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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with Down syndrome attends your clinic alone for his annual health check. He has a history of mild asthma, which is well controlled with his inhalers. He lives with his mother and her partner. When asking about his diet, he tells you that he always eats his dinner, because his mother’s partner says he will hit him if he doesn’t. He doesn't seem concerned about this.
What is the most appropriate response to this information?Your Answer: Contact the duty social worker
Correct Answer: Raise the issue with the safeguarding lead at the practice
Explanation:Steps to Take When Concerned About a Patient’s Home Situation
If you are a healthcare professional and have concerns about a patient’s home situation, there are several steps you can take. One option is to raise the issue with the safeguarding lead at the practice. They can provide information on whether any concerns have been raised previously and help you decide what to do next.
It is not appropriate to do nothing if you have concerns. Asking the patient if the situation bothers them is not enough, as they may not have the capacity to make decisions or may not want to disclose any issues. Similarly, notifying the police via 101 is not appropriate if the patient is not in immediate danger.
Another option is to contact the duty social worker. However, it is best to gather more information about the family first, which can be done through discussion with the safeguarding lead. If they are not available, then contacting a social worker would be appropriate.
Making an appointment with the patient’s mother and partner to discuss the issue is not recommended, as it could potentially put the patient at more risk. It is important to take appropriate steps to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 2
Correct
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You see a 3-year-old girl with her mother. She has been coughing loudly since 3am this morning and her mother describes it as a barking cough. She has had a cold but is otherwise healthy. Today, she seems better but her mother wanted to have her checked out as she appeared more unwell during the night.
During the examination, the girl appears well and has a normal body temperature. Her breathing is normal and her heart rate and respiratory rate are within normal limits. Her throat is red and her eardrums are slightly pink but not bulging.
Based on the history, you suspect that the girl has mild croup and discuss this with her mother. She asks about the cause of croup. What is the primary pathogen responsible for most cases of croup?Your Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus.
Hand foot and mouth disease is mainly caused by enterovirus.
The common cold is primarily caused by rhinovirus.
Slapped cheek disease is mainly caused by Parvovirus B19.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She previously lived in Australia and has used substantial amounts of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis and also phenacetin some years ago. Renal function testing is normal. She has a raised plasma viscosity and is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 100 g/l (115-155).
Select the most likely diagnosis to fit with this clinical picture.Your Answer: Transitional-cell carcinoma of the bladder
Explanation:Bladder Cancer: Risk Factors, Presentation, and Survival Rates
Bladder cancer is a relatively uncommon malignancy, accounting for around 3% of cancer deaths. It is more prevalent in males, with a male to female ratio of 4:1, and is rare in individuals under 40 years of age. The most common type of bladder cancer is transitional-cell carcinoma.
Several risk factors have been identified, including smoking, exposure to certain chemicals found in industrial settings, and the use of certain medications such as phenacetin and cyclophosphamide. Chronic inflammation caused by conditions such as schistosomiasis, indwelling catheters, or stones is associated with squamous-cell carcinoma of the bladder.
The most common presentation of bladder cancer is painless hematuria (blood in the urine), although pain may occur due to clot retention. Women are more likely to have muscle-invasive disease at presentation.
The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer varies depending on the stage of the disease at diagnosis. Patients with small, early superficial tumors have a survival rate of 80-90%, while those with metastases at presentation have a survival rate of only 5%.
In conclusion, bladder cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers consistently measures temperature 5% lower than the actual value.
What is the issue with this set of thermometers?Your Answer: Reliability
Correct Answer: Validity
Explanation:In statistics, reliability refers to the degree of consistency in a measurement, while validity pertains to the accuracy of a test.
Understanding Reliability and Validity in Statistics
Reliability and validity are two important concepts in statistics that are used to determine the accuracy and consistency of a measure. Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement, while validity refers to whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.
It is important to note that reliability and validity are independent of each other. This means that a measurement can be valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. For example, if a pulse oximeter consistently records oxygen saturations 5% below the true value, it is considered reliable because the value is consistently 5% below the true value. However, it is not considered valid because the reported saturations are not an accurate reflection of the true values.
