their affection. Despite repeated rejections or lack of response, the patient remains convinced of the love affair. This syndrome can be distressing for both the patient and the object of their delusion, and it often requires psychiatric treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 163
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles, difficulty initiating movements such as getting up from a chair, slow movements and hand shaking, which started 5 weeks ago. He has a medical history of schizophrenia and has had good compliance with his medication for the past 3 months. He is taking haloperidol. On examination, his temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure 120/81 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm. On examination, there is decreased facial expression, pill-rolling tremor, cogwheel rigidity and festinating gait.
Which of the following terms describes the symptoms of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradykinesia
Explanation:Common Neurological Side Effects of Medications
Medications can sometimes cause neurological side effects that mimic symptoms of neurological disorders. One such side effect is called pseudo-parkinsonism, which is characterized by bradykinesia or slowness in movements. This can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotic medication, anti-emetics like metoclopramide, and some calcium channel blockers like cinnarizine.
Another side effect is acute dystonia, which is the sudden and sustained contraction of muscles in any part of the body, usually following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, which is characterized by restlessness and the inability to remain motionless.
Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect that is characterized by involuntary muscle movements, usually affecting the tongue, lips, trunk, and extremities. This is seen in patients who are on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication such as antipsychotic medication (both typical and atypical), some antidepressants, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and others.
Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, changes in level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. Management is supportive, and symptoms generally resolve within 1-2 weeks.
Understanding the Neurological Side Effects of Medications
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 164
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the authorities after causing a disturbance in public. He is visibly anxious and upset, insisting that there are bugs crawling under his skin and that your face is melting. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is evident that he has a history of alcohol abuse and has been in contact with Drug and Alcohol Services. What scoring system would be best suited for assessing this patient once he is stabilized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment (CIWA-Ar)
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 165
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-year history of restricting food intake and self-induced vomiting. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: What to Expect
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s physical health, including their cardiovascular system. When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, there are several medical investigations that may be considered. Here is what you can expect:
Electrocardiogram (ECG): This is a baseline test that assesses heart rate and the QT interval. Electrolyte imbalances caused by eating disorders can affect cardiac stability, so it’s important to check for any cardiovascular instability.
24-hour Holter monitor: This test may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.
Chest X-ray: This is not routinely required unless there are other respiratory symptoms present.
Serum prolactin: This test is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.
Transthoracic echocardiography: This test is not routinely required unless there are clinical indications for imaging of the heart.
Overall, medical investigations for anorexia nervosa are tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine which tests are necessary for each patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 166
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
She is visiting the clinic as she is still having difficulty managing her daughter's disruptive and challenging behavior, despite receiving group-based support and environmental modifications.
What is the primary treatment option for managing ADHD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:Management of ADHD: First-Line Treatment and Other Options
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects young people. While group-based support and environmental modifications can be helpful, medication and therapy are often necessary for ongoing, persistent impairment. Here are some options for managing ADHD:
First-Line Treatment: Methylphenidate
Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that is considered first-line treatment for young people with ADHD who still have significant symptoms despite other interventions. However, it is not approved for use in children under six years and requires monitoring of height, weight, heart rate, blood pressure, and ECG.Therapy: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)
CBT can be helpful for patients who have already tried medication but continue to have significant symptoms. It can cover topics such as social skills, active listening, self-control, and expression of feelings.Alternative Medication: Dexamphetamine
Dexamphetamine is an option for patients who cannot tolerate or do not respond to methylphenidate. However, it is not first-line treatment.Not Recommended: Diazepam and Melatonin
Diazepam is not recommended for sedation in patients with ADHD. Melatonin can be used for regulating sleep in patients with learning difficulties, but it is not routinely used for ADHD management.In summary, ADHD management requires a tailored approach that may involve medication, therapy, or both. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment, but other options are available for patients who do not respond or cannot tolerate it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 167
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman presents complaining of ‘flashbacks’. Seven months earlier, she had been standing at a bus stop when a car swerved off the road into the queue, killing instantly a child standing near to her. Every day she experiences intrusive images of the child’s face as it saw the car mount the curb. She has not been able to go to that part of town since the day and she has avoided taking the bus anywhere. She feels she is always on edge and jumps at the slightest noise around the house. She thinks things are getting worse, rather than better, and asks you whether there are any psychological treatments that might help her.
