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Question 1
Correct
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A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.
Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.
Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.
Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.
Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was reported as normal: no evidence of metastases. His serum electrolytes were as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 114 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 82 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urinary sodium 54 mmol/l
Which of the subtype of bronchial carcinoma is he most likely to have been diagnosed with?Your Answer: Squamous cell
Correct Answer: Small cell
Explanation:Different Types of Lung Cancer and Their Association with Ectopic Hormones
Lung cancer is a complex disease that can be divided into different types based on their clinical and biological characteristics. The two main categories are non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) and small cell lung cancer (SCLC). SCLC is distinct from NSCLCs due to its origin from amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which have an endocrine lineage. This can lead to the production of various peptide hormones, causing paraneoplastic syndromes such as the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and Cushing syndrome.
Among NSCLCs, squamous cell carcinoma is commonly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone, leading to hypercalcemia. Large cell carcinoma and bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma are NSCLCs that do not produce ectopic hormones. Adenocarcinoma, another type of NSCLC, also does not produce ectopic hormones.
Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their association with ectopic hormones is crucial for proper management and treatment of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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A 63-year-old male smoker arrived in the Emergency Department by ambulance. He had become increasingly breathless at home, and despite receiving high-flow oxygen in the ambulance he is no better. He has a flapping tremor of his hands, a bounding pulse and palmar erythema.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:Understanding Hypercapnia: A Possible Cause of Breathlessness and Flapping Tremor in COPD Patients
Hypercapnia is a condition that can occur in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and respiratory failure. It is caused by the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to a relative loss of surface area for gas exchange within the lungs. This can lead to bronchospasm and inflammation, which can further exacerbate the problem. In some cases, patients with chronic hypoxia and hypercapnia may become dependent on hypoxia to drive respiration. If high concentrations of oxygen are given, this drive may be reduced or lost completely, leading to hypoventilation, reduced minute ventilation, accumulation of CO2, and subsequent respiratory acidosis (type 2 respiratory failure).
External signs of hypercapnia include reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, flapping tremor (asterixis), palmar erythema, and bounding pulses (due to CO2-induced vasodilation). While other conditions such as hepatic encephalopathy, Parkinson’s disease, delirium tremens, and hyperthyroidism can also cause tremors and other symptoms, they do not typically cause breathlessness or the specific type of tremor seen in hypercapnia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypercapnia in COPD patients, as prompt intervention can help prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and an unintentional 25 lb weight loss over the last 4 months. He reports a medical history significant for mild asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler as needed. He takes no other medications and has no allergies. He has a 55 pack-year smoking history and has worked as a naval shipyard worker for 40 years. Examination reveals diffuse crackles in the posterior lung fields bilaterally and there is dullness to percussion one-third of the way up the right lung field. Ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pleural space.
Which one of the following set of test values is most consistent with this patient’s presentation?
(LDH: lactate dehydrogenase)
Option LDH plasma LDH pleural Protein plasma Protein pleural
A 180 100 7 3
B 270 150 8 3
C 180 150 7 4
D 270 110 8 3
E 180 100 7 2Your Answer: Option A
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:Interpreting Light’s Criteria for Pleural Effusions
When evaluating a patient with a history of occupational exposure and respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pneumoconiosis, specifically asbestosis. Chronic exposure to asbestos can lead to primary bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma. Chest radiography may reveal radio-opaque pleural and diaphragmatic plaques. In this case, the patient’s dyspnea, hemoptysis, and weight loss suggest primary lung cancer, with a likely malignant pleural effusion observed under ultrasound.
To confirm the exudative nature of the pleural effusion, Light’s criteria can be used. These criteria include a pleural:serum protein ratio >0.5, a pleural:serum LDH ratio >0.6, and pleural LDH more than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH. Meeting any one of these criteria indicates an exudative effusion.
Option C is the correct answer as it satisfies Light’s criteria for an exudative pleural effusion. Options A, B, D, and E do not meet the criteria. Understanding Light’s criteria can aid in the diagnosis and management of pleural effusions, particularly in cases where malignancy is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
- WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
- Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
- Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
- K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
- Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
- Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
- AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
- GGT: 48 U/L (<50)
The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment
Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.
One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.
In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after he suddenly collapsed while playing soccer, complaining of pleuritic chest pain and difficulty in breathing. Upon examination, the patient appears pale and short of breath. His pulse rate is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 105/60 mmHg. Palpation reveals a deviated trachea to the right, without breath sounds over the left lower zone on auscultation. Percussion of the left lung field is hyper-resonant.
