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  • Question 1 - A 40 year old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing difficulty swallowing a food bolus. However, the patient successfully swallows the bolus while being evaluated by the triage nurse. During the examination, you observe an enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most appropriate test for evaluating thyroid function?

      Your Answer: TSH

      Explanation:

      The best single test to evaluate thyroid function is TSH. Goitres can be associated with either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, although hypothyroidism is more common. According to NICE guidelines, when there is suspicion of hypothyroidism, it is recommended to first check the TSH level. If the TSH level is above the normal range, then the free thyroxine (FT4) should be checked on the same sample. Similarly, in cases of suspected hyperthyroidism, it is advised to first check the TSH level. If the TSH level is below the normal range, then the free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) should be checked on the same sample.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting 150 paracetamol tablets in a impulsive suicide attempt. The patient is now worried about the potential liver failure and other possible injuries associated with paracetamol overdose. What other organs or systems are at risk of injury in cases of paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer: Cardiac myocytes

      Correct Answer: Renal tubule

      Explanation:

      When someone takes too much paracetamol, it can harm their liver cells and the tubules in their kidneys. This is because paracetamol produces a harmful substance called NAPQI, which is normally combined with glutathione. However, when there is too much NAPQI, it can cause damage and death to liver and kidney cells.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old man comes in after experiencing a seizure. His wife was present...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes in after experiencing a seizure. His wife was present during the episode and reported that his eyes rolled upwards before he became rigid. He felt extremely tired afterwards. Following that, he had shaking movements in all four limbs for approximately 3 minutes and lost control of his bladder. He has no other medical conditions and is generally healthy.
      What type of seizure did he have?

      Your Answer: Generalised, tonic-clonic

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history aligns with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The observer of the incident provided a detailed description, which is crucial in diagnosing epilepsy.

      Diagnosing epilepsy can sometimes rely solely on the patient’s history. It is common to ask the patient to maintain a seizure diary to identify patterns and potential triggers. Additionally, EEG tests, along with an MRI scan or CT scan of the brain, can provide further insight into the type and possible cause of the seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought into the emergency room by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the child may have signs of airway obstruction.
      Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burned patients is correct?

      Your Answer: An endotracheal tube of at least size 3.5 mm internal diameter should be used for intubation in children

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She forgot to take her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She forgot to take her last Microgynon 30 pill and it has been 48 hours since her last dose. She has been taking the rest of the pills in the packet consistently. She had unprotected sex last night and wants to know the best course of action.
      What is the MOST suitable advice to provide her?

      Your Answer: She should take the most recent missed pill, the remaining pills should be continued at the usual time and emergency contraception should be considered

      Correct Answer: She should take the most recent missed pill, the remaining pills should be continued at the usual time, but no emergency contraception is required

      Explanation:

      If you have missed one pill, which means it has been 48-72 hours since you took the last pill in your current packet or you started the first pill in a new packet 24-48 hours late, you need to take the missed pill as soon as you remember. Make sure to continue taking the remaining pills at your usual time. Emergency contraception is generally not necessary in this situation, but it may be worth considering if you have missed pills earlier in the packet or during the last week of the previous packet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are requested to evaluate an older adult patient who has been transported...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate an older adult patient who has been transported to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a fall overnight. What proportion of falls in the elderly population lead to significant lacerations, traumatic brain injuries, or fractures?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      According to NICE 2019, a significant number of falls in older individuals lead to severe injuries such as major lacerations, traumatic brain injuries, or fractures. Therefore, it is crucial for emergency department clinicians to approach patients over the age of 65 who come in with falls with a heightened level of suspicion.

      Further Reading:

      Falls are a common occurrence in the elderly population, with a significant number of individuals over the age of 65 experiencing at least one fall per year. These falls are often the result of various risk factors, including impaired balance, muscle weakness, visual impairment, cognitive impairment, depression, alcohol misuse, polypharmacy, and environmental hazards. The more risk factors a person has, the higher their risk of falling.