Which one of the following approaches is indicated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: Focus on Trauma-Focused CBT
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a delayed and/or prolonged response to a traumatic event that can cause distress in almost anyone. Symptoms include intrusive flashbacks, avoidance of trauma-related triggers, emotional numbness, and hypervigilance. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line treatment for PTSD, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) in the United Kingdom. Other therapies, such as psychodynamic therapy, supportive therapy, and hypnotherapy, may be helpful but are not first-line approaches. Watchful waiting is only appropriate for mild symptoms present for less than a month. It is important to seek help for PTSD, and trauma-focused CBT is a proven effective treatment option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 168
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying up most nights for the past month, working on four different novels simultaneously. He has not left his home or eaten in the last week and refuses to do so. Additionally, he has started gambling. During the consultation, he appears easily distracted and responds to questions with nonsensical sentences made up of random words. A collateral history was necessary to gather information. There is no evidence of drug misuse, and he is currently being treated for depression. When his family attempts to understand his behavior, he accuses them of trying to hold him back from achieving fame. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder (type I)
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from bipolar disorder (type I) due to their elevated mood and energy following treatment for depression, which can often be a sign of bipolar disorder unmasked by antidepressants. The presence of disorganized speech in the form of ‘word salad’ is evidence of psychosis, which is a characteristic of bipolar I. The patient has also not slept or eaten in the last week, indicating severe functional impairment and the need for hospitalization, which is another DSM-V criteria for bipolar I. Additionally, the patient exhibits decreased need for sleep, increased risky activities, increased goal-directed behavior, and distractibility, which are all symptoms of bipolar I.
Bipolar disorder (type II) is unlikely as the patient’s disorganized speech suggests psychosis, which is more commonly associated with bipolar I. Schizoaffective disorder is also unlikely as the patient’s elevated mood and history of depression do not fit the diagnostic criteria. Schizophrenia is less likely as it typically presents with negative symptoms followed by delusions and hallucinations, whereas the patient’s symptoms are primarily manic in nature.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks ago his wife passed away from metastatic breast cancer. He reports feeling sad and tearful every day, but his son is worried because he keeps getting into arguments with him over small things and bringing up past family issues. The son also mentions that his father has mentioned hearing his wife's voice and even cooked a meal for her once. Despite this, he has started going for walks with his friends again and is determined to get his life back on track. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 170
Incorrect
-
You have been referred a 14-year-old girl who appears very upset by her parents’ ongoing divorce. She has begun to engage in self-injurious behaviour by banging her head against walls at times of stress. Her intelligence quotient (IQ) has been assessed by her school as 62.
With which of the following is this score most consistent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild learning disability
Explanation:Understanding Learning Disabilities: Levels of Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
Learning disabilities are diagnosed through a combination of intelligence testing and functional assessments. The intelligence quotient (IQ) level is used to determine the severity of the learning disability. A score of 70 is considered within the normal range, while a score between 50-69 indicates a mild learning disability. A score of 35-49 is classified as a moderate learning disability, and a score of 20-34 is considered a severe learning disability. Scores below 20 indicate a profound learning disability. It’s important to note that a score of 60 falls within the mild learning difficulty range, which is still considered a learning disability. Understanding IQ levels can help individuals and their families better understand and manage their learning disabilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 171
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient is about to be discharged from hospital with a course of diazepam to help with anxiety symptoms.
Which feature of the history is the most important to ask about?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of alcohol dependence
Explanation:Factors that Influence Benzodiazepine Dependence: A Closer Look
When it comes to benzodiazepine dependence, there are several factors that can increase the risk of developing this condition. One of the most important determinants is a history of substance dependence, particularly with alcohol. This is because alcohol can synergize with benzodiazepines to cause respiratory depression, which can be dangerous.
While family history of anxiety or self-harm may be concerning, they are less likely to be risk factors for benzodiazepine dependence. Similarly, a past history of depression may be linked to future depression, but it is not as strongly associated with drug dependence as coexisting alcohol dependence.
