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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of urinary frequency, mild incontinence, and nocturia. Upon rectal examination, an enlarged and nontender prostate is noted, leading to a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia. The patient is prescribed finasteride. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?
Your Answer: It is a selective alpha-1 receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: It is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor
Explanation:Finasteride inhibits 5-alpha reductase, an enzyme that converts testosterone to DHT, and is prescribed for benign prostatic hyperplasia. This reduces the size of the prostate. Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase, which interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis. Tamsulosin is an alpha blocker that selectively blocks alpha 1 receptors in the bladder neck and prostate, causing smooth muscle relaxation. Oxybutynin competitively antagonizes muscarinic receptors on the bladder, providing a direct spasmolytic effect on the bladder smooth muscle. Sildenafil inhibits cGMP specific phosphodiesterase type 5, improving blood flow to the penis and treating erectile dysfunction.
Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects
Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of 5 alpha-reductase, an enzyme responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. This drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness.
However, like any medication, finasteride has its own set of adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. It is important to note that finasteride can also cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking a detailed medical history and conducting a thorough physical examination, the GP orders an outpatient chest CT scan. The results reveal lung fibrosis as the likely cause of the patient's symptoms. The patient has a medical history of gout and rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most likely responsible for causing lung fibrosis?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis
Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife who reports that he has been feeling down lately. She also mentions that he ingested 30 atenolol 50mg tablets about four hours ago. Upon assessment, his pulse is recorded at 42 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 98/62 mmHg. What is the initial treatment option that should be considered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous atropine
Explanation:If gastric lavage is to be attempted, it should only be done within 1-2 hours of the patient taking the overdose.
Managing Beta-Blocker Overdose
Beta-blocker overdose can lead to various symptoms such as bradycardia, hypotension, heart failure, and syncope. To manage these symptoms, it is important to first identify if the patient is bradycardic. If so, atropine can be administered. However, in cases where atropine is not effective, glucagon may be used as an alternative. It is important to note that haemodialysis is not an effective treatment for beta-blocker overdose. Proper management of beta-blocker overdose is crucial in preventing further complications and ensuring the patient’s safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In a diabetes specialist clinic you are about to review a 62-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who is not responding to dietary advice and weight reduction. He therefore needs to commence taking an oral hypoglycaemic agent.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the oral hypoglycaemic agents used in the management of diabetes mellitus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acarbose inhibits α-glucosidase
Explanation:Acarbose works by inhibiting the enzymes responsible for breaking down carbohydrates, specifically α-glucosidase enzymes found in the small intestine and pancreatic a-amylase. On the other hand, metformin reduces the production of glucose in the liver and increases insulin sensitivity, resulting in increased glucose uptake in peripheral tissues. Unlike sulfonylureas, metformin does not increase insulin secretion and has a lower risk of hypoglycemia. Sulfonylureas, on the other hand, increase insulin secretion by binding to ATP-sensitive K+ channels in pancreatic b-cells, but have no effect on peripheral insulin sensitivity. While the newer glitazones, rosiglitazone and pioglitazone, are not associated with hepatotoxicity, troglitazone, an older glitazone, was withdrawn due to drug-related hepatitis. Pioglitazone is associated with an increased risk of heart failure, bladder cancer, and bone fracture, and should be used with caution in high-risk individuals. Clinicians should regularly review the safety and efficacy of pioglitazone in patients to ensure that only those who benefit continue to receive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of diarrhoea and intermittent abdominal pain. He has also noticed blood mixed with his stools over the past week. He is referred to secondary care where he has a colonoscopy and is diagnosed with Crohn’s disease.
Which of the following medications would be used to induce remission in this patient with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. There are several treatment options available for patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the severity of their symptoms and the stage of their disease.