What would be the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?Your Answer: Oxygen and aspirate using a 16G cannula inserted into the second anterior intercostal space mid-clavicular line
Explanation:A pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura. It can be primary or secondary, with the latter being more common in patients over 50 years old, smokers, or those with underlying lung disease. Symptoms include sudden chest pain, breathlessness, and, in severe cases, pallor, tachycardia, and hypotension. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is more common in young adult smokers and often recurs. Secondary pneumothorax is associated with various lung diseases, including COPD and α-1-antitrypsin deficiency. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that can lead to respiratory or cardiovascular compromise. Diagnosis is usually made through chest X-ray, but if a tension pneumothorax is suspected, treatment should be initiated immediately. Management varies depending on the size and type of pneumothorax, with larger pneumothoraces requiring aspiration or chest drain insertion. The safest location for chest drain insertion is the fifth intercostal space mid-axillary line within the safe triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a sudden ‘pop’ followed by the onset of pain and shortness of breath.
Upon examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute. Diminished breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest during auscultation.
Diagnostic tests reveal a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa) and a PaCO2 of 3.3 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa). A chest X-ray shows a 60% right-sided pneumothorax.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: 32F chest drain insertion with a cut-down
Correct Answer: 14F chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire
Explanation:Safe and Effective Chest Drain Insertion Techniques for Pneumothorax Management
Pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural cavity, can cause significant respiratory distress and requires prompt management. Chest drain insertion is a common procedure used to treat pneumothorax, but the technique used depends on the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Here are some safe and effective chest drain insertion techniques for managing pneumothorax:
1. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire: This technique is appropriate for large spontaneous pneumothorax without trauma. It involves inserting a narrow-bore chest drain over a Seldinger wire, which is a minimally invasive technique that reduces the risk of complications.
2. Portex chest drain insertion: Portex chest drains are a safer alternative to surgical chest drains in traumatic cases. This technique involves inserting a less traumatic chest drain that is easier to manage and less likely to cause complications.
3. Avoid chest drain insertion using a trochar: Chest drain insertion using a trochar is a dangerous technique that can cause significant pressure damage to surrounding tissues. It should be avoided.
4. Avoid repeated air aspiration: Although needle aspiration is a management option for symptomatic pneumothorax, repeated air aspiration is not recommended. It can cause complications and is less effective than chest drain insertion.
In conclusion, chest drain insertion is an effective technique for managing pneumothorax, but the technique used should be appropriate for the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire and Portex chest drain insertion are safer alternatives to more invasive techniques. Chest drain insertion using a trochar and repeated air aspiration should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of wheezing, chest tightness, cough, and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports that this started shortly after being exposed to a significant amount of hydrogen sulfide at work. She has no prior history of respiratory issues and is a non-smoker. What would be the most suitable initial management approach to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Inhaled bronchodilators
Explanation:Management of Reactive Airway Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms within 24 hours of exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, pre-existing respiratory conditions must be absent, and symptoms must occur after a single exposure to high concentrations of irritants. A positive methacholine challenge test and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests are also indicative of RADS.
Inhaled bronchodilators, such as salbutamol, are the first-line treatment for RADS. Cromolyn sodium may be added in select cases, while inhaled corticosteroids are used if bronchodilators are ineffective. Oral steroids are not as effective in RADS as they are in asthma. High-dose vitamin D may be useful in some cases, but it is not routinely recommended for initial management.
In summary, the management of RADS involves the use of inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line treatment, with other medications added in if necessary. A proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Oxygen therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old male patient presented to the Emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that had been ongoing for six hours. The symptoms appeared out of nowhere while he was watching TV, and lying flat made the breathlessness worse. The patient denied any recent history of infection, cough, fever, leg pain, swelling, or travel.
Upon examination, the patient was apyrexial and showed no signs of cyanosis. Respiratory examination revealed reduced breath sounds and hyperresonance in the right lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of a Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax
Given the sudden onset of shortness of breath and reduced breath sounds from the right lung, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is a right-sided primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP). Primary pneumothoraces occur in patients without chronic lung disease, while secondary pneumothoraces occur in patients with existing lung disease. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, a D-dimer test should be performed. A positive D-dimer does not necessarily mean a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, but a negative result can rule it out. If the D-dimer is positive, imaging would be the next step in management.
A 12-lead ECG should also be performed to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes, although there is no clinical suspicion of acute coronary syndrome in this patient. Bornholm disease, a viral infection causing myalgia and severe pleuritic chest pain, is unlikely given the examination findings. An asthma attack would present similarly, but there is no history to suggest this condition in this patient.
In summary, a primary spontaneous pneumothorax is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. A D-dimer test should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolism, and a 12-lead ECG should be done to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes. Bornholm disease and asthma are unlikely diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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