Overall, it is important to consider these factors when assessing the risk of benzodiazepine dependence in individuals. By identifying those who may be at higher risk, healthcare professionals can take steps to prevent or manage this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 172
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear answer. What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:If someone suddenly stops or reduces their use of SSRIs, they may experience symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome, including dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety. It is possible that this woman has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically include anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may present with fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 173
Incorrect
-
Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8 months ago. She has been taking sertraline for 5 months but feels that her symptoms have not improved much. Sophie wants to switch to a different medication. What is the most suitable drug to start?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If sertraline, a first-line SSRI, is ineffective or not well-tolerated for treating GAD, alternative options include trying a different SSRI like paroxetine or escitalopram, or an SNRI like duloxetine or venlafaxine. In Maxine’s case, since sertraline did not work, venlafaxine, an SNRI, would be a suitable option. Bupropion is primarily used for smoking cessation but may be considered off-label for depression treatment if other options fail. Mirtazapine is a NaSSA used for depression, not GAD. Pregabalin can be used if SSRIs or SNRIs are not suitable, and propranolol can help with acute anxiety symptoms but is not a specific treatment for GAD.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 174
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner (GP) for counselling. He describes being incredibly happy with his long-time girlfriend, describing how they have been together for 10 years. They go out shopping together, own a successful business together, frequently host parties and are very outgoing and popular. But when his partner brings up marriage, he convulses with fear. ‘I know it’s ridiculous, but I really think if we get married, everything will suddenly be terrible.’
Which of the following best describes this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gamophobia
Explanation:Different Types of Phobias and Anxiety Disorders
Phobias and anxiety disorders are common mental health conditions that affect many people. Here are some examples of different types of phobias and anxiety disorders:
Gamophobia: This is a specific phobia of getting married. It is commonly seen in patients in committed long-term relationships who are terrified of formalizing the relationship in marriage.
Agoraphobia: This is a fear of being out in public. It is a fear of being in situations where escape might be difficult or that help would not be available in case of any accident.
Algophobia: This is a fear of pain.
Acrophobia: This is a fear of heights.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This is a condition where a person experiences excessive and persistent worry and anxiety about everyday situations. However, this disorder is inconsistent with a patient who is outgoing and comfortable in public.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 175
Incorrect
-
A young man seeks counselling because of marital discord. He and his wife have been having problems because he is uninterested in doing anything but playing video games. He has neglected his responsibilities at home and his work performance is beginning to suffer as well.
Which one of the following best describes his behaviour?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fixation
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms: Understanding Fixation, Dissociation, Sublimation, Reaction Formation, and Splitting
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with difficult situations or emotions. Here are some common defense mechanisms and their explanations:
Fixation: This occurs when a person becomes stuck in a particular stage of development and fails to progress. For example, someone who is fixated on football may prioritize it over other aspects of their life, leading to an imbalance.
Dissociation: This is a defense mechanism where a person temporarily disconnects from their thoughts, feelings, or memories to avoid distress. In extreme cases, dissociation can lead to dissociative identity disorder.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person channels an unacceptable trait or desire into a socially acceptable behavior. For example, someone with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.
Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their opposite. For instance, someone with repressed homosexual desires may become an outspoken advocate against homosexuality.
Splitting: This is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as either all good or all bad, unable to reconcile both positive and negative traits. For example, someone who experiences a bad breakup may only see their ex-partner as a terrible person, ignoring any positive qualities they may have had.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address unhealthy patterns in their behavior and emotions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 176
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He reports a weaker morning erection and difficulty maintaining an erection during sexual activity. He feels depressed about his symptoms. Upon further questioning, he mentions that his morning erection is still present but weaker than usual. He also admits to consuming approximately 50 units of alcohol per week and gaining weight recently. Despite his symptoms, he remains hopeful for improvement. What signs would indicate a psychological origin for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stress leading to performance anxiety
Explanation:Stress can lead to performance anxiety, which can cause erectile dysfunction. If the cause of erectile dysfunction is organic, there would be a loss of morning erections and difficulty during sexual activity. However, if the cause is psychological, men still get erections in the mornings but not during sexual activity. Previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for prostate cancer can also cause erectile dysfunction. Excessive alcohol consumption, such as drinking 50-60 units per week, can also lead to erectile dysfunction. Symptoms such as feeling tired all the time, low mood, gaining weight, and hopelessness may suggest hypothyroidism, which can also cause erectile dysfunction. Tenderness and enlargement of breast tissue may indicate hyperprolactinaemia, which can be caused by a pituitary adenoma or iatrogenic factors. Checking prolactin levels is necessary to diagnose hyperprolactinaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 177
Incorrect
-
As a core trainee on call in England, you are faced with a situation where a 35-year-old patient who is informally admitted and may be suffering from psychosis threatens to leave the hospital while being suicidal. What section of the Mental Health Act can be used to detain this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Emergency Detention under Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act
Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act provides a legal provision for emergency detention of patients suspected of having a psychiatric cause for their illness. This section can be invoked by registered medical practitioners who are F2 and above. Once invoked, the patient can be detained for up to 72 hours while awaiting a Mental Health Act assessment. This provision is crucial in situations where a patient’s mental health poses a risk to themselves or others, and urgent intervention is required. The 72-hour period allows for a thorough assessment of the patient’s mental health status and the development of an appropriate care plan. It is important to note that the use of this section should be in line with the principles of the Mental Health Act, which prioritizes the least restrictive option for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 178
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. After receiving treatment, he informs the physician that he has been experiencing frequent seizures lately.