      Falls can have serious complications, particularly in older individuals. They are a leading cause of injury, injury-related disability, and death in this population. Approximately 50% of falls in the elderly result in major lacerations, traumatic brain injuries, or fractures. About 5% of falls in older people living in the community lead to hospitalization or fractures. Hip fractures, in particular, are commonly caused by falls and have a high mortality rate within one year.

      Complications of falls include fractures, soft tissue injuries, fragility fractures, distress, pain, loss of self-confidence, reduced quality of life, loss of independence, fear of falls and activity avoidance, social isolation, increasing frailty, functional decline, depression, and institutionalization. Additionally, individuals who remain on the floor for more than one hour after a fall are at risk of dehydration, pressure sores, pneumonia, hypothermia, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Assessing falls requires a comprehensive history, including the course of events leading up to the fall, any pre-fall symptoms, and details about the fall itself. A thorough examination is also necessary, including an assessment of injuries, neurological and cardiovascular function, tests for underlying causes, vision assessment, and medication review. Home hazard assessments and frailty assessments are also important components of the assessment process.

      Determining the frailty of older patients is crucial in deciding if they can be safely discharged and what level of care they require. The clinical Frailty Scale (CFS or Rockwood score) is commonly used for this purpose. It helps healthcare professionals evaluate the overall frailty of a patient and make appropriate care decisions.

      In summary, falls are a significant concern in the elderly population, with multiple risk factors contributing to their occurrence. These falls can lead to serious complications and have a negative impact on an individual’s quality of life. Assessing falls requires a comprehensive approach, including a thorough history, examination, and consideration of frailty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating large amounts. She also experiences extreme fatigue. The healthcare provider suspects diabetes mellitus and schedules an oral glucose tolerance test.
      What is the current WHO threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus using an oral glucose tolerance test?

      Your Answer: 11.1 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), the following criteria are used to diagnose diabetes mellitus:

      – A random venous plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l.
      – A fasting plasma glucose concentration that is higher than 7.0 mmol/l.
      – A two-hour plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l, measured two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
      – An HbA1c level that is greater than 48 mmol/mol (equivalent to 6.5%).

      These guidelines provide specific thresholds for diagnosing diabetes mellitus based on various glucose measurements and HbA1c levels. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these criteria when evaluating individuals for diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a two day history of sudden onset watery diarrhea accompanied by stomach cramps and feelings of nausea. Your consultant inquires if you intend to submit a stool sample for microbiological analysis. What would be a reason to send a stool sample for microbiological testing?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea lasts more than 5 days

      Correct Answer: Mucus present in stool

      Explanation:

      Stool samples are recommended for children with diarrhea who have recently traveled, show signs of mucus or blood in their stools, or have had diarrhea for more than a week. This patient’s symptoms align with gastroenteritis. While stool microbiological testing is not typically necessary, it should be conducted if any of the following conditions are present: recent travel, prolonged diarrhea, immunocompromised state, suspected septicemia, presence of blood and/or mucus in the stool, or uncertainty regarding the diagnosis.

      Further Reading:

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.

      Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.

      When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.

      In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.

      Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.

      Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency. A urine dipstick is performed, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Her only past medical history of note is benign bladder enlargement, for which she takes oxybutynin. You make a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of men with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to offer an immediate prescription of antibiotics. However, certain factors should be taken into account. This includes considering previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria.

      Before starting antibiotics, it is important to obtain a midstream urine sample from men and send it for culture and susceptibility testing. This will help determine the most appropriate choice of antibiotic.

      Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the initial choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.

      The first-choice antibiotics for men with lower UTI are trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 7 days, or nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 7 days if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.