Prednisolone is a commonly used corticosteroid for patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease or a single inflammatory exacerbation within a 12-month period. Azathioprine may be added to glucocorticoid treatment to induce remission if there are more than two exacerbations in a 12-month period or difficulty in tapering the glucocorticoid dose. Infliximab is recommended for adults with severe active Crohn’s disease who have not responded to or are intolerant to conventional therapy.
Mesalazine, an aminosalicylate, may be used for a first presentation of Crohn’s disease if glucocorticoids are contraindicated or not tolerated. It may also be used in addition to oral steroid treatment. Methotrexate should not be used as a monotherapy to induce remission. Instead, corticosteroids are the first-line treatment for inducing remission in patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease. If an adjuvant treatment is required, azathioprine or mercaptopurine can be taken with the corticosteroid. If these medications cannot be tolerated, methotrexate may be added instead.
In summary, the treatment options for Crohn’s disease vary depending on the severity of the disease and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man who drinks 6 cans of soda a day would like to stop his habit. He is considering taking varenicline (Champix®) to help him quit smoking and wants to learn about its potential side effects.
What is the most common side effect associated with orlistat?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abnormal dreams
Explanation:Understanding the Side Effects of Varenicline
Varenicline is a medication commonly used to help people quit smoking. However, like any medication, it can have side effects. One of the most common side effects is abnormal dreams and sleep disorders. While eye pain, lacrimation, and visual disturbances can occur, increased intraocular pressure is not a known side effect. Menorrhagia and vaginal discharge may occur, but amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea are not associated with varenicline. It’s important to note that nicotine withdrawal symptoms can occur as early as 4 hours after the last cigarette and peak around 48 hours after quitting. These symptoms can include headache, anxiety, tobacco cravings, appetite changes, nausea, paraesthesiae, sleep disturbance, sweating, and low mood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What factor is most likely to increase her risk of developing digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Patients with hypokalaemia are more likely to experience digoxin toxicity.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old farmer with a history of depression arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurred vision, runny nose, watery eyes, diarrhoea, and vomiting. The patient admits to ingesting a pesticide in an attempt to commit suicide. What other clinical manifestations should be anticipated in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:This individual is displaying symptoms consistent with organophosphate poisoning, which is a type of pesticide. Organophosphate pesticides work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, which affects the nervous system. This causes an accumulation of acetylcholine at nerve synapses and neuromuscular junctions, resulting in excessive stimulation of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. As a result, bradycardia is a common symptom. The recommended treatment for organophosphate poisoning is atropine, which should be administered every 10-20 minutes until secretions dry up and the heart rate increases to 80-90 beats per minute.
The options of dilated pupils, dry mouth, and hallucinations are incorrect. Organophosphate poisoning typically causes miosis (constricted pupils) due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic system, excessive secretions including salivation, bronchial secretions, diarrhea, and vomiting. While confusion, agitation, and coma may occur in severe cases, hallucinations are not a common symptom.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute state of confusion. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause lithium toxicity in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Thiazides can cause lithium toxicity, while sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline can lower plasma levels of lithium.
Understanding Lithium Toxicity
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.
Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a productive cough, weight loss, and night sweats, four months after returning from India. She is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and started on appropriate antibiotics. However, six weeks into her treatment, she experiences numbness and tingling in her distal extremities, a known side effect of isoniazid. What medication should have been prescribed alongside her antibiotic regimen to minimize this side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyridoxine
Explanation:To treat active tuberculosis, isoniazid is often prescribed alongside other antibiotics such as rifampicin, ethambutol, or pyrazinamide. However, it is important to note that isoniazid alone does not protect against peripheral neuropathy, a potential side effect of tuberculosis treatment.
Rifampicin is an antibiotic that can increase the rate of B6 excretion, which may lead to a deficiency in some individuals.
Ethambutol is another antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, but it can cause a loss of visual acuity and color blindness.
Prednisolone is typically only prescribed for meningeal or pericardial tuberculosis and can cause side effects such as mood changes, weight gain, and immunosuppression.