Which medication is the most probable cause of his seizures?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Seizures are more likely to occur with the use of clozapine due to its ability to lower the seizure threshold. This is a known side-effect of the atypical antipsychotic, which is commonly prescribed for treatment resistant schizophrenia.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 179
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is falling apart. Despite this, she has never taken a day off work and has no history of mental illness. Her partner has noticed her cleaning the house more than usual and becoming irritated by the apparent lack of cleanliness at home. The patient is also becoming increasingly irritated with others' inability to perform tasks to her personal standards. She has a long-standing history of perfectionism and never spends her money on frivolous items. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality
Explanation:Individuals who exhibit obsessive-compulsive personality traits tend to be inflexible when it comes to their principles, beliefs, and standards, and frequently exhibit hesitancy in delegating tasks to others.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 180
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old patient with a history of bipolar disorder visits your GP clinic for routine blood tests. Despite feeling completely fine, he wants to check his health status. Upon clinical examination, there are no signs of splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy.
The following are the results:
- Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Na+ 144 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 114 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
- Lithium level 0.75 mmol/L (0.6 - 1.2)
What advice would you give to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Safety net to return if symptoms develop, arrange repeat blood tests as per usual, under the normal monitoring schedule
Explanation:Lithium, a mood-stabilizing drug commonly used in bipolar disorder, can lead to various health complications such as thyroid, cardiac, renal, and neurological issues. One of the common side effects of lithium is benign leucocytosis, which is also associated with other drugs like corticosteroids and beta-blockers. In this case, it is appropriate to continue with the normal monitoring schedule and safety netting for any signs of infection or malignancy, as there are no indications of either. Antibiotics would not be necessary. Malignant leucocytosis is unlikely as there are no accompanying symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, bleeding, lymphadenopathy, or bone pain. Withholding lithium would not be advisable as it is effectively managing the patient’s condition. The psychiatric team should be consulted before making any decisions regarding the medication.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 181
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old man is brought to your clinic by his family for assessment. The patient recently graduated from university and has been struggling to adjust to post-graduate life. His family notes that he has always been a solitary person, preferring to spend his time in his room, playing video games and building models of his favourite characters. They had hoped that graduating from university would help him become more social. However, he has not made any new friends, and only his family is concerned about this. Instead of socializing, he continues to play video games alone in his room.
During the interview, he appears withdrawn and quiet. His emotional range is limited, and he does not show any clear signs of happiness or joy when discussing activities that he claims to enjoy. He denies experiencing any auditory or visual hallucinations and has no intention of harming himself or others. He claims that his sleep, appetite, energy, and concentration have not changed.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Schizoid Personality Disorder: Differentiating from Other Disorders
Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of perception, processing, and engagement that become ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive. Schizoid personality disorder is one of the disorders in Cluster A, also known as the weird cluster. Patients with this disorder are withdrawn loners with flat affects, preferring to work and play alone. However, they do not exhibit weird or magical thinking (schizotypal) or psychotic symptoms (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder).