In summary, reliability and validity are crucial concepts in statistics that help to ensure accurate and consistent measurements. Understanding the difference between these two concepts is important for researchers and statisticians to ensure that their data is reliable and valid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?
Your Answer: Persistent sadness or low mood most of the time
Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy
Explanation:Core Symptoms of Depression
Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.
It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.
If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.
He has been steadily increasing his analgesia in recent weeks and is currently taking the maximum dose of co-codamol 30/500. You are considering switching to morphine.
What is the equivalent 24-hour oral morphine dose to maintain the same level of analgesia as his current co-codamol regimen?Your Answer: 5 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:Understanding Equivalent Morphine Dose for Codeine Patients
When prescribing pain medication, it is important to consider the equivalent morphine dose for patients taking codeine. This can be calculated by dividing the dose of codeine by 10. For example, a patient taking 60 mg of codeine four times a day would have a total daily dose of 240 mg, which is equivalent to 24 mg of morphine.
Failing to consider the equivalent morphine dose can result in inadequate pain relief for the patient. It is important to note that some patients may metabolize codeine at different rates, but this should not be a major concern in most cases. The majority of patients are normal metabolizers, converting 10% of codeine to morphine.
Overall, understanding the equivalent morphine dose for codeine patients is a crucial aspect of pain management and should be taken into consideration when prescribing medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both the family and the nursery she attends for day care, her left eye has become increasingly amblyopic, and she has developed a divergent squint. It appears also that she has become increasingly clumsy and has difficulty using stereoscopic vision to play with her lego.
She was born two months premature but has achieved normal milestones since and has had all of her planned vaccinations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Non-urgent referral to the ophthalmologist
Correct Answer: Check for red reflex
Explanation:Importance of Red Reflex Assessment in Diagnosing Retinoblastoma
In cases where a patient presents with loss of the red reflex, it is crucial to rule out the development of a retinoblastoma. This is because retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood, and delay in diagnosis can have negative prognostic implications. Therefore, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary.
Diagnosis of retinoblastoma is typically confirmed through indirect dilated ophthalmoscopy under anaesthetic. Referral to a community optician or non-urgent referral to an ophthalmologist can result in significant delays in diagnosis, making both options inappropriate. While referral to an optician may seem like a viable option, testing the red reflex is a quick and easy procedure that a GP can perform themselves.
Re-examining the patient in six weeks is not a suitable course of action as it will only delay diagnosis. In situations where loss of the red reflex is present, reassurance is not appropriate, and urgent referral for further assessment is necessary. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize red reflex assessment in diagnosing retinoblastoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old business executive presents with dyspepsia and normal clinical examination. Stool antigen testing for Helicobacter pylori is negative, and over-the-counter alginates have not provided relief. The patient has a history of normal upper GI endoscopy and a diagnosis of functional dyspepsia from 12 months ago. The patient is allergic to penicillin. What would be the most suitable treatment plan to follow?
Your Answer: Standard dose H2 receptor antagonist for one month
Correct Answer: A PPI twice-daily and metronidazole 400 mg twice-daily and levofloxacin 250 mg twice-daily
Explanation:Management of Functional Dyspepsia
According to NICE’s CKS guidance, patients with functional dyspepsia should be offered testing for H Pylori, with management guided by the result. Short-term use of over-the-counter alginates may be helpful, but not recommended for long-term therapy. If the test is positive, first-line H Pylori eradication regimens are appropriate, but not if the test is negative. In this case, a low-dose PPI or standard-dose H2RA for one month should be considered. It is important to avoid prescribing medication that is not clinically required, such as Helicobacter eradication treatment for a Helicobacter-negative patient, as this is considered a prescribing error in the RCGP’s WPBA prescribing assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in his left armpit, one day after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the most effective treatment?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Treatment of Infected Dog Bites
Dog bites have a 10% chance of becoming infected, with the most common organisms being anaerobic mouth flora and Pasteurella multocida. Capnocytophaga spp. and Streptococcus pyogenes are also possible. The recommended treatment is co-amoxiclav, which is effective against all likely organisms. Herpes simplex infection is rare in dog bites, but monkey bites can transmit the virus. Fungal infections in dogs do not typically infect bites, so fluconazole is not necessary. Flucloxacillin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria, and metronidazole doesn’t cover aerobic Gram-negative organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents for follow-up. He reports a loss of appetite, nausea, and fatigue over the past three weeks. Upon examination, he appears to be slightly dehydrated. You order a series of blood tests, which reveal the following results:
- Calcium: 3.12 mmol/L
- Albumin: 40 g/L
- Glucose (random): 6.7 mmol/L
- Urea: 10.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 115 µmol/L
Which medication that he is currently taking is most likely contributing to his symptoms?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia is caused by thiazides.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 11
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that her friends have informed her about her bad breath. From where is this patient's issue most likely originating?
