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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Nicotine gum

      Explanation:

      Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
      - WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
      - Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
      - K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
      - AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
      - GGT: 48 U/L (<50)

      The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.

      One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.

      In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.

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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless at rest despite maximal inhaler therapy, pulmonary rehabilitation and home oxygen therapy. He has been reviewed for lung volume reduction surgery but was deemed unsuitable. He is referred for consideration of lung transplantation.
      His FEV1 is 30% predicted, he has not smoked for 12 years, and his past medical history includes bowel cancer, for which he underwent partial colectomy and adjunctive chemotherapy six years previously without evidence of recurrence on surveillance, and pulmonary tuberculosis age 37, which was fully sensitive and treated with six months of anti-tuberculous therapy. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2.
      What feature in this patient’s history would make him ineligible for listing for lung transplantation at this time?

      Your Answer: FEV1 30% predicted

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Lung Transplantation in a Patient with COPD

      Lung transplantation is a potential treatment option for patients with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, certain factors may make a patient ineligible for the procedure.

      One important factor is the patient’s forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) percentage predicted. The International Society for Heart and Lung Transplantation recommends a minimum FEV1 of less than 25% predicted for lung transplantation. In addition, patients must have a Body mass index, airflow Obstruction, Dyspnea and Exercise capacity (BODE) index of 5 to 6, a PaCO2 > 6.6 kPa and/or a PaO2 < 8 kPa. A previous history of pulmonary tuberculosis is also a contraindication to lung transplantation, as active infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis can complicate the procedure. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is another important consideration. A BMI greater than 35 kg/m2 is an absolute contraindication to transplant, while a BMI between 30 and 35 kg/m2 is a relative contraindication. Age is also a factor, with patients over 65 years old being considered a relative contraindication to lung transplantation. However, there is no absolute age limit for the procedure. Finally, a previous history of malignancy may also impact a patient’s eligibility for lung transplantation. If the malignancy has a low risk of recurrence, such as basal cell carcinoma, patients may be considered for transplant after two years. For most other cancers, a five-year period without recurrence is required. In this case, the patient’s previous malignancy occurred six years ago and would not be an absolute contraindication to transplantation.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of factor V Leiden mutation and has smoked 20 packs of cigarettes per year. Upon examination, the patient has a fever of 38.0 °C, blood pressure of 134/82 mmHg, heart rate of 101 bpm, respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute, and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. Both lungs are clear upon auscultation. Cardiac examination reveals a loud P2 and a new systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. The patient also has a swollen and red right lower extremity. An electrocardiogram (ECG) taken in the Emergency Department was normal, and troponins were within the normal range.
      Which of the following chest X-ray findings is consistent with the most likely underlying pathology in this patient?

      Your Answer: Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities

      Correct Answer: Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe

      Explanation:

      Radiological Findings and Their Significance in Diagnosing Medical Conditions

      Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe

      A wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe on a chest X-ray could indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage in a lung artery. This finding is particularly significant in patients with risk factors for clotting, such as a history of smoking or factor V Leiden mutation.

      Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities

      Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities on a chest X-ray could suggest acute respiratory distress syndrome or pneumonia. These conditions can cause inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray.

      Rib-notching

      Rib-notching is a radiological finding that can indicate coarctation of the aorta, a narrowing of the main artery that carries blood from the heart. Dilated vessels in the chest can obscure the ribs, leading to the appearance of notches on the X-ray.

      Cardiomegaly

      Cardiomegaly, or an enlarged heart, can be seen on a chest X-ray and may indicate heart failure. This condition occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body.

      Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on PA chest film and opacities along the left lateral thorax on left lateral decubitus film

      Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on a posterior-anterior chest X-ray and opacities along the left lateral thorax on a left lateral decubitus film can indicate pleural effusion. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse and leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray. The location of the opacities can shift depending on the patient’s position.

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      • Respiratory
      10.8
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
      Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients

      COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.

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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.

      What would be your recommendation at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation only

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.

      Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.

      Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.