It is important to differentiate schizoid personality disorder from other disorders such as avoidant personality disorder, where patients are distressed by their social isolation, and schizoaffective disorder and schizophrenia, which both involve psychotic symptoms. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, clinicians can provide appropriate treatment and support for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 182
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling down for the past two weeks. He has been having nightmares and difficulty sleeping. These symptoms started after he was violently robbed outside of his workplace. He has been avoiding going to work and often feels disconnected from reality.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first 4 weeks after a person experiences a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after 4 weeks. The symptoms of acute stress disorder are similar to PTSD, including intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and phobic disorder are not the same as acute stress disorder and have their own distinct characteristics.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 183
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 184
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia has been taking clozapine for five years and has been stable during that time. During his latest check-up, it was discovered that his clozapine levels were higher than recommended, resulting in a reduction in his dosage.
What is the most probable cause of an increase in clozapine blood levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:Stopping smoking can increase clozapine levels, while starting or increasing smoking can decrease them. Alcohol binges can also increase levels, while omitting doses can decrease them. Stress and weight gain have minimal effects on clozapine levels. It is important to discuss smoking cessation with a psychiatrist before making any changes.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 185
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her husband who is worried about her unusual behavior. The patient discloses that her sister passed away in a car accident recently and the funeral was held last week. She expresses her deep love and closeness with her sister and admits to feeling very sad. The psychiatrist confirms this sentiment with the husband. However, while recounting the events of her sister's death and funeral, she begins to smile and laugh, describing the events in a cheerful tone. What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormal behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incongruity of affect
Explanation:Common Psychiatric Terms Explained
Psychiatric terms can be difficult to understand, but it’s important to know what they mean. Incongruity of affect is when a patient’s emotional expression does not match the situation they are describing. This can be confusing for both the patient and the clinician. Anhedonia is another term that is commonly used in psychiatry. It refers to the inability to feel pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. This can be a symptom of depression or other mental health conditions. Depersonalisation and derealisation are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they have different meanings. Depersonalisation is the feeling that one’s self is not real, while derealisation is the feeling that the world is not real. Finally, thought blocking is when a person suddenly stops their train of thought. This can be a symptom of schizophrenia or other mental health conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 186
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man presents to your clinic six months after he was assaulted on his way home from work. He was mugged and punched in the stomach by his attacker before he fled. Six months later, the patient continues to have severe and incapacitating periumbilical pain where he was punched. He denies any gastrointestinal symptoms or any other issues. Previous investigations and imaging have been unremarkable for any underlying anatomical, neurological or vascular abnormality.
What is the most appropriate description of the patient's current complaints during the clinic visit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pain disorder
Explanation:Differentiating between Psychiatric Disorders: Pain Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatization Disorder, PTSD, and Acute Stress Disorder
When evaluating a patient with unexplained physical symptoms, it is important to consider various psychiatric disorders that may be contributing to their presentation. In this case, the patient’s symptoms do not fit the criteria for somatization disorder, PTSD, or acute stress disorder. However, there are other disorders that should be considered.
Pain disorder is characterized by intense, long-standing pain without a somatic explanation. The patient’s pain is out of proportion to the injury and is not explained by any underlying somatic pathology. This disorder is restricted to physical pain and does not include other somatic complaints.
Conversion disorder, on the other hand, presents as a neurological deficit in the absence of a somatic cause. Patients are usually unconcerned about the symptom, unlike this patient. It usually follows a psychosocial stressor.
Somatization disorder refers to patients with a constellation of physical complaints that are not explained by a somatic process. This would include odd distributions of pain, numbness, GI upset, headache, nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, palpitations, etc. However, this patient is fixated on a particular disease and does not fit the criteria for somatization.
PTSD presents with persistent re-experiencing of the trauma, nightmares, flashbacks, intense fear, avoidant behaviour and/or increased arousal. Symptoms must persist for at least 1 month and impair his quality of life. There are no clear signs of PTSD in this patient.
Acute stress disorder is an anxiety condition precipitated by an acute stress that resolves within a month. This is well beyond the window for acute stress, and it does not fit the symptomatology of acute stress.