      If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotics, or if the first-choice is not suitable, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses and follow the recommendations in the NICE guidelines on pyelonephritis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing or prostatitis (acute): antimicrobial prescribing. The choice of antibiotic should be based on recent culture and susceptibility results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      20.6
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been diagnosed with anaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been diagnosed with anaemia of chronic disease.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding anaemia of chronic disease is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total iron binding capacity is usually reduced

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that can occur in various chronic conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, tuberculosis, malignancy, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, chronic kidney disease, and chronic liver disease. The underlying mechanisms of this type of anaemia are complex and not fully understood, with multiple contributing factors involved. One important mediator in inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis is interleukin-6 (IL-6). Increased levels of IL-6 lead to the production of hepcidin, a hormone that regulates iron balance. Hepcidin prevents the release of iron from the reticulo-endothelial system and affects other aspects of iron metabolism.

      Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents as a normochromic, normocytic anaemia, although it can also be microcytic. It is characterized by reduced serum iron, reduced transferrin saturation, and reduced total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). However, the serum ferritin levels are usually normal or increased. Distinguishing anaemia of chronic disease from iron-deficiency anaemia can be challenging, but in iron-deficiency anaemia, the TIBC is typically elevated, and serum ferritin is usually low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the potential presence of an underlying organic factor contributing to this condition.

      Which ONE of the following could be a potential organic factor leading to depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is often linked to feelings of sadness and low mood, while hypocalcaemia does not typically have this association. Temporal arteritis is known to cause sudden episodes of psychosis, but it is not commonly associated with depression. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia does not have a connection to depression. Lastly, when someone experiences a deficiency in thiamine, they may exhibit symptoms of acute confusion, but depression is not typically one of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
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  • Question 12 - You evaluate a 9-year-old boy with a high temperature and a persistent, forceful...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 9-year-old boy with a high temperature and a persistent, forceful cough for the past two weeks. A nasopharyngeal swab has been collected and has tested positive for Bordetella pertussis. You initiate a course of antibiotics. The parents of the child would like to know the duration for which he should stay home from school after starting antibiotic treatment for this infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of about 7-21 days. This highly contagious disease can be passed on to around 90% of close household contacts.

      To prevent the spread of whooping cough, Public Health England advises that children with the illness should stay away from school, nursery, or childminders for 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment. If no antibiotic treatment is given, they should be kept away for 21 days from the onset of the illness. It’s important to note that even after treatment, non-infectious coughing may persist for several weeks.

      For more information on how to control infections in schools and other childcare settings, you can refer to the guidance provided by Public Health England.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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  • Question 13 - A child with a known adrenal insufficiency presents with vomiting, excessive sweating, and...

    Incorrect

    • A child with a known adrenal insufficiency presents with vomiting, excessive sweating, and abdominal discomfort. You suspect the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.
      What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with adrenal insufficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      The following provides a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders.

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.

      Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction), ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess), renal failure, or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).

      Lastly, metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be a result of conditions like diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal cramps and bloating. She informs you that she has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. Blood tests are conducted, but all results come back within normal ranges. The patient's vital signs are all normal, and she does not have a fever. She discloses that she has been experiencing recurrent abdominal pain and bloating for the past 6-9 months and has consulted her primary care physician about it. Based on the symptoms, you suspect constipation predominant irritable bowel syndrome and decide to prescribe a laxative. However, you need to be cautious about prescribing certain medications for patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following medications should be avoided in these patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactulose

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, a 35-year-old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal cramps and bloating. She mentions that she has not had a bowel movement for 2 days. After conducting blood tests, which all come back normal, and assessing her vital signs, which are also normal, it is suspected that she may have constipation predominant irritable bowel syndrome. This suspicion is based on her history of recurrent abdominal pain and bloating over the past 6-9 months, for which she has already consulted her primary care physician.

      To address the constipation symptoms, a laxative is considered as a potential treatment option. However, it is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications for patients with irritable bowel syndrome. One medication that should be avoided in these patients is lactulose.

      Further Reading:

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.

      Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.

      Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.

      Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates an acute myocardial infarction, and he is immediately taken to the catheterization laboratory. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anteroseptal

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore throat, fever, altered voice, and difficulty opening her mouth. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a peritonsillar abscess and decide to perform a needle aspiration. What is a well-known complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accidental puncture of internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery is situated approximately 2.5 cm behind and to the side of the tonsil. When performing an aspiration procedure for a peritonsillar abscess, there is a risk of puncturing this artery. In the UK, it is common for emergency department doctors to refer the task of draining a peritonsillar abscess to the on-call ENT team due to their lack of familiarity and experience with the procedure. However, the RCEM learning platform considers the management of uncomplicated peritonsillar abscess to be within the scope of emergency department practice, making it important for doctors to be knowledgeable about the procedure and its potential complications. It is worth noting that Lemierre’s syndrome, which is infective thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein, is a complication of deep neck infections and not directly related to the aspiration procedure.

      Further Reading:

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a collection of pus that forms between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles. It is often a complication of acute tonsillitis and is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The exact cause of a peritonsillar abscess is not fully understood, but it is believed to occur when infection spreads beyond the tonsillar capsule or when small salivary glands in the supratonsillar space become blocked.

      The most common causative organisms for a peritonsillar abscess include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobic organisms. Risk factors for developing a peritonsillar abscess include smoking, periodontal disease, male sex, and a previous episode of the condition.

      Clinical features of a peritonsillar abscess include severe throat pain, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), fever, headache, drooling of saliva, bad breath, painful swallowing, altered voice, ear pain on the same side, neck stiffness, and swelling of the soft palate. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation, but imaging scans such as CT or ultrasound may be used to assess for complications or determine the best site for drainage.

      Treatment for a peritonsillar abscess involves pain relief, intravenous antibiotics to cover for both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, intravenous fluids if swallowing is difficult, and drainage of the abscess either through needle aspiration or incision and drainage. Tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence. Complications of a peritonsillar abscess can include sepsis, spread to deeper neck tissues leading to necrotizing fasciitis or retropharyngeal abscess, airway compromise, recurrence of the abscess, aspiration pneumonia, erosion into major blood vessels, and complications related to the causative organism. All patients with a peritonsillar abscess should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you notice a small and easily visible bleeding spot in her right nostril.
      What is the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform nasal cautery

      Explanation:

      When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s airway and circulation.

      If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated. Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula and collect blood samples for tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting studies, and blood typing and crossmatching (depending on the amount of blood loss). These patients should be closely monitored in a majors area or a designated observation area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.

      First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
      1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there are signs of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the back of the throat.
      2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
      3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
      4. If the patient is unable to comply with pinching their own nose, an alternative technique is to ask a relative or staff member to apply external pressure using a device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
      5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones of the nose will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead has not been proven to affect nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may help reduce nasal blood flow.

      If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it may be beneficial to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and inflammation. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old patient is presenting with upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. Your...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is presenting with upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. Your decision is to reverse the anticoagulation process.
      What is the most appropriate option for reversing heparin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protamine sulphate

      Explanation:

      Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex renders heparin inactive, making protamine sulphate a useful tool for neutralizing the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.

      It is important to note that protamine sulphate also possesses its own weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This effect is believed to stem from its ability to inhibit the formation and activity of thromboplastin.

      When administering protamine sulphate, it is typically done through slow intravenous injection. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin that needs to be neutralized, the time that has passed since heparin administration, and the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). As a general guideline, 1 mg of protamine can neutralize 100 IU of heparin. However, it is crucial to adhere to a maximum adult dose of 50 mg within a 10-minute period.

      It is worth mentioning that protamine sulphate can have some adverse effects. It acts as a myocardial depressant, potentially leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure). These effects may arise due to complement activation and leukotriene release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 19 - A 58-year-old woman presents with abrupt intense chest discomfort that extends to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with abrupt intense chest discomfort that extends to her back. She is perspiring and experiencing nausea. During the examination, her blood pressure measures 176/96 in her right arm and 143/78 in her left arm. An early diastolic murmur is audible upon auscultation.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute aortic dissection is characterized by the rapid formation of a false, blood-filled channel within the middle layer of the aorta. It is estimated to occur in 3 out of every 100,000 individuals per year.