Your Answer: Mouth
Explanation:Causes and Treatment of Halitosis
Halitosis, commonly known as bad breath, affects 80-90% of people with persistent symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence identifies poor oral hygiene, smoking, periodontal disease, dry mouth, dentures, and poor denture hygiene as the primary causes of halitosis. In such cases, referral to a dentist and a trial of antibacterial mouthwash and toothpaste may be appropriate.
Less common causes of halitosis include sinusitis, foreign body in the nasal cavities, tonsillitis, tonsil stones in the throat, bronchiectasis in the respiratory tract, acid reflux, and Helicobacter pylori in the gastrointestinal tract. Pseudo-halitosis is a condition in which people falsely believe they have bad breath.
In conclusion, halitosis can be caused by various factors, and treatment depends on the underlying cause. Maintaining good oral hygiene and seeking medical attention when necessary can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall oral health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Johnny is an 8-year-old boy who presents with a mild fever, rash on the hands and feet, and oral ulcers. You inform his parents that he is likely suffering from hand, foot & mouth disease. They inquire about how long he should stay home from school?
Your Answer: Keep out of school until 5 days after onset of symptoms
Correct Answer: No restriction
Explanation:Children with hand, foot and mouth disease do not need to be excluded from childcare or school.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Among the following options, which one has the most substantial evidence supporting the benefits of acupuncture?
Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Exploring the Benefits of Acupuncture: Cochrane Reviews
Cochrane reviews have extensively examined the potential benefits of acupuncture in various medical conditions. However, most of these reviews have concluded that there is insufficient evidence to support the use of acupuncture and that further high-quality research is necessary. This applies to conditions such as asthma, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and smoking cessation.
Nonetheless, Cochrane reviews suggest that acupuncture may be a valuable non-pharmacological tool for patients with frequent episodic or chronic tension-type headaches. Studies also indicate that acupuncture may be as effective as, or even more effective than, prophylactic drug treatment for migraines, with fewer adverse effects.
Other areas where acupuncture has shown positive results include chronic neck pain, chronic low back pain, in vitro fertilisation, nausea and vomiting during chemotherapy, and postoperative nausea. Despite the need for further research, these findings suggest that acupuncture may have potential benefits in certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A couple is struggling with infertility. The male partner is 32-years-old and the female partner is 33-years-old. They have no children and she has never been pregnant before. They have been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse.
The male partner is in good health with no significant medical history or testicular problems. He doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and has a body mass index of 23.5 kg/m2. The female partner has regular periods every four weeks and bleeds for four to five days with each period. She has no significant menstrual issues or vaginal bleeding or discharge. Her periods have always been light and regular. She has no other significant medical history and is a non-smoker, non-alcohol drinker, with a body mass index of 24.1 kg/m2. Neither of them take any regular medications.
They have returned to seek further advice after initial investigations were conducted.
It is noted that she had blood tests for FSH, LH, prolactin, TFTs and a day 21 progesterone, all of which were normal. High vaginal swabs were normal. She also underwent an open access hysterosalpingogram which was normal. His semen analysis was normal.
What is the most appropriate management advice to provide at this stage?Your Answer: They should be referred to a secondary care infertility clinic if they have not conceived after a year of trying
Explanation:Infertility Management and Referral Criteria
Infertility is a common issue that affects many couples. According to the Clinical Knowledge Summaries, if a couple has been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse for one year and are without comorbidities that affect fertility, investigation into the cause of infertility should be initiated. If no cause is found, the couple should be referred for specialist input.