Pyrazinamide is another antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, but it can cause liver toxicity.
Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs
Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.
Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with nosebleeds, extensive bruising, and mucosal bleeding. His vital signs are stable, and laboratory results reveal a platelet count of 23 * 109/L (150 - 400), which is significantly lower than his previous blood test taken a week ago. The patient reports taking a new medication for nocturnal leg cramps. Which of the following medications could be responsible for his thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Quinine
Explanation:Quinine is the only medication in this list that is strongly linked to the development of drug-induced thrombocytopaenia. However, excessive consumption of tonic water containing quinine can also lead to this condition in certain individuals. While all the other medications in the list can be used to treat nocturnal leg cramps, they do not have a significant association with thrombocytopaenia.
Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This type of thrombocytopenia is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that can cause this condition include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate, and heparin.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will develop drug-induced thrombocytopenia. However, those who do may experience symptoms such as easy bruising, bleeding gums, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding from cuts. In severe cases, the condition can lead to life-threatening bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The action of warfarin is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It interacts with miconazole to increase anticoagulant effect
Explanation:Warfarin, a medication used to prevent blood clots, can interact with other drugs and have various effects on the body. For example, certain antimicrobial agents can increase the risk of bleeding in patients taking warfarin, including azole antifungals, macrolides, quinolones, co-trimoxazole, penicillins, and cephalosporins. Miconazole, in particular, can greatly enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by blocking the action of vitamin K epoxide reductase, which reactivates vitamin K1. This decreases the clotting ability of certain factors in the blood. However, warfarin can also have negative effects, such as warfarin necrosis, a rare but serious complication that can lead to skin necrosis and limb gangrene. When taking warfarin, it is important to consider drug interactions, such as displacement from protein-binding sites or enzyme inhibition or induction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A characteristic clinical finding of opioid overdose is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Opioid Overdose: The Opioid Overdose Triad
Opioid overdose is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that can result from the misuse or abuse of opioids. It is important to recognize the symptoms of opioid overdose in order to provide prompt and effective treatment. The opioid overdose triad is a set of three hallmark symptoms that are commonly seen in opioid overdose: decreased level of consciousness, pinpoint pupils, and respiratory depression.
Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common side effect of opioid overdose. However, hypothermia is not typically seen in opioid overdose and is more commonly associated with barbiturate overdose. Tachypnoea, or rapid respiration, is not a symptom of opioid overdose; instead, respiratory depression, or slow and shallow breathing, is a key feature. Prolonged hypoxia from respiratory depression can lead to permanent damage to the central nervous system or even death, even if treatment with naloxone is given. It is important to note that alcohol can also cause respiratory depression and increase the risk of overdose when taken with opioids.
Sweating and lacrimation, or excessive sweating and tearing, are frequently seen in early opioid withdrawal but are not symptoms of overdose. Pupillary constriction, or pinpoint pupils, is a hallmark feature of opioid overdose, while pupillary dilatation is not.
Recognizing the symptoms of opioid overdose, including the opioid overdose triad, is crucial for prompt and effective treatment. If you suspect someone is experiencing an opioid overdose, call for emergency medical assistance immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient presents to discuss his recent blood test results. He has been taking ramipril for 6 weeks and his blood pressure has been well controlled. His baseline creatinine level was 92 µmol/L. However, his most recent creatinine level has increased to 118 µmol/L and he is concerned about the potential impact on his kidney function.