In conclusion, it is important to consider various psychiatric disorders when evaluating a patient with unexplained physical symptoms. By ruling out certain disorders, a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 187
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found wandering the streets in an agitated state. His medical history includes hepatic steatosis, hypertension, and asthma, and he regularly takes amlodipine and Symbicort. He drinks up to 1 liter of vodka daily and has smoked for 30 years. He has not been seen by his family for 2-3 days before these events. His vital signs are heart rate 111 beats per minute, blood pressure 170/94 mmHg, respiratory rate 23 /min, oxygen saturations 97% on air, and temperature 37.2ºC. He is tremulous, diaphoretic, and agitated. Shortly after examination, he has a self-terminating seizure lasting 30 seconds. Blood tests and a CT head are performed, with the latter being reported as normal. What is the best medication choice to prevent further seizures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Chlordiazepoxide is the preferred medication for treating delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal, not diazepam. Symptoms of minor alcohol withdrawal, such as tremors, anxiety, and headaches, typically appear 6-12 hours after alcohol cessation and can progress to alcoholic hallucinosis, withdrawal seizures, and delirium tremens. Delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal seizures are treated with chlordiazepoxide as the first-line medication. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA) score is used to manage alcohol withdrawal in hospital, with benzodiazepines being administered based on the score. Intravenous glucose, intravenous hypertonic saline, and intravenous levetiracetam are not appropriate treatments for delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 188
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office seeking assistance for her anxiety. She feels overwhelmed by her job, particularly when it comes to communicating with coworkers and superiors, as she is afraid of being criticized. In her personal life, she frequently worries about how her friends perceive her and often avoids socializing with them as a result. She admits to having low self-esteem and a negative self-image. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder exhibit a strong fear of criticism, rejection, ridicule, and being disliked. They tend to avoid social and occupational activities that involve significant interpersonal contact due to their fear of being criticized or rejected. These individuals have a negative self-image and are preoccupied with the idea that they are being criticized or rejected in social situations. Although they crave social contact, they tend to isolate themselves socially. This disorder is distinct from other personality disorders such as antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, and dependent personality disorder, which present with different symptoms and behaviors.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 189
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old university student has been advised to see her General Practitioner by teaching staff who are very concerned that she has lost a lot of weight throughout the term. She has lost 10 kg over the last six weeks but does not see any problem with this.
Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa (according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-V))?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, leading to low weight
Explanation:Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Diagnostic Criteria and Symptoms
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, leading to low weight. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, the DSM-V criteria include restriction of intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, and a disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced. A specific BMI requirement is no longer a diagnostic criterion, as patients can exhibit thought patterns consistent with anorexia nervosa without meeting a specific BMI. Amenorrhoea, or the absence of menstruation, is also no longer a diagnostic criterion. Purging after eating is not a diagnostic criterion, but it may be present in patients with anorexia nervosa. A specific amount of weight loss is not required for diagnosis. Understanding the diagnostic criteria and symptoms of anorexia nervosa is crucial for early detection and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 190
Incorrect
-
You see a 47-year-old woman in clinic at the General Practice surgery where you are working as a Foundation Year 2 doctor. She has a diagnosis of moderate depression and would like to try an antidepressant alongside her cognitive behavioural therapy, which is due to begin in 2 weeks. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any prescribed or over-the-counter medications.
Which of the following antidepressant medications would be most appropriate as the first-line treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Commonly Prescribed Psychiatric Medications and Their Uses
Depression is a prevalent psychiatric disorder that is often managed by general practitioners with support from community mental health teams. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends antidepressants as a first-line treatment for moderate to severe depression, alongside high-intensity psychological therapy. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as citalopram are the preferred antidepressants for adults due to their better side-effect profile and lower risk of overdose. Fluoxetine is the only licensed antidepressant for children and adolescents and has the largest evidence base.
Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are an older class of antidepressants that are more toxic in overdose and commonly cause antimuscarinic effects at therapeutic doses. They are more commonly used in low doses for conditions such as neuropathic pain. Carbamazepine is commonly used in epilepsy and neuropathic pain and also plays a role as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder. Lithium is primarily used for treatment and prophylaxis in bipolar disorder and should be prescribed by specialists due to the need for dose titration to achieve a narrow therapeutic window. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, an older class of antidepressants with a wide range of side-effects and drug interactions. Patients on phenelzine should follow a low-tyramine diet to avoid an acute hypertensive crisis.