The referral criteria for infertility may vary between health authorities, so it is important to refer to local guidelines. However, in general, if the woman is younger than 36 years and history, examination, and investigations are normal in both partners, referral should be considered if the couple has not conceived after one year. If the woman is aged 36 years or older, referral should be considered after six months. Earlier referral may be necessary if there is a known cause for infertility, a history of factors that predispose to infertility, or if treatment is planned that may result in infertility.
It is important to ensure that the couple has been offered counselling before, during, and after investigation and treatment, regardless of the outcome. Infertility and its investigation and treatment can cause psychological stress, and infertility counsellors are provided by all licensed clinics in the UK through the British Infertility Counselling Association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A teenager calls the clinic for guidance and is connected to you as the on-call physician. She had an uncomplicated medical abortion 13 days ago and had unprotected sex last night. She is uncertain if she requires emergency contraception. She has no specific contraception contraindications.
What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?Your Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and any method of emergency contraception can be safely used
Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and the copper intrauterine device is the only treatment option
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options Post-Abortion
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends emergency contraception if unprotected sexual intercourse occurs from five days post-abortion. There are three safe options for emergency contraception: oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg, ulipristal acetate 30 mg, and the copper intrauterine device. The copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000 when used for emergency contraception. However, it carries the same contraindications as when used for regular contraception. It is important to consider all options and consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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At what age will children be eligible for the intranasal influenza vaccine once the NHS has implemented the vaccination programme?
Your Answer: 4 years
Correct Answer: 2 years
Explanation:Children under the age of 2 are not eligible to receive the intranasal flu vaccine.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A client is initiated on clozapine for treatment resistant schizophrenia. What is a known adverse effect of clozapine treatment?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Hypersalivation
Explanation:Clozapine therapy often leads to excessive salivation, which is a commonly observed side effect. However, this issue can be effectively managed with the use of hyoscine hydrobromide.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Correct
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Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions? Choose ONE option from the list.
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:The Role of Anti-Ro (Anti-SSA) Autoantibodies in Various Autoimmune Diseases
Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) autoantibodies are a type of antinuclear antibody (ANA) that bind to the contents of the cell nucleus. These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune diseases, including systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Sjögren syndrome. In SLE, up to 50% of ANA-positive patients have the anti-Ro subtype, particularly if there is cutaneous involvement. In Sjögren syndrome, up to 90% of patients have anti-Ro antibodies. Anti-La (anti-SS-B) is also typically present in Sjögren syndrome but only in about 15% of SLE patients. Inflammatory myopathy, rheumatoid arthritis, and seronegative arthropathy have lower rates of anti-Ro presence, while vitiligo is not typically associated with these antibodies. Understanding the role of anti-Ro antibodies in different autoimmune diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He reports experiencing shortness of breath on exercise, which has worsened over the past few months. He can now only walk 200-300 yards on flat ground and has difficulty climbing stairs. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking amlodipine 5 mg and indapamide 2.5 mg. In the clinic, his blood pressure is 195/90, and he has bibasal crackles indicative of heart failure, but no ankle edema is present.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (115-165)
- White cells: 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 203 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 139 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 129 μmol/L (79-118)
- Ejection fraction: 55%
What is the most appropriate next therapy for this patient?Your Answer: Bisoprolol and lisinopril in combination
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Management of Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction
Whilst the patient in question has been diagnosed with heart failure, their ejection fraction is preserved. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), the recommended course of action is to manage the patient’s comorbidities. In this case, the patient’s hypertension is the most significant issue, and stepwise blood pressure control with ACE inhibition is the next logical addition to their therapy. If the patient had a reduced ejection fraction, a bblocker would be added at the same time.
Additionally, the patient should be referred for an abdominal ultrasound to check for differential kidney size, which could indicate the presence of renovascular disease. By addressing the patient’s comorbidities and monitoring for potential complications, healthcare providers can effectively manage heart failure with preserved ejection fraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 20
Correct
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A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple pain. She describes sharp pain during feeds which eases afterwards. She has been seeing her health visitor for baby weighing and he is growing along the 75th centile, but she has not had an observed feed. She doesn't have any concerns about the baby. On examination you notice some fissuring on the right nipple inferiorly but otherwise examination is normal. She is afebrile.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Nipple damage from inefficient infant attachment (‘latch’)
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers may experience nipple damage due to poor latch, which can cause pain and fissuring. This is often caused by incorrect positioning and attachment of the baby to the breast. It is important to seek help from a breastfeeding expert to improve positioning and address any underlying issues, such as tongue tie.
