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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences a bilateral resting...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences a bilateral resting tremor. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?

      Your Answer: Parkinsonism

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she...

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    • A 22-year-old first-year graduate student presents to the Student Health Clinic because she feels depressed. She describes feeling homesick and is so sad that it is interfering with her ability to focus, work or make new friends. Her sleep, appetite and energy have been unaffected. She denies suicidal ideation or feelings of guilt. She thought it would have gotten better by now, but she said it has already been 2 months since she left home and she is still unhappy. She is worried that she is experiencing major depression.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adjustment disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Adjustment Disorder from Other Mood Disorders

      Adjustment disorder is a type of mood disorder that occurs in response to a major stressor. It is characterized by symptoms of depression or anxiety that present within three months of the stressor and last for less than six months. In contrast, major depressive disorder requires two episodes of major depression with a symptom-free interval, all in two months. Dysthymia, on the other hand, requires a depressive mood for at least two years. Bipolar disorder is characterized by manic symptoms, which the patient in question does not exhibit. Acute stress disorder is associated with psychotic symptoms that last less than one month from an identifiable stressor. Therefore, it is important to differentiate adjustment disorder from other mood disorders to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of erectile...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He reports a weaker morning erection and difficulty maintaining an erection during sexual activity. He feels depressed about his symptoms. Upon further questioning, he mentions that his morning erection is still present but weaker than usual. He also admits to consuming approximately 50 units of alcohol per week and gaining weight recently. Despite his symptoms, he remains hopeful for improvement. What signs would indicate a psychological origin for his condition?

      Your Answer: Stress leading to performance anxiety

      Explanation:

      Stress can lead to performance anxiety, which can cause erectile dysfunction. If the cause of erectile dysfunction is organic, there would be a loss of morning erections and difficulty during sexual activity. However, if the cause is psychological, men still get erections in the mornings but not during sexual activity. Previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for prostate cancer can also cause erectile dysfunction. Excessive alcohol consumption, such as drinking 50-60 units per week, can also lead to erectile dysfunction. Symptoms such as feeling tired all the time, low mood, gaining weight, and hopelessness may suggest hypothyroidism, which can also cause erectile dysfunction. Tenderness and enlargement of breast tissue may indicate hyperprolactinaemia, which can be caused by a pituitary adenoma or iatrogenic factors. Checking prolactin levels is necessary to diagnose hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man comes in for his routine psychiatric follow-up appointment. He has...

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    • A 70-year-old man comes in for his routine psychiatric follow-up appointment. He has a history of schizophrenia that has been difficult to manage, but has been stable for the past 5 years on various antipsychotic medications. He also has type II diabetes. During the appointment, he reports experiencing repetitive, involuntary movements of his lips and tongue, including lip smacking and grimacing. Which medication is the most likely culprit for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tardive Dyskinesia and its Association with Antipsychotic Drugs

      Tardive dyskinesia is a disorder characterized by involuntary and repetitive movements, including lip puckering, excessive blinking, and pursing of the lips. This condition is commonly associated with the use of typical (older generation) antipsychotics such as haloperidol, prochlorperazine, and flupentixol. However, newer generation (atypical) antipsychotics like olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and clozapine have a lower risk of causing tardive dyskinesia.

      If tardive dyskinesia is diagnosed, the causative drug should be discontinued. It is important to note that the dyskinesia may persist for months after drug withdrawal and may even be permanent. Metformin is not linked to tardive dyskinesia.

      Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and autism. Current evidence suggests that the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia is lower than with typical antipsychotic use. To prevent tardive dyskinesia in chronic psychoses, it is recommended to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time, while balancing the fact that increased doses are more beneficial to prevent recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with...

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    • Samantha is a 38-year-old female who has come to the crisis team with suicidal thoughts. Upon further inquiry, Samantha also reveals experiencing low mood, lack of energy, early morning awakenings, and difficulty concentrating. She reports that these symptoms are persistent, but she has both good and bad days. Samantha has no prior psychiatric history. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate treatment for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with depression, it is important to consider several factors according to NICE guidelines. These include managing suicide risk, safeguarding concerns for vulnerable individuals, and any comorbid conditions such as substance abuse. If the patient exhibits psychotic symptoms or eating disorders, seeking expert advice is recommended. For those with mild depression or subthreshold symptoms, active monitoring and follow-up appointments are suggested. Psychological interventions through IAPT are recommended for persistent subthreshold or mild-to-moderate depression, while antidepressants and high-intensity psychological interventions are recommended for moderate or severe depression. When prescribing antidepressants, it is important to consider the patient’s history and any chronic physical health problems, with sertraline being preferred in such cases due to its lower risk of drug interactions. Practical solutions to stressors contributing to depression should also be discussed.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old female with a lengthy history of schizophrenia has been admitted to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with a lengthy history of schizophrenia has been admitted to a psychiatric inpatient facility due to a worsening of her psychosis caused by non-adherence to medication. During an interview with the patient, the psychiatrist observes that while the patient's speech is mostly comprehensible, she occasionally employs words like flibbertigibbet and snollygoster that appear to hold significance only for the patient.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's speech abnormality?