Understanding Common Psychiatric Medications and Their Uses
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 191
Incorrect
-
You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is registered at your practice. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. According to her husband, for the past three days, she has been talking nonsensically and experiencing hallucinations. An Approved Mental Health Professional is contacted and heads to the patient's residence. Upon arrival, you encounter a disheveled and emaciated woman sitting on the pavement outside her home, threatening to physically harm you. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call the police
Explanation:If the patient is exhibiting violent behavior in a public place, it is advisable to contact the police and have her taken to a secure location for a proper evaluation. It is important to note that Metformin does not lead to hypoglycemia.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 192
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of severe dyspareunia and loss of libido that has been ongoing for the past year. She has already been evaluated by a gynaecologist and discharged as all her tests were normal. She has undergone a pelvic ultrasound, laparoscopy, and blood tests for LH/FSH and TFTs, as well as low vaginal and endocervical swabs. She reports no symptoms of depression or anxiety and maintains a healthy lifestyle with regular exercise, good sleep, and a balanced diet. She denies any substance abuse. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for psychosexual counselling
Explanation:Treatment Options for Female Sexual Dysfunction
Psychosexual counselling, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants are all potential treatment options for female sexual dysfunction. However, each option should be carefully considered based on the individual’s symptoms and medical history.
Psychosexual counselling is recommended when there are no physical causes for sexual difficulties. CBT may be appropriate for patients displaying signs of anxiety or depression. The COCP may worsen poor libido and is not without risks. HRT is not indicated for non-menopausal patients. SSRIs can cause loss of libido and are not recommended unless there are symptoms of depression. It is important to discuss all options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 193
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with depression. She is currently undergoing treatment with citalopram and has started a course of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
What is used to assess the effectiveness of treatment in patients with depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9)
Explanation:Common Screening Tools Used in Primary Care
Primary care physicians often use various screening tools to assess their patients’ mental and physical health. Here are some of the most commonly used screening tools:
1. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9): This tool is used to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment.
2. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): This questionnaire is used to identify cognitive impairment and screen for dementia.
3. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): This screening tool is used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.
4. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This tool consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder and measure the severity of symptoms.
5. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ): This is a single question alcohol harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on the frequency of consuming six or more units (if female) or eight or more units (if male) on a single occasion in the last year.
By using these screening tools, primary care physicians can identify potential health issues early on and provide appropriate treatment and care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 194
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Mental Health Ward. He is speaking rapidly, claiming to be the ‘new Messiah’ and insisting that he has the ability to cure acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) with the assistance of his friends who are providing him with undisclosed 'classified' knowledge.
What medication would be appropriate to administer to this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Medication for Psychosis: A Comparison of Olanzapine, Diazepam, Citalopram, Clozapine, and Zopiclone
When a patient presents with psychosis, it is crucial to assess them urgently and rule out any organic medical causes. The primary treatment for psychosis is antipsychotics, such as olanzapine. While benzodiazepines like diazepam can be used to treat agitation associated with acute psychosis, they are not the first-line treatment. Citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression, would not be appropriate for treating psychosis. Clozapine, another antipsychotic, is only used on specialist advice due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Zopiclone, a hypnotic used for sleep, is not appropriate for treating psychosis. It is important to choose the right medication for psychosis to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 195
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Psychiatry Clinic following her third suicide attempt in the past two years. She had cut her wrist at home and was brought to the hospital after her sister found her unconscious. She was successfully resuscitated, received a blood transfusion, and was discharged after a few days in hospital. She has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder since her teenage years and works in retail. She is currently single after having had unsuccessful relationships in the past. She consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and smokes around ten cigarettes a day. She is currently taking lithium for her mental illness. She is otherwise healthy and does not suffer from any medical conditions. What will be included in her long-term risk management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks
Explanation:Best Practices for Suicide Risk Management
Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks is recommended by NICE to identify the needs of the patient and potential risks. However, the use of risk assessment tools to predict future danger is not advised due to their limited predictive value. Instead, a holistic approach considering biological, psychological, and social factors is more effective in identifying patients at high risk of suicide.
Establishing a crisis plan with the patient is part of the risk management strategy advocated by NICE. This plan includes self-management strategies and guidance on accessing emergency services if necessary. Asking about suicide plans and establishing a crisis plan does not increase suicide risk.
Confidentiality is crucial in the doctor-patient relationship, but it may need to be broken if the patient poses a serious risk to themselves or others. Therefore, informing the patient that confidentiality will always be maintained is incorrect.