Nipple candidiasis can cause burning pain, itching, and hypersensitivity in both nipples, as well as deep breast pain. A bacterial infection may result in purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Vasospasm, also known as Raynaud’s disease of the nipple, can cause intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as blanching, cyanosis, and/or erythema.
If a breastfeeding mother experiences itching and a dry, scaly rash on both nipples, it may be a sign of eczema. For more information and guidance on breastfeeding problems, consult the NICE clinical knowledge summary and the GP infant feeding network.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 21
Correct
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Sarah is a 65-year-old woman who has previously consulted you for erectile dysfunction. Despite trying conservative treatment options, she returns to you as they have not been effective. She expresses interest in trying sildenafil. Sarah's medical history includes a heart attack she had a year ago, hypertension, high cholesterol, type 2 diabetes, and macular degeneration. She is currently taking bisoprolol, atorvastatin, amlodipine, aspirin, and metformin. During examination, her blood pressure is 114/85 mmHg and her pulse is 85 beats per minute. What advice would you give to Sarah?
Your Answer: It is safe to prescribe sildenafil
Explanation:It is safe to prescribe sildenafil to George as he doesn’t have any contraindications.
Prescribing sildenafil is still safe for patients with macular degeneration.
According to NICE, sildenafil can be prescribed safely if the patient had a myocardial infarction more than 6 months ago.
Having hypertension doesn’t prevent the prescription of sildenafil.
Sildenafil can still be prescribed to patients with diabetes.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 22
Correct
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A 53-year-old man presents with a 3-days-history of left-sided facial droop. He denies any associated facial pain, eye symptoms or neurological symptoms. There is no history of trauma.
Upon examination, there is a unilateral facial weakness involving the entire left side of his face. He is unable to fully close his left eye. The remainder of the neurological examination is unremarkable. There are no rashes on his ears, face or mouth. His neck is soft with no palpable swellings or lymphadenopathy.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Commence on a course of prednisolone and give eye care advice
Explanation:For a patient presenting with Bell’s palsy and eye symptoms, it is important to commence on a course of prednisolone and provide eye care advice. Lubricating eye drops should be used frequently during the day, eye ointment used at night, and the affected eye should be taped closed at night using microporous tape. Aciclovir may be considered if Ramsay Hunt syndrome is suspected. Referral to an ophthalmologist is advised if the patient reports eye symptoms. Urgent referral to an appropriate specialist is necessary if the patient has worsening neurologic findings, features suggestive of an upper motor neurone cause, features suggestive of cancer, systemic or severe local infection, or trauma. However, none of these features are present in this patient.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Correct
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A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has visited the surgery on several occasions over the preceding 12 months complaining of abdominal pain. She was initially treated with PPI, but on her most recent review one of your colleagues felt that she had IBS and gave her an antispasmodic.
Unfortunately, her pain persists and is continuous. Her appetite is poor since starting the antispasmodic and she is complaining that she is putting on weight because she is having difficulty doing up her skirt. On further questioning, she has been slightly constipated in recent months and passing urine more frequently.
Her mother and sister died of breast cancer aged 52 and 43 respectively and many family members have had renal calculi.
On examination, she appears anxious but there is no clinical evidence of anaemia or jaundice. She weighs 66 kg but there are no previous recordings for comparison. Her abdomen is soft and there are no masses. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa and suprapubic area. Rectal examination is normal.
How would you manage this patient?Your Answer: Dipstick her urine and refer for renal ultrasound if positive for blood
Explanation:Detecting Ovarian Cancer: A Challenging Diagnosis
Detecting ovarian cancer can be a challenging diagnosis as the symptoms are often vague, especially in the early stages of the disease. However, there are certain risk factors and cardinal symptoms that can help in identifying the disease. Women with a family history of breast cancer, carriers of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene, and Polish women are at an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Patients presenting with persistent bloating, abdominal or pelvic pain, and difficulty in eating or fullness after eating small quantities of food should be evaluated for ovarian cancer.
NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer occurring more than 12 times a month or for more than a month should be offered CA125 testing. If the CA125 is 35 IU/mL or greater, an urgent ultrasound scan of the pelvis should be arranged. Therefore, performing a pelvic examination and arranging testing for CA125 is the most appropriate way forward for patients with symptoms suggestive of ovarian cancer. Early detection and prompt treatment can improve the prognosis of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor complaining of symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection. The physician prescribes an antibiotic. After a few days, the man's partner notices that he appears pale and jaundiced and is feeling unwell. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Haemolysis in G6PD is caused by the sulfamethoxazole component of co-trimoxazole, not by the trimethoprim component.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 25
Correct
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What is the most accurate description of raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis?
Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator
Explanation:Raloxifene: A Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator
Raloxifene is a medication that belongs to the class of selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). It works by selectively binding to oestrogen receptors in different parts of the body, acting as an agonist or antagonist depending on the location.
There are two types of oestrogen receptors, alpha and beta, which are found in various locations such as the breast, uterus, bone, and vasculature. Raloxifene acts as an oestrogen agonist in the bone, promoting mineralisation, while acting as an antagonist in the uterus and breast, preventing hyperplasia.
This is different from tamoxifen, another SERM, which acts as a partial agonist in the endometrium and can promote endometrial hyperplasia. Raloxifene’s selective action makes it a useful medication for treating osteoporosis and reducing the risk of breast cancer in postmenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is a common characteristic of pseudoseizures?
Your Answer: Resisting eye opening
Correct Answer: Incontinence
Explanation:Pseudoseizures: Understanding the Disorder
Pseudoseizure or dissociated non-epileptic attack disorder is a condition that primarily affects disturbed females, with a ratio of 8:1. This disorder is characterized by erratic movements, closed eyes, and resisted eye opening, which are not typical features of epilepsy. However, lateral tongue bite and incontinence may occur, which are common in epilepsy. Patients with pseudoseizures often resist and fight any intervention.
Individuals with pseudoseizures often have a history of abuse or previous illness behavior. These attacks frequently occur in doctors’ surgeries and out-patient departments, and they usually happen in the presence of others. Previous illness behavior is also common in individuals with pseudoseizures.
In summary, pseudoseizures are a disorder that can be challenging to diagnose and treat. Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of this disorder is crucial in providing appropriate care and support to individuals affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?
Your Answer: Reduced power and increased tone
Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements
Explanation:Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.
Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 6-month-old, full-term boy presents with a four-week history of regurgitation of feeds. He is otherwise well, with a normal growth chart. Examination is also normal.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:Gastro-oesophageal reflux, also known as posseting, is a common occurrence in infants between 1-4 months of age due to the underdeveloped lower oesophageal sphincter. This condition is characterized by effortless regurgitation and doesn’t require any investigation or treatment as it usually resolves on its own as the child grows and adopts an upright posture. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, and urinary tract infection are not the correct diagnoses for this scenario. Infective gastroenteritis may cause sudden onset diarrhea and vomiting, but it doesn’t fit with the symptoms described in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of numbness and tingling in his left hand. He is a right-handed construction site manager and denies any history of trauma. This is the first time he has experienced such symptoms.
The patient reports that the numbness and tingling wake him up at night and are primarily felt in his 4th and 5th fingers. Upon examination, there are no observable neurological deficits, but Tinel's sign is positive.
The GP suggests a splint and refers the patient to physiotherapy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is the correct answer as it is caused by compression of the ulnar nerve and can result in tingling or numbness of the 4th and 5th fingers. Tinel’s sign, which involves tapping on the affected nerve to reproduce symptoms, is often positive. Brachial plexus injury is not a likely cause as the question specifies that the issue is atraumatic and the neurological examination is normal. Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, which provides sensation to the first, second, and part of the third digit, but Tinel’s sign can also be used to check the ulnar nerve. Medial epicondyle fracture may cause similar symptoms due to the path of the ulnar nerve, but it is unlikely as there is no history of trauma.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off as intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, but nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In resistant cases, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer: Children must be both inattentive and hyperactive
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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