What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue current dose of ramipril and check urea and electrolytes at 3 months
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with community-acquired pneumonia. She has developed acute kidney injury. Her blood results show the following:
Test Result Reference range
Potassium (K) (mmol/l) 6.0 3.5-5.3
Creatine (Cr) (μmol/l) 220
Male: 80-110
Female: 70-100
Which of the following of her medications should be stopped immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Medication and Renal Impairment: Considerations and Dose Adjustments
When prescribing medication for patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential for inducing or worsening kidney damage. Here are some considerations and dose adjustments for commonly prescribed medications:
Ramipril: This ACE inhibitor has the potential to cause hypotension, which can lead to impaired kidney function. In patients with stable renal impairment, a maximum daily dose of 5 mg can be considered. The initial dose should not exceed 1.25 mg daily if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Bisoprolol: This medication is not associated with inducing or worsening kidney damage. However, the dose should be reduced if eGFR is lower than 20 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (maximum 10 mg daily). Paracetamol: At therapeutic doses, paracetamol is not associated with kidney damage. However, in overdose, it can cause renal damage. The minimum interval between doses should be six hours if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Fluticasone with salmeterol: Neither component of this inhaler is associated with kidney damage and does not require dose adjustment in patients with renal disease. Simvastatin: Statins should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment, as the likelihood of muscle toxicity increases with higher doses. Doses >10 mg daily should be used with caution if eGFR is lower than 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2.
In summary, medication dosing and selection should be carefully considered in patients with renal impairment to avoid potential kidney damage and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you are updating a prescription chart for a premature baby born at twenty-six weeks. While reviewing the chart, you come across sildenafil. Can you explain the purpose of sildenafil in neonatal care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treating pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Sildenafil, also known as Viagra, is typically used to treat erectile dysfunction in adults. However, it can also be used to treat pulmonary hypertension in neonates. The appropriate method for calming a distressed neonate depends on the underlying cause, which is often related to respiratory distress or pain. Gaviscon and ranitidine are sometimes used to treat gastro-oesophageal reflux, although this is not an approved use. Caffeine is sometimes used to help wean a neonate off a ventilator.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and hypertension is prescribed amiodarone.
Which of the following blood tests is crucial for monitoring amiodarone use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LFTs, TFTs (6-monthly)
Explanation:Drug Monitoring in Primary Care
Drug monitoring is an essential aspect of patient care, particularly for medications with potential side effects. In primary care, drug monitoring is becoming increasingly common, especially for patients managed through shared-care with specialty care.
Amiodarone is a medication that requires ongoing monitoring for potential side effects, including pulmonary toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, abnormal liver function, and corneal microdeposits. Monitoring includes checking LFTs and TFTs every six months, a chest radiograph and ECG every 12 months, and an annual ophthalmological examination.
Azathioprine requires monitoring of FBC and LFTs every three months, while lithium requires monitoring of U&Es, TFTs, and lithium plasma levels every six months. Methotrexate requires monitoring of FBC, U&Es, and LFTs every two to three months.
In conclusion, drug monitoring is crucial in primary care to ensure patient safety and prevent potential adverse effects. Regular monitoring of blood tests can help detect any changes in a patient’s health and allow for timely intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about saxagliptin is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a DPP-4 inhibitor
Explanation:Saxagliptin: A DPP-4 Inhibitor for Type 2 Diabetes Treatment
Saxagliptin is an oral hypoglycaemic drug that belongs to the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor class. Its mechanism of action involves slowing down the breakdown of incretin hormones, which stimulates insulin production and reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver. Compared to sitagliptin, saxagliptin has a shorter half-life. It is safe to use in patients with mild to moderate renal impairment, but should be avoided in severe cases. Saxagliptin is recommended as first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in combination with other drugs or as initial monotherapy if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. However, its use during pregnancy and breastfeeding should be avoided due to potential toxicity. Regular monitoring of renal function is necessary before and during saxagliptin treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient in her late 60s is hospitalized with digoxin toxicity. Which of her medications is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:The use of diltiazem can lead to the development of digoxin toxicity.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a rash when exposed to sunlight?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation:Drugs that can cause sensitivity to light
Photosensitivity is a condition where the skin becomes more sensitive to light, resulting in rashes, blisters, and other skin irritations. Certain drugs can cause photosensitivity, making it important to be aware of the medications that can cause this condition. Some of the drugs that can cause photosensitivity include thiazides, tetracyclines, sulphonamides, ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, NSAIDs like piroxicam, psoralens, and sulphonylureas.