While psychiatric medications are commonly used to manage underlying mental illnesses, NICE advises against prescribing them specifically to reduce self-harm. A tailored approach to medication management is necessary for each patient.
Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to suicide risk management is essential for effective prevention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 196
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man experiences a sudden emergence of auditory hallucinations describing his actions. He also firmly believes that he has been chosen by a divine entity as a prophet, which contradicts his religious convictions. During the mental state examination, the patient exhibits tangentiality and clanging. After a fortnight, the patient's symptoms disappear entirely. The patient had a history of depression during his late adolescence, but no prior comparable incidents. What disorder did this patient have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The patient experienced psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorganisation. The correct diagnosis is brief psychotic disorder, which refers to a short-lived episode of psychosis followed by a return to normal functioning. Bipolar affective disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as there are no signs of manic episodes. Drug abuse is also an unlikely cause as there is no evidence of drug use in the patient’s history. Schizoaffective disorder is also an incorrect diagnosis as it involves both psychotic and mood symptoms occurring together, which is not the case for this patient.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 197
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man presents with complaints of hearing voices named ‘Tommy and Timmy’ who talk to him constantly. Initially, they would inquire about his activities, but lately, they have become derogatory, urging him to end his life and calling him worthless. Sometimes, they converse with each other about him, but he can still hear their unpleasant remarks. He seems frightened and bewildered. He is now convinced that Tommy and Timmy are the spirits of deceased children searching for another body to possess. The man's concerned sibling, who has accompanied him, reports that he has been experiencing these symptoms consistently for the past eight months. He is typically a reserved individual who never gets into trouble or uses drugs.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Understanding Schizophrenia: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Disorders
Schizophrenia is a mental health disorder that can be diagnosed if certain criteria are met. These criteria include the presence of two or more symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized/catatonic behavior, or negative symptoms. At least one of the symptoms must be a positive symptom, and they must occur for a period of at least one month (less if treated) and be associated with a decline in functioning for at least six months. Additionally, symptoms cannot occur concurrently with substance use or a mood disorder episode.
In contrast to drug-induced psychosis, this man does not have a history of drug use. Mania, on the other hand, is a mood disorder characterized by predominantly positive feelings such as elation and euphoria. Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when there are both prominent psychotic and affective features, but this man does not have prominent affective symptoms. Delusional disorder, which is characterized by the development of a single or related delusions that are usually persistent and sometimes lifelong, does not include hallucinations.
In this case, the man is experiencing auditory hallucinations and delusions about the ghosts of dead children, which are typical symptoms of schizophrenia. Understanding the criteria for schizophrenia and differentiating it from other mental health disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 198
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with her father. He suspects that his daughter may have autism as she spends most of her time in her room playing video games. He mentions that she is emotionally distant and unresponsive when he tries to talk to her about his concerns. She has no close friends and has never been in a romantic relationship. However, she has recently been promoted at work. When asked for her thoughts on the matter, she seems disinterested and just wants to leave. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:The patient in question appears to have schizoid personality disorder, as he displays a lack of interest in social interaction, emotional detachment, and indifference to both positive and negative feedback. This diagnosis is more likely than others such as antisocial personality disorder, autism spectrum disorder, or avoidant personality disorder, as the patient does not exhibit the specific characteristics associated with these disorders.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 199
Incorrect
-
Which of the following symptoms may suggest mania instead of hypomania?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusions of grandeur
Explanation:Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.
Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.
Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 200
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of feeling extremely anxious, avoiding going out, and experiencing disturbed sleep. Her symptoms have resulted in the breakdown of her relationship. She reports that her symptoms began to worsen after she was sexually assaulted 2 years ago. She experiences flashbacks of the assault when she is in a confined space with someone, even if there is no physical contact. The GP decides to refer her for cognitive behavioural therapy and the patient also expresses interest in trying medication. Which of the following medications would be recommended for the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Medications for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Symptoms of PTSD include flashbacks, nightmares, avoidance, and hyperarousal. If drug treatment is necessary, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or venlafaxine are recommended. Tricyclic antidepressants and benzodiazepines are not recommended due to their potential risks and lack of efficacy in treating PTSD. Antipsychotics may be considered in patients who do not respond to other treatments. It is important to regularly review and adjust medication treatment for PTSD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)