      Your Answer: Neologism

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Health

      Neologism is the term used to describe the creation of new words. This phenomenon can occur in individuals with schizophrenia or brain injury. Clanging, on the other hand, is the use of rhyming words in speech. Pressured speech is characterized by rapid speech that is difficult to interrupt and is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or hypomania. Circumstantiality refers to speech that may wander from the topic for periods of time before finally returning to answer the question that was asked. Lastly, word salad is a type of speech that is completely disorganized and not understandable, which may occur in individuals who have suffered a stroke affecting Wernicke’s area.

      In summary, language disturbances are common in individuals with mental health conditions. These disturbances can range from the creation of new words to completely disorganized speech. these language disturbances can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.5
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During the examination, no abnormalities were detected. However, upon reviewing the blood test results sent by the nurse before the appointment, the following values were noted:
      Na+ 130 mmol/l
      K+ 3.5 mmol/l
      Urea 4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 85 µmol/l
      The patient's medications are now being reviewed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the electrolyte abnormality?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, but not of aspirin or bisoprolol. Bisoprolol may cause bradycardia, while aspirin may cause dyspepsia. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia in patients with reduced renal function.

      Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.

      Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.1
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his partner reported he ingested multiple tablets of paracetamol after an argument. The patient is currently medically stable and can give a history to the attending emergency physician. He reports that he regrets taking the tablets and that this is the first time he has committed such an act. He claims that he acted in a moment of anger after the argument and never planned for this to happen. He suffers from moderate depression which has been managed by his general practitioner with sertraline. He consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and denies any abuse of recreational drugs. He has no family history of mental illness.
      Which one of the following is an important dynamic risk factor to consider when managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Self-harm plans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Static and Dynamic Risk Factors for Suicide Risk Assessment

      Suicide risk assessment involves evaluating both static and dynamic risk factors. Static risk factors, such as age, sex, and previous history of self-harm, cannot be changed. Dynamic risk factors, such as drug use, self-harm plans, and income/employment status, can potentially be modified to reduce future risk of suicide.

      Having a well-thought-out plan for self-harm is a major risk factor for suicide. Asking patients about their suicide plans can identify those at highest risk and allow for early intervention. Self-harm plans are a dynamic risk factor that can be acted upon to mitigate future risk of suicide.

      A history of drug abuse and alcohol misuse are static risk factors for suicide. While interventions are available to manage current drug and alcohol misuse, a history of misuse cannot be modified.

      A history of self-harm is also a risk factor for suicide, as individuals who have previously attempted suicide are more likely to do so in the future. However, a history of self-harm is a static risk factor and should not be considered a dynamic risk factor for suicide risk assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.6
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman has had >10 very short relationships in the past year,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has had >10 very short relationships in the past year, all of which she thought were the love of her life. She is prone to impulsive behaviour such as gambling and binge eating, and she has dabbled in drugs. She also engages in self-harm.
      Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes her?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits

      Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.

      Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.

      Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.

      Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      6.2
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has been experiencing a racing heart for the past year. She also feels sweaty and sometimes has difficulty breathing. Despite seeing a cardiologist, no abnormalities were found in her heart. The patient admits to worrying about various things, which has affected her relationships with her loved ones. She also suffers from insomnia 3-4 nights a week. The patient has no significant medical history, but her cousin has a history of depression. On examination, the patient's heart rate is 89 bpm, and her palms are sweaty. Blood tests show no abnormalities, including normal thyroid function and calcium levels. Which neuroendocrine axis is involved in the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid (HPT)

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA)

      Explanation:

      The Role of Hypothalamic-Pituitary Axes in Health and Disease

      The hypothalamic-pituitary axes play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body. Among these axes, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is particularly important in the pathophysiology of anxiety disorders. Overactivation of the HPA axis leads to the release of catecholamines, resulting in the fight or flight response. Environmental factors and genetics may contribute to the development of anxiety disorders, but the final common pathway is the dysregulation of the HPA axis.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis is involved in thyroid disorders, such as hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. However, normal thyroid function rules out this axis as a cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is responsible for the release of sex hormones, such as oestrogen and testosterone. Disorders affecting the HPG axis can impact puberty and sexual development.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-prolactin (HPP) axis regulates the release of prolactin, which acts on the mammary glands. Medications can cause dysregulation of the HPP axis, resulting in hyperprolactinaemia or hypoprolactinaemia.

      Finally, the hypothalamic-pituitary-somatotropic (HPS) axis is involved in the release of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1. Dysregulation of the HPS axis can lead to growth hormone deficiency and Laron syndrome.

      Understanding the role of these hypothalamic-pituitary axes is crucial in diagnosing and treating various health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (9/10) 90%
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