Thiazides are a type of diuretic that can cause photosensitivity, while tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and ciprofloxacin are antibiotics that can also cause this condition. Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, but it can also cause photosensitivity. NSAIDs like piroxicam are pain relievers that can cause photosensitivity, while psoralens are used to treat skin conditions like psoriasis and can also cause photosensitivity. Sulphonylureas are medications used to treat diabetes that can cause photosensitivity as well.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will experience photosensitivity, but it is still important to be aware of the potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. He reports taking 28 tablets, each containing 500 milligrams of paracetamol, in an attempt to end his life. However, he now expresses regret and desires full medical treatment.
As the healthcare provider, you determine that a paracetamol level is necessary to guide treatment with acetylcysteine. What is the earliest time frame after ingestion of the tablets that a paracetamol level can be utilized for treatment guidance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 hours after ingestion
Explanation:A plasma paracetamol level taken within four hours of ingestion cannot be accurately interpreted. This is because the drug is still being absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract during this time, which can result in an underestimation of the total ingestion of paracetamol. To obtain an accurate reading, it is important to wait until at least four hours have passed before taking a blood sample and plotting it on the treatment nomogram.
For patients who present within one hour of ingestion, activated charcoal may be administered to reduce absorption of the drug. However, a paracetamol level taken at this stage may not provide much useful information.
In cases where the ingestion time is unknown or the overdose was taken over a period of more than an hour, acetylcysteine treatment may be initiated regardless of the paracetamol level.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is discovered that he has been taking dabigatran since being diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. Due to the severity of the bleeding, it is necessary to reverse the effects of the anticoagulant. What medication is used for this purpose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idarucizumab
Explanation:Understanding Direct Oral Anticoagulants
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used for various indications such as preventing stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) after hip or knee surgery, and treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention in non-valvular AF, certain risk factors must be present, such as prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 years or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure.
There are four DOACs available, namely dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, which differ in their mechanism of action and excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of dabigatran is excreted through the kidneys, while rivaroxaban is metabolized in the liver, and apixaban and edoxaban are excreted through the feces.
In terms of reversal agents, idarucizumab is available for dabigatran, while andexanet alfa is available for rivaroxaban and apixaban. However, there is currently no authorized reversal agent for edoxaban, although andexanet alfa has been studied. Understanding the differences between DOACs is important for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with stable congestive heart failure. As you review his repeat prescriptions, you consider his new diagnosis. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis, and erectile dysfunction. What is the most crucial medication to avoid in patients with chronic heart failure among his current medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should exercise caution when using NSAIDs as they have the potential to worsen the condition by causing fluid retention, particularly diclofenac.
Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management of medications. Some medications can exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should be used with caution. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can also cause fluid retention and should be used with caution. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect and should be avoided. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and to carefully consider their use in patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is recommended bupropion to aid in smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist
Explanation:NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An older woman with advanced breast cancer has been discharged from the hospital for palliative care at home. She was prescribed oral morphine at a dose of 10mg four times a day to manage her pain from bony metastases. This dosage was effective in controlling her pain.
However, the patient's condition has worsened, and she is now experiencing difficulty swallowing, making it impossible to take the medication orally. The GP has recommended converting the morphine to a subcutaneous injection, which will be administered by the district nurses.
What is the appropriate subcutaneous morphine dose for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5mg four times daily
Explanation:To convert from oral to subcutaneous morphine, divide the oral dose by two. In this case, the recommended subcutaneous morphine dose is 5mg four times daily, which is equivalent to 10mg of oral morphine four times daily. As the patient’s pain is currently well controlled, there is no need to adjust the analgesia dose.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for a 67-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 3 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
- Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
- Amlodipine 5mg once daily
- Ramipril 10mg once daily
- Diclofenac 50mg as needed
- Sertraline 50mg once daily
What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID
Explanation:The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.
MHRA Guidance on Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Safety
The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), after a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, it is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.
The MHRA’s updated guidance on diclofenac and cardiovascular safety highlights the increased risk of cardiovascular events associated with this NSAID compared to other NSAIDs. Patients with certain conditions are advised to avoid diclofenac and switch to other NSAIDs. This guidance is important for healthcare professionals to consider when prescribing NSAIDs to patients with cardiovascular risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents to the surgical assessment unit with lower abdominal pain and inability to pass urine for the past 12 hours. He has a palpable bladder and tenderness in the suprapubic region. On PR examination, his prostate is smooth and not enlarged. He has a medical history of high blood pressure, depression, neuropathic pain, and diabetes. What could be the probable cause of his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention can be caused by Amitriptyline due to its anticholinergic activity. The patient, who has a small prostate on PR examination, is currently experiencing urinary retention. None of the other medications are known to cause this condition.
Drugs that can cause urinary retention
Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe inflammation of his first metatarsophalangeal joint. He reports swelling and tenderness of the joint and a sample of fluid is sent for microscopy. He has a medical history of hypertension and duodenal ulcers.
What is the most suitable initial medication to prescribe?
Choose ONE option from the list provided.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Managing Gout: Treatment Options and Contraindications
Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the synovial fluid. Chronic hyperuricemia is the primary cause of this condition. The acute management of gout involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or colchicine as first-line treatment. However, the maximum dose of NSAIDs should be prescribed until 1-2 days after the symptoms have settled, and gastroprotection may also be necessary. Colchicine has a slower onset of action and may cause diarrhea as a side effect. Oral steroids or intra-articular steroid injections may be considered if NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated. Allopurinol is not recommended during the acute phase but is useful for preventing recurrent attacks of gout. Diclofenac and indomethacin are contraindicated in patients with duodenal ulcers, and colchicine is a suitable alternative for the treatment of gout. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not useful in the treatment of gout as it does not have anti-inflammatory or analgesic properties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient who is 30 weeks' pregnant with her first baby is urgently referred by her GP to the Obstetric/Endocrine Joint Clinic with newly diagnosed symptomatic hyperthyroidism.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of maternal thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy with carbimazole or propylthiouracil?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propylthiouracil crosses the placenta
Explanation:Thyroid Management During Pregnancy: Considerations and Recommendations
Pregnancy can have a significant impact on thyroid function, and thyroid dysfunction can occur in many pregnant women due to pathological processes. Anti-thyroid drugs such as propylthiouracil and carbimazole can cross the placenta, potentially causing fetal goitre and hypothyroidism. It is recommended to keep the dose of these drugs as low as possible to maintain euthyroidism during pregnancy. Neonatal goitre and hypothyroidism can occur even with low-dose anti-thyroid drugs, and the neonatal goitre is permanent if it occurs.
Block-and-replace therapy with carbimazole and thyroxine is appropriate maternal management only in the treatment of isolated fetal hyperthyroidism caused by maternal TSH receptor antibody production in a mother who previously received ablative therapy for Graves’ disease. The neonatal goitre and hypothyroidism normalise in a few days’ time, and the confirmatory tests will come back normal even if the TSH is high on screening.
Specialist assessment is needed to differentiate between Graves’ hyperthyroidism and gestational hyperthyroidism. Women treated with anti-thyroid drugs may need to have the drug or dose amended by a specialist at the diagnosis of pregnancy, because these drugs cross the placenta. Women with current or previous Graves’ disease should have their TSH receptor antibody levels measured by the specialist. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are present in breast milk, but this does not preclude breastfeeding as long as neonatal development is closely monitored and the lowest effective dose is used.
In summary, thyroid management during pregnancy requires careful consideration and monitoring to ensure the health of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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