      Patients with aortic dissection typically experience intense chest pain that spreads to the area between the shoulder blades. The pain is often described as tearing or ripping and may also extend to the neck. Sweating, paleness, and rapid heartbeat are commonly observed at the time of presentation. Other possible symptoms include focal neurological deficits, weak pulses, fainting, and reduced blood flow to organs.

      A significant difference in blood pressure between the arms, greater than 20 mmHg, is a highly sensitive indicator. If the dissection extends backward, it can involve the aortic valve, leading to the early diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation.

      Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.

      Aortic dissection can be classified according to the Stanford classification system:
      – Type A affects the ascending aorta and the arch, accounting for 60% of cases. These cases are typically managed surgically and may result in the blockage of coronary arteries and aortic regurgitation.
      – Type B begins distal to the left subclavian artery and accounts for approximately 40% of cases. These cases are usually managed with medication to control blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old woman presents with vertigo. You gather a history and conduct an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with vertigo. You gather a history and conduct an examination to distinguish between a central and peripheral cause.
      What SINGLE characteristic would indicate a higher likelihood of a central cause rather than a peripheral cause for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nystagmus towards the side of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Peripheral and central vertigo can be differentiated based on certain characteristics. Peripheral vertigo typically has a sudden onset and is associated with more severe symptoms of vertigo. The vertigo symptoms may come and go intermittently. Individuals with peripheral vertigo often experience severe nausea and vomiting. Their vertigo is also affected by head movement, particularly in certain positions. Peripheral vertigo is usually not accompanied by any focal neurology. Nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement, tends to occur away from the side of the lesion. In some cases, hearing may also be impaired, as seen in conditions like Meniere’s disease and labyrinthitis.

      On the other hand, central vertigo tends to have a gradual onset and milder symptoms of vertigo. The vertigo symptoms are constant and do not fluctuate. Nausea and vomiting may be present but are usually less severe compared to peripheral vertigo. Unlike peripheral vertigo, central vertigo is not influenced by head movement and is considered fixed. Individuals with central vertigo may experience new-onset headaches. Additionally, central vertigo is often accompanied by focal neurology, indicating involvement of specific areas of the brain. Nystagmus in central vertigo occurs towards the side of the lesion. Unlike peripheral vertigo, hearing is typically unaffected in central vertigo cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 21 - You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He describes a sensation in which his train of thought is abruptly cut off completely. During the consultation, you observe that his speech is frequently interrupted by prolonged periods of silence, lasting for a minute or two.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thought blocking

      Explanation:

      Thought blocking is a distressing phenomenon where one’s train of thought is abruptly halted. This occurrence is observed in various psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia. It manifests as sudden pauses in a person’s speech, lasting from a few seconds to even a minute or more.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 3-year-old girl comes in with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl comes in with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother mentions that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice has been hoarse. Here are her observations: temperature 38.1°C, HR 135, RR 30, SaO2 97% on air. Her chest examination appears normal, but you notice the presence of stridor at rest.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised budesonide

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG, it is found that she has newly developed QT prolongation. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication and wonders if that could be the reason.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to cause QT interval prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.

      Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.

      The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.

      If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.

      A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.

      Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:

      Antimicrobials:
      – Erythromycin
      – Clarithromycin
      – Moxifloxacin
      – Fluconazole
      – Ketoconazole

      Antiarrhythmics:
      – Dronedarone
      – Sotalol
      – Quinidine
      – Amiodarone
      – Flecainide

      Antipsychotics:
      – Risperidone
      – Fluphenazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Pimozide
      – Chlorpromazine
      – Quetiapine
      – Clozapine

      Antidepressants:
      – Citalopram/escitalopram
      – Amitriptyline
      – Clomipramine
      – Dosulepin
      – Doxepin
      – Imipramine
      – Lofepramine

      Antiemetics:
      – Domperidone
      – Droperidol
      – Ondansetron/Granisetron

      Others:
      – Methadone
      – Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of her atrial fibrillation. She is currently on multiple other medications.
      Which ONE medication will counteract the effects of warfarin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers have the ability to hinder the effects of warfarin, leading to a decrease in INR levels. To remember the commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, the mnemonic PC BRASS can be utilized. Each letter in the mnemonic represents a specific inducer: P for Phenytoin, C for Carbamazepine, B for Barbiturates, R for Rifampicin, A for Alcohol (chronic ingestion), S for Sulphonylureas, and S for Smoking. These inducers can have an impact on the effectiveness of warfarin and should be taken into consideration when prescribing or using this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 25 - You evaluate a 62-year-old man with a painful swollen left big toe. The...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 62-year-old man with a painful swollen left big toe. The pain began this morning and is described as the most severe pain he has ever experienced. It has progressively worsened over the past 8 hours. He is unable to wear socks or shoes and had to come to the appointment in open-toe sandals. The skin over the affected area appears red and shiny.

      His only significant medical history is hypertension, which has been challenging to control. He is currently prescribed amlodipine 10 mg and ramipril 10 mg daily for this condition and is awaiting a medication review for his antihypertensive treatment. His blood pressure reading today is 165/94 mmHg.

      What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence colchicine

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this case is clearly gout. According to the guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR), the development of sudden joint pain accompanied by swelling, tenderness, and redness, which worsens over a period of 6-12 hours, strongly suggests crystal arthropathy.

      Checking serum urate levels to confirm high levels of uric acid before starting treatment for acute gout attacks has little benefit and should not delay treatment. While these levels can be useful for monitoring treatment response, they often decrease during an acute attack and can even be within the normal range. If levels are checked and found to be normal during the attack, they should be rechecked once the attack has resolved.

      The first-line treatment for acute gout attacks is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen. However, caution should be exercised when using NSAIDs in patients with a history of hypertension. Since this patient has had difficulty controlling their blood pressure and remains hypertensive, it would be wise to avoid NSAIDs in this case.

      Colchicine is an effective alternative for treating gout, although it may take longer to take effect. It is often used in patients who cannot take NSAIDs due to contraindications such as hypertension or a history of peptic ulcer disease. Therefore, it is the most suitable choice for this patient.

      During an acute gout attack, allopurinol should not be used as it can prolong the attack and even trigger another acute episode. However, if a patient is already taking allopurinol for chronic gout management, it should be continued, and the acute attack should be treated with NSAIDs or colchicine as appropriate.

      Febuxostat (Uloric) is an alternative to allopurinol for managing chronic gout. Like allopurinol, it should not be used for treating acute gout episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a brain tumor. Visual field testing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a brain tumor. Visual field testing shows that she has a left-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopias occur when there are lesions in the optic radiation. The optic tract passes through the posterolateral angle of the optic chiasm, running alongside the cerebral peduncle and inside the uncus of the temporal lobe. Eventually, it reaches the lateral geniculate body (LGN) in the thalamus. Acting as a relay center, the LGN sends axons through the optic radiation to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. The upper optic radiation carries fibers from the superior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the lower half of the visual field) and travels through the parietal lobe. On the other hand, the lower optic radiation carries fibers from the inferior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the upper half of the visual field) and travels through the temporal lobe. Consequently, lesions in the temporal lobe can lead to superior homonymous quadrantanopias, while lesions in the parietal lobe can cause inferior homonymous quadrantanopias. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects resulting from lesions at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her nursing home due to severe diarrhea for the past 3 days. You observe that over the past month the patient has undergone three rounds of antibiotics for recurrent cellulitis. You contemplate the likelihood of a Clostridium difficile infection. What proportion of antibiotic-associated diarrhea is attributed to Clostridium difficile infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20-30%

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.

      Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.

      Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.

      Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 28 - A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient experiences episodes of cognitive decline that last for a few days. During these episodes, the patient struggles to remember the names of friends or family members and often forgets what he is doing. The family member also mentions that the patient seems to have hallucinations, frequently asking about animals in the house and people in the garden who are not actually there. Upon examination, you observe muscle rigidity and a tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by several key features, including spontaneous fluctuations in cognitive abilities, visual hallucinations, and Parkinsonism. Visual hallucinations are particularly prevalent in DLB and Parkinson’s disease dementia, which are considered to be part of the same spectrum. While visual hallucinations can occur in other forms of dementia, they are less frequently observed.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after falling down the stairs. The patient typically receives assistance from carers four times a day for bathing, getting dressed, and using the restroom. The ambulance crew informs you that the patient has a poor appetite as they have advanced lung cancer and discontinued chemotherapy 3 months ago due to disease progression and deteriorating health. The ambulance crew also mentions that the patient's palliative care specialist recently estimated their life expectancy to be a matter of weeks during their last consultation. What would be the clinical frailty score for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      The clinical frailty score is a tool used to evaluate frailty and determine the level of safety for a patient’s discharge from the hospital. A higher CFS score indicates a greater likelihood of an extended hospital stay, increased need for support after discharge, and higher risk of mortality. In the case of this patient with terminal cancer and a life expectancy of less than 6 months, they would be classified as having the highest possible frailty score.

      Further Reading:

      Falls are a common occurrence in the elderly population, with a significant number of individuals over the age of 65 experiencing at least one fall per year. These falls are often the result of various risk factors, including impaired balance, muscle weakness, visual impairment, cognitive impairment, depression, alcohol misuse, polypharmacy, and environmental hazards. The more risk factors a person has, the higher their risk of falling.

      Falls can have serious complications, particularly in older individuals. They are a leading cause of injury, injury-related disability, and death in this population. Approximately 50% of falls in the elderly result in major lacerations, traumatic brain injuries, or fractures. About 5% of falls in older people living in the community lead to hospitalization or fractures. Hip fractures, in particular, are commonly caused by falls and have a high mortality rate within one year.

      Complications of falls include fractures, soft tissue injuries, fragility fractures, distress, pain, loss of self-confidence, reduced quality of life, loss of independence, fear of falls and activity avoidance, social isolation, increasing frailty, functional decline, depression, and institutionalization. Additionally, individuals who remain on the floor for more than one hour after a fall are at risk of dehydration, pressure sores, pneumonia, hypothermia, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Assessing falls requires a comprehensive history, including the course of events leading up to the fall, any pre-fall symptoms, and details about the fall itself. A thorough examination is also necessary, including an assessment of injuries, neurological and cardiovascular function, tests for underlying causes, vision assessment, and medication review. Home hazard assessments and frailty assessments are also important components of the assessment process.

      Determining the frailty of older patients is crucial in deciding if they can be safely discharged and what level of care they require. The clinical Frailty Scale (CFS or Rockwood score) is commonly used for this purpose. It helps healthcare professionals evaluate the overall frailty of a patient and make appropriate care decisions.

      In summary, falls are a significant concern in the elderly population, with multiple risk factors contributing to their occurrence. These falls can lead to serious complications and have a negative impact on an individual’s quality of life. Assessing falls requires a comprehensive approach, including a thorough history, examination, and consideration of frailty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.

      What is the SINGLE most probable UNDERLYING diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and typically manifests as a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. In some instances, there may be the presence of pus in the front part of the eye known as hypopyon.

      Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic (no known cause), trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can also be associated with anterior uveitis.

      A significant association has been observed between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the middle spine area and sacroiliitis. It is worth noting that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Elderly Care / Frailty (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed