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  • Question 1 - Which of the following neonatal complications is least frequently observed in pregnancies of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neonatal complications is least frequently observed in pregnancies of women with diabetes?

      Your Answer: Sacral agenesis

      Correct Answer: Microsomia

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia is more likely to occur in individuals with diabetes than microsomia.

      Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, occurring in 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.

      Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another potential complication, which can occur due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia, which leads to more neonatal jaundice, is also a possibility.

      Malformation rates may increase 3-4 fold, with sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) being some of the potential risks. Stillbirth is also a possibility. Hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may occur, and shoulder dystocia may cause Erb’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes experiencing pain in both calves and feet after walking around 400m, which gradually worsens and eventually causes his legs to give out. The pain disappears completely after sitting and resting for a few minutes, and he has found that leaning forward helps him walk further before the pain returns. The patient has no prior medical history, and a physical examination of his lower limbs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Lumbar spinal canal stenosis is often indicated by a history of progressive painful neurological deficit that improves when resting or leaning forward. This condition causes nerve root ischaemia due to inadequate microvascular blood flow to the spinal nerve roots, resulting in bilateral neuropathic pain and progressive deficit affecting the dermatomes and myotomes below the affected level. Leaning forward widens the canal, providing relief, while resting reduces the oxygen requirement of the nerve roots, allowing the ischaemia to slowly resolve. Neurological examination of the legs usually shows no abnormal findings as the symptoms are only brought on by consistent use of the nerve roots.

      Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative arthropathy that typically affects large weight-bearing joints in the lower limbs, causing pain that rarely improves with rest and is not associated with a neurological deficit. It is usually unilateral and does not cause symmetrical symptoms.

      Peripheral neuropathy can produce similar symptoms to spinal stenosis, but the pathology is not related to nerve use, and a deficit (usually sensory) would be detected on examination. The absence of such findings indicates that peripheral neuropathy is not the cause.

      Peripheral vascular disease is the most likely differential for patients with spinal stenosis and symptoms of progressive leg pain that is relieved by rest. However, evidence of vascular insufficiency, such as absent distal pulses, ulceration or skin changes, would be present on examination if the condition were severe enough to cause symptoms after relatively short distances of walking. Additionally, leaning forward does not improve symptoms in peripheral vascular disease, only rest does.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
      On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
      What is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes

      Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.

      Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.

      Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.

      Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide) for a confirmed diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. During a respiratory follow up, the patient reports a decline in vision, particularly a decrease in the vibrancy of colors. What modification would you suggest for the medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife who...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife who reports that he has been feeling down lately. She also mentions that he ingested 30 atenolol 50mg tablets about four hours ago. Upon assessment, his pulse is recorded at 42 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 98/62 mmHg. What is the initial treatment option that should be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous atropine

      Explanation:

      If gastric lavage is to be attempted, it should only be done within 1-2 hours of the patient taking the overdose.

      Managing Beta-Blocker Overdose

      Beta-blocker overdose can lead to various symptoms such as bradycardia, hypotension, heart failure, and syncope. To manage these symptoms, it is important to first identify if the patient is bradycardic. If so, atropine can be administered. However, in cases where atropine is not effective, glucagon may be used as an alternative. It is important to note that haemodialysis is not an effective treatment for beta-blocker overdose. Proper management of beta-blocker overdose is crucial in preventing further complications and ensuring the patient’s safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 6 - Each of the following can cause a mydriatic pupil, except for what? ...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following can cause a mydriatic pupil, except for what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil

      Explanation:

      The Argyll-Robertson pupil is a well-known pupillary syndrome that can be observed in cases of neurosyphilis. This condition is characterized by pupils that are able to accommodate, but do not react to light. A helpful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA). Other features of the Argyll-Robertson pupil include small and irregular pupils. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 7 - A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of > 20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l, and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
      What is the cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation

      Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.

      While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.

      Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 8 - A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week-old Somali male infant was brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his mother who recently arrived in the UK. Due to inadequate antenatal care in their home country, the baby has been experiencing rapid breathing, poor feeding, and weight loss for the past 3 weeks. During examination, the baby displayed upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent inner epicanthal folds, a protuberant tongue, and single palmar creases. Additionally, an atypical murmur was heard. An urgent echocardiogram was performed, and the diagnosis was revealed. What is the most likely congenital cardiac abnormality in this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The most frequent congenital cardiac abnormality found in individuals with Down’s syndrome is atrioventricular septal defects. This baby, who displays typical syndromic features of Down’s syndrome, was not diagnosed during pregnancy due to inadequate antenatal care in Somalia. In the first few weeks of life, dyspnoea, failure to thrive, poor weight gain, and cyanosis can be common presentations. Although Tetralogy of Fallot can occur in Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common. Ventricular and atrial septal defects can also occur, but they are not as prevalent and do not align with the severity of this baby’s symptoms.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his General Practitioner....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his General Practitioner. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, depression, and chronic alcohol abuse. His current medications include warfarin 3 mg once daily, ramipril 2.5 mg once daily, bisoprolol 2 mg once daily, erythromycin 500 mg four times daily (day five of a 7-day course for cellulitis on the leg), and sertraline 50 mg once daily (started four weeks ago). He is allergic to penicillin. His blood work shows an INR of 6.5 (target 2.0-3.0). What is the most likely reason for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin is a P450 inhibiter

      Explanation:

      The patient is taking erythromycin for cellulitis, which inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzymes responsible for breaking down drugs like warfarin and statins. As a result, the effects of warfarin are potentiated, leading to a higher than expected INR. Bisoprolol is unlikely to have contributed to the change in INR as it does not affect the P450 system. Chronic alcohol abuse can induce P450 enzymes, but this would cause a lower INR. Erythromycin is an inhibitor, not an inducer, of P450 enzymes. Sertraline, though recently started, is also an enzyme inhibitor and cannot explain the high INR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is the primary test that should be employed for screening individuals with coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, the initial serological test for coeliac disease should be tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old footballer presents with persistent pain in his left knee that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old footballer presents with persistent pain in his left knee that began abruptly during a game. During the physical examination, you instruct the patient to lie down and flex his knee. As you internally rotate his foot, he experiences discomfort and you detect a clicking sensation. The patient inquires about the procedure, and you clarify that you are performing McMurray's test, a specialized examination for knee joint issues. What is the probable reason for his knee pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meniscal tear

      Explanation:

      A positive McMurray test is indicative of a meniscal tear, which is typically caused by twisting of the knee. During the test, the knee is flexed while the sole of the foot is held, and one hand is placed on the medial side of the knee to pull it towards a varus position. The other hand is used to internally rotate the leg while extending the knee. If the patient experiences pain or a clicking sensation, the test is considered positive. On the other hand, a positive draw test is a sign of an anterior cruciate ligament tear, which is also commonly caused by twisting of the knee.

      Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What is the primary intervention to prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer dexamethasone to the mother

      Explanation:

      Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) is a condition that primarily affects premature newborns due to a lack of surfactant. This deficiency causes an increase in alveolar surface tension, leading to reduced compliance and increased breathing effort. The production of surfactant in the fetus is aided by natural maternal glucocorticosteroids, and synthetic steroids are the first-line treatment for preventing NRDS in high-risk pregnancies. Tocolytics, which can delay preterm labor, are not typically used, but may be considered in certain cases to allow time for maternal steroids to take effect. While curosurf, continuous positive airway pressure, and extracorporeal membrane oxygenation can be effective treatments for NRDS, they are not used as preventative measures.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
      What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis

      Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Hb 121 g/l 135–180 g/l
      WCC 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Na+ 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      K+ 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l <11.1 mmol/l (random)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Differential Diagnosis

      Addisonian Crisis: A condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, often due to autoimmune disease, TB, metastases, or adrenal haemorrhage. Symptoms include vague complaints such as depression, anorexia, and GI upset, as well as tanned skin and pigmented palmar creases. Diagnosis is confirmed through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment involves oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid.

      Other Differential Diagnoses: Meningococcal septicaemia, insulin overdose, paracetamol overdose, and salicylate overdose. However, the clinical features described in the scenario are not suggestive of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with bruising, striae, acne and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism.
      On examination, the patient appears lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and demonstrable proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Random glucose 8.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      A low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test are ordered.
      Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iatrogenic

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Causes of Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. There are several different causes of Cushing syndrome, including iatrogenic, pituitary-dependent, ectopic ACTH secretion, primary adrenal disorder, and pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome.

      The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is iatrogenic, which is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. This risk is higher in people who take oral corticosteroids, but it can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.

      Pituitary-dependent Cushing’s disease is a much rarer cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from a pituitary tumour. Ectopic ACTH secretion is a very rare cause of Cushing syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumour.

      Primary adrenal disorder is an unusual cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from primary hypercortisolism. Finally, pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing syndrome.

      Understanding the different causes of Cushing syndrome is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 16 - A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever and a rash. He has been feeling sick for 5 days with persistent high temperatures. During the examination, he displays cracked lips, a bright red tongue, a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash, and peeling of the skin on his hands and feet. Additionally, he has bilateral conjunctivitis. What is the necessary investigation to screen for a potential complication, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery aneurysms, which can be detected through an echocardiogram. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, the patient must have a fever for more than 5 days and at least 4 of the following symptoms: bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphic rash, cracked lips/strawberry tongue, and oedema/desquamation of the hands/feet. This patient has a rash, conjunctivitis, mucosal involvement, and desquamation of the hands and feet, indicating Kawasaki disease. While cardiac magnetic resonance angiography is a non-invasive alternative to coronary angiography, it is not first-line due to its cost and limited availability. A chest x-ray may be considered to check for cardiomegaly, but it is not necessary as echocardiography can diagnose pericarditis or myocarditis without radiation. Coronary angiography is invasive and carries risks, so it is not first-line unless large coronary artery aneurysms are seen on echocardiography. A lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage unless the patient displays symptoms of meningitis.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman who is currently 33 weeks pregnant has been monitoring her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is currently 33 weeks pregnant has been monitoring her capillary blood glucose (CBG) at home since being diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) 3 weeks ago. She has received appropriate dietary and exercise advice, as well as review by a dietitian. Additionally, she has been taking metformin and has been on the maximum dose for the past week. Fetal growth scans have been normal, with no signs of macrosomia or polyhydramnios. Today, she presents her CBG diary, which indicates a mean pre-meal CBG of 6.0 mmol/L and a mean 1-hour postprandial CBG of 8.4 mmol/L. What is the most suitable management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be added. Pregnant women with GDM should aim to keep their CBGs below specific levels, including fasting at 5.3mmol/L and 1 hour postprandial at 7.8 mmol/L or 2 hours postprandial at 6.4 mmol/L. If these targets are not met, insulin should be offered as an additional therapy. Gliclazide is not recommended, and the use of any sulphonylurea in GDM is an off-license indication. Gliptins are not recommended due to insufficient evidence of their safety in pregnancy. It is not appropriate to continue the same management or de-escalate treatment by stopping metformin if CBG readings are above target levels. Failure to achieve glycaemic control can result in serious risks to both mother and fetus, including pre-eclampsia, pre-term labour, stillbirth, and neonatal hypoglycaemia, even if fetal growth appears normal.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 18 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.

      Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother. He has been crying after every feed for several weeks and regurgitating milk. He has also been failing to gain weight.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which is characterized by regurgitation of milk after feeds and crying due to abdominal pain. This can lead to failure to gain weight or even weight loss. Infantile colic is less likely as it would not cause these symptoms. Intussusception, a condition where part of the bowel invaginates into another, causing colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools, requires immediate hospitalization. Pyloric stenosis, which presents with projectile vomiting, dehydration, and faltering growth, is less likely as the child does not have projectile vomiting. Volvulus, a complete twisting of an intestinal loop, could present with bilious vomiting, signs of shock, peritonitis, and blood per rectum, and typically occurs in the first year of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old male is prescribed simvastatin for hyperlipidaemia. What is the most probable...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is prescribed simvastatin for hyperlipidaemia. What is the most probable interaction with his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice

      Explanation:

      The enzyme CYP3A4, which belongs to the cytochrome P450 family, is strongly inhibited by grapefruit juice.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man with ulcerative colitis is seen for his follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with ulcerative colitis is seen for his follow-up appointment. He had a moderate flare-up of his condition two months ago, which was treated with oral steroids and resolved. He has not had any other flare-ups in the past year and his most recent colonoscopy showed left-sided disease. He is currently asymptomatic, with normal observations and bowel movements of 2-3 times per day. What is the best medical treatment to maintain remission for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports feeling more stressed lately and suspects it may be contributing to his flare-up. Additionally, he has recently started taking a new medication. During the physical examination, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces and trunk that are erythematous are observed. Which of the following medications could potentially trigger exacerbations in his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The medication lithium has been known to worsen psoriasis in some patients and can even cause psoriasis in those who did not previously have it, even at normal therapeutic levels. It is important to inform both the patient and their psychiatrist of this potential effect. Furosemide, on the other hand, does not typically worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Amiodarone also does not worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can cause a bluish discoloration of the skin.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral leg weakness, and back pain. The medical team suspects a spinal epidural abscess. What imaging test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of a spinal epidural abscess, a complete MRI of the spine is necessary to detect any skip lesions.

      To accurately diagnose a spinal epidural abscess, a full spine MRI is essential. Neither plain x-rays nor CT scans can effectively identify the abscess. It is necessary to scan the entire spine, not just the suspected area, as there may be multiple separate abscesses that are not connected. The MRI should be requested and performed as soon as possible.

      Understanding Spinal Epidural Abscess

      A spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a serious condition that occurs when pus collects in the spinal epidural space, which is the area surrounding the spinal cord. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. SEA can be caused by bacteria that enters the spinal epidural space through contiguous spread from adjacent structures, haematogenous spread from concomitant infection, or direct infection. Patients with immunosuppression are at a higher risk of developing SEA. The most common causative micro-organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms of SEA include fever, back pain, and focal neurological deficits according to the segment of the cord affected.

      To diagnose SEA, doctors may perform blood tests, blood cultures, and an infection screen. An MRI of the whole spine is necessary to identify the extent of the abscess. If the primary source of infection is not clear, further investigations may be required, such as echocardiography and dental x-rays. Treatment for SEA involves a long-term course of antibiotics, which may be refined based on culture results. Patients with large or compressive abscesses, significant or progressive neurological deficits, or those who are not responding to antibiotics alone may require surgical evacuation of the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man complains of a burning sensation around his left eye. Upon examination, a rash with erythematous blisters is visible in the left trigeminal distribution. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

      Explanation:

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department experiencing an asthma attack. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department experiencing an asthma attack. Despite being a known asthmatic, his condition is usually well managed with a salbutamol inhaler. Upon assessment, his peak expiratory flow rate is at 50%, respiratory rate at 22/min, heart rate at 105/min, blood pressure at 128/64 mmHg, and temperature at 36.7 ºC. During examination, he appears distressed and unable to complete sentences. A chest examination reveals widespread wheezing and respiratory distress.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe asthma attack

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness, which appears to be a lower motor neuron palsy. There are no other neurological symptoms on examination, and her ears appear normal. You diagnose her with Bell's palsy and prescribe prednisolone. What is the crucial next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe artifical tears and advise eye taping at night

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse over the last 12 hours. Some 10 months ago he had a lobar resection for a stage II squamous cell carcinoma, followed by radiotherapy and adjuvant chemotherapy. On examination there is reduced power and altered sensation in both legs.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the current problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression as a result of vertebral metastases

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of spinal cord-related symptoms in cancer patients

      Spinal cord-related symptoms can be a medical emergency in cancer patients, requiring prompt diagnosis and treatment. Several conditions can cause similar symptoms, including spinal cord compression, spinal tuberculosis, peripheral neuropathy secondary to carcinomatosis, paraneoplastic myelopathy, and secondary spinal tumor deposit.

      Spinal cord compression is a common complication of metastatic cancer, especially from breast, bronchus, prostate, multiple myeloma, and high-grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The classic triad of symptoms includes bilateral leg weakness, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction, but back pain may be absent or delayed. Imaging studies, such as plain radiographs and MRI, are essential for diagnosis, and treatment options include steroids, neurosurgery, and radiotherapy.

      Spinal tuberculosis is a rare but serious infection that can affect the spine and cause bone or joint pain, back pain, or swelling. It usually requires a combination of antibiotics and surgery to cure.

      Peripheral neuropathy secondary to carcinomatosis is a gradual and often mild onset of nerve damage caused by cancer cells or cancer treatments. It can present with various sensory, motor, or autonomic symptoms, depending on the location and extent of nerve involvement.

      Paraneoplastic myelopathy is a rare but potentially severe neurological disorder that can occur in some cancer patients, especially those with small-cell or squamous cell lung cancer. It is caused by an abnormal immune response to cancer cells, leading to inflammation and damage to the spinal cord.

      Secondary spinal tumor deposit is a less common cause of spinal cord-related symptoms than spinal cord compression, but it can also occur in cancer patients with metastatic disease. It may present with similar symptoms and require similar diagnostic and therapeutic approaches.

      In summary, cancer patients with spinal cord-related symptoms should undergo a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying cause and appropriate management. Early recognition and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 28 - During your FY2 rotation in General Practice, you saw a 76-year-old man in...

    Incorrect

    • During your FY2 rotation in General Practice, you saw a 76-year-old man in your GP clinic who had been experiencing blurring of vision in his right eye for the past 5 months. He finally decided to seek medical attention because he felt his vision was becoming increasingly distorted. Upon examination, there were no signs of inflammation in either eye, and both corneas were clear with no fluorescein uptake. However, on dilated fundoscopy, you noticed yellowish deposits in the center of the macula in his right eye. What is the curative treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Dry age-related macular degeneration, characterized by yellowish drusen deposits, currently has no cure. However, high doses of beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc can be administered to slow down the progression of visual loss. On the other hand, wet AMD can be treated with intravitreal anti-VEGF injections, laser photocoagulation, and photodynamic therapy.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 29 - You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to an adult psychiatric ward.

      Upon asking him how he is feeling, his speech seems to be rapid and difficult to interrupt. It is challenging to follow his train of thought, although the content of each sentence appears to be loosely connected. He talks about having money, but says, I've got cash, dash for cash, dash of alcohol, thank you very much.

      It is suspected that he has a formal thought disorder.

      What is the best way to describe his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flight of ideas

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - John is a 35-year-old male who has been detained by the police under...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old male who has been detained by the police under a section of the Mental Health Act. He was seen running in and out of traffic in a public area, openly responding to unseen stimuli and avoiding social interaction.
      Regarding the section he has likely been placed under, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It lasts up to 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The police can utilize Section 136 to transport individuals who may be exhibiting indications of mental illness and pose a danger to themselves or others to a secure location. This section is only valid for a maximum of 24 hours, during which time a Mental Health Act Assessment can be scheduled. In rare cases, it may be extended by an additional 12 hours. It is only applicable to individuals in public areas, not in their own or someone else’s residence – Section 135 is required for this. It does not authorize involuntary treatment. A secure location can be a hospital, the individual’s home or a friend’s home, or, if no other option is available, a police station.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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