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  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut an hour earlier. He has a non-productive cough and shortness of breath. On arrival in the Emergency Department, he is tachypnoeic and has an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. A chest X-ray demonstrates a complete whiteout of the right lung and the trachea is seen deviated to the right of the midline.
      Which of the following processes is most likely causing the findings seen on the chest X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Aspiration from Other Pulmonary Conditions

      When a patient presents with acute aspiration, it is important to differentiate it from other pulmonary conditions. The most likely process in acute aspiration is atelectasis due to bronchial obstruction. This occurs when the main stem bronchus is blocked, preventing gas from entering the affected lung and causing it to collapse. A chest X-ray will show complete whiteout of the hemithorax and ipsilateral tension on the mediastinum, leading to shifting of the trachea towards the affected lung.

      Pneumonia is less likely to develop so acutely and typically presents with productive cough and fever. Pneumothorax, on the other hand, would not cause a whiteout of the hemithorax and would instead show a line in the lung space with decreased lung markings peripherally. Pleural effusion could cause similar symptoms but would cause a contralateral mediastinal shift and is often associated with other systemic conditions. Pulmonary edema, which often occurs in the context of left heart failure, presents with cough and shortness of breath, but patients will have crackles on auscultation and are unlikely to have a mediastinal shift on chest X-ray.

      Therefore, understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating acute aspiration.

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  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with left-sided chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with left-sided chest pain and difficulty breathing that started during a football game.

      Which diagnostic test is most likely to provide a conclusive diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pneumothorax

      A pneumothorax is suspected based on the patient’s medical history. To confirm the diagnosis, a chest x-ray is the only definitive test available. An ECG is unlikely to show any abnormalities, while blood gas analysis may reveal a slightly elevated oxygen level and slightly decreased carbon dioxide level, even if the patient is not experiencing significant respiratory distress.

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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
      During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and chills lasting for 4 days. Upon examination, bronchial breathing is heard at the left lower lung base. Inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest X-ray shows consolidation in the left lower zone. What is the most frequently encountered pathogen linked to community-acquired pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a lung infection that can be categorized as either community-acquired or hospital-acquired, depending on the likely causative pathogens. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a type of Gram-positive coccus. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia typically affects older individuals, often after they have had the flu, and can result in cavitating lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause cavitating lung disease, which is characterized by caseating granulomatous inflammation. This type of pneumonia is more common in certain groups, such as Asians and immunocompromised individuals, and is diagnosed through sputum smears, cultures, or bronchoscopy. Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacteria that can cause meningitis and pneumonia, but it is much less common now due to routine vaccination. Finally, Neisseria meningitidis is typically associated with bacterial meningitis.

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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing, with an AMTS score of 9. During the examination, his respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute, and his blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. His blood test shows a urea level of 6 mmol/l. What is a predictive factor for increased mortality in this pneumonia patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >30 breaths/minute

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Indicators in Pneumonia: Understanding the CURB 65 Score

      The CURB 65 score is a widely used prognostic tool for patients with pneumonia. It consists of five indicators, including confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A respiratory rate of >30 breaths/minute and new-onset confusion with an AMTS score of <8 are two of the indicators that make up the CURB 65 score. However, in the case of a patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and an AMTS score of 9, these indicators still suggest a poor prognosis. A urea level of >7 mmol/l and a blood pressure of <90 mmHg systolic and/or 60 mmHg diastolic are also indicators of a poor prognosis. Finally, age >65 is another indicator that contributes to the CURB 65 score. Understanding these indicators can help healthcare professionals assess the severity of pneumonia and determine appropriate treatment plans.

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  • Question 12 - What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polygraphic sleep studies

      Explanation:

      Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition where breathing stops during sleep, causing frequent interruptions in sleep and restlessness. This leads to daytime drowsiness and irritability. Snoring is often associated with this condition. To diagnose sleep apnoea, a polygraphic recording of sleep is taken, which shows periods of at least 30 instances where breathing stops for 10 or more seconds in seven hours of sleep. These periods are also associated with a decrease in arterial oxygen saturation. the symptoms and diagnosis of sleep apnoea is important for proper treatment and management of the condition.

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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been inserted through the left fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line.
      As well as the intercostal muscles, which other muscle is likely to have been pierced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Chest Drains: Understanding the Anatomy

      The human body is a complex system of muscles, bones, and organs that work together to keep us alive and functioning. When it comes to chest drains, understanding the anatomy of the surrounding muscles is crucial for successful placement and management. Let’s take a closer look at some of the key muscles involved.

      Serratus Anterior
      The serratus anterior muscle is located on the lateral chest and plays a vital role in protracting the scapula and contributing to rotation. It is likely to be pierced with most chest drains due to its position, with its lower four segments attaching to the fifth to eighth ribs anterior to the mid-axillary line.

      Latissimus Dorsi
      The latissimus dorsi muscle is a back muscle involved in adduction, medial rotation, and extension of the shoulder. It is not pierced by a chest drain.

      External Oblique
      The external oblique muscle is located in the anterior abdomen and is not involved with a chest drain.

      Pectoralis Major
      The pectoralis major muscle is situated in the anterior chest and is not affected by a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. It flexes, extends, medially rotates, and adducts the shoulder.

      Pectoralis Minor
      The pectoralis minor muscle lies inferior to the pectoralis major on the anterior chest. It is a small muscle and is not usually pierced with a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the muscles surrounding the chest is essential for successful chest drain placement and management. Knowing which muscles are likely to be pierced and which are not can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. She had no history of occupational exposure to asbestos. Her husband worked in a shipyard 35 years ago, but he had no lung issues. She has never been a smoker. Upon thorax examination, there was reduced movement on the right side, with absent breath sounds and intercostal fullness.
      What is the probable reason for the radiological finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Pleural Pathologies: Mesothelioma and Differential Diagnoses

      Workers who are exposed to asbestos are at a higher risk of developing lung pathologies such as asbestosis and mesothelioma. Indirect exposure can also occur when family members come into contact with asbestos-covered clothing. This condition affects both the lungs and pleural space, with short, fine asbestos fibers transported by the lymphatics to the pleural space, causing irritation and leading to plaques and fibrosis. Pleural fibrosis can also result in rounded atelectasis, which can mimic a lung mass on radiological imaging.

      Mesothelioma, the most common type being epithelial, typically occurs 20-40 years after asbestos exposure and is characterized by exudative and hemorrhagic pleural effusion with high levels of hyaluronic acid. Treatment options are generally unsatisfactory, with local radiation and chemotherapy being used with variable results. Tuberculosis may also present with pleural effusion, but other systemic features such as weight loss, night sweats, and cough are expected. Lung collapse would show signs of mediastinal shift and intercostal fullness would not be typical. Pneumonectomy is not mentioned in the patient’s past, and massive consolidation may show air bronchogram on X-ray and bronchial breath sounds.

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  • Question 15 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.

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  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports no cough or sputum production. Upon auscultation, his chest is clear. His pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 110 bpm, while his oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. He is breathing at a rate of 26 breaths per minute. What diagnostic investigation is most likely to be effective in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism in Cancer Patients

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are common in cancer patients due to their hypercoagulable state. When a cancer patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, chest pain, and desaturation, PE should be suspected. The gold standard investigation for PE is a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA), which has a high diagnostic yield.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) can also be helpful in diagnosing PE, as sinus tachycardia is the most common finding. However, in this case, the patient’s irregularly irregular pulse is likely due to atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate, which should be treated alongside investigation of the suspected PE.

      A D-dimer test may not be helpful in diagnosing PE in cancer patients, as it has low specificity and may be raised due to the underlying cancer. An arterial blood gas (ABG) should be carried out to help treat the patient, but the cause of hypoxia will still need to be determined.

      Bronchoscopy would not be useful in diagnosing PE and should not be performed in this case.

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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean man comes to the clinic complaining of fever, dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean man comes to the clinic complaining of fever, dry cough and joint pains. Upon examination, his chest is clear. He has several tender, warm, erythematous nodules on both shins. A chest X-ray reveals prominent hila bilaterally. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms that are typical of acute sarcoidosis, including erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and arthralgia. The patient’s ethnic background, being Afro-Caribbean, is also a factor as sarcoidosis is more prevalent in this population. It is important to take a thorough medical history as sarcoidosis can mimic other diseases. Mycoplasma pneumonia presents with flu-like symptoms followed by a dry cough and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia causes breathlessness, fever, and perihilar shadowing on chest X-ray and is associated with severe immunodeficiency. Pulmonary TB causes cough, fever, weight loss, and erythema nodosum, with typical chest X-ray findings including apical shadowing or cavity, or multiple nodules. Pulmonary fibrosis presents with shortness of breath, a non-productive cough, and bilateral inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. However, the X-ray findings in this patient are not consistent with pulmonary fibrosis as reticulonodular shadowing would be expected.

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  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with complaints of chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath, which is predominantly worse on the right side. He has been experiencing these symptoms for about 24 hours, but they have worsened since he woke up this morning. The patient reports that the pain is worse on inspiration and that he has never experienced chest pain before. He is mostly bedridden due to obesity but has no history of respiratory issues. The patient is currently receiving treatment for newly diagnosed prostate cancer. There is a high suspicion that he may have a pulmonary embolus (PE). His vital signs are as follows:
      Temperature 36.5 °C
      Blood pressure 136/82 mmHg
      Heart rate 124 bpm
      Saturations 94% on room air
      His 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and nothing else.
      What would be the most appropriate initial step in managing this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where there is a high clinical suspicion of a PE, treatment with treatment-dose direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban or apixaban or low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) should be administered before diagnostic confirmation of a PE on computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography (CTPA). Thrombolysis with alteplase may be necessary in certain cases where there is a massive PE with signs of haemodynamic instability or right heart strain on ECG. Intravenous (IV) unfractionated heparin is not beneficial in treating a PE. While a chest X-ray may be useful in the workup for pleuritic chest pain, the priority in suspected PE cases should be administering treatment-dose DOAC or LMWH.

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  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 88–92%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD

      Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.

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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss, and two episodes of hemoptysis in the past week. He has a history of smoking 40 pack years. Upon examination, there is stony dullness at the right base with absent breath sounds and decreased vocal resonance.

      Which of the following statements about mesothelioma is most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may have a lag period of up to 45 years between exposure and diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura, and while it can be caused by factors other than asbestos exposure, the majority of cases are linked to this cause. Asbestos was commonly used in various industries until the late 1970s/early 1980s, and the lag period between exposure and diagnosis can be up to 45 years. This means that the predicted peak of incidence of mesothelioma in the UK is around 2015-2020.

      Contrary to popular belief, smoking does not cause mesothelioma. However, smoking and asbestos exposure can act as synergistic risk factors for bronchial carcinoma. Unfortunately, there is no known cure for mesothelioma, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 5%. Treatment is supportive and palliative, with an emphasis on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.

      Diagnosis is usually made through CT imaging, with or without thoracoscopic-guided biopsy. Open lung biopsy is only considered if other biopsy methods are not feasible. Mesothelioma typically presents with a malignant pleural effusion, which can be difficult to distinguish from a pleural tumor on a plain chest X-ray. The effusion will be an exudate.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for early detection and management of this devastating disease.

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  • Question 21 - An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The following results are from his arterial blood gas (ABG):
      pH 7.37 (normal range 7.35–7.45)
      pa(O2) 7.6 (normal range 10–14 kPa)
      pa(CO2) 8 (normal range 4.0–6.0 kPa)
      HCO3 37 (normal range 22–26 mmol)
      base excess +6 (normal range −2 to +2 mmol).
      Which of the following best describe this man’s blood gas result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABGs: A Five-Step Approach and Mnemonic

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is a crucial tool in assessing a patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to interpreting ABGs:

      1. Assess the patient.
      2. Assess their oxygenation (pa(O2) should be >10 kPa).
      3. Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH < 7.35) or alkalotic (pH > 7.45).
      4. Assess respiratory status by determining if their pa(CO2) is high or low.
      5. Assess metabolic status by determining if their bicarbonate (HCO3) is high or low.

      To aid in understanding ABGs, the mnemonic ROME can be used:

      – Respiratory = Opposite: A low pH and high pa(CO2) indicate respiratory acidosis, while a high pH and low pa(CO2) indicate respiratory alkalosis.
      – Metabolic = Equivalent: A high pH and high HCO3 indicate metabolic alkalosis, while a low pH and low HCO3 indicate metabolic acidosis.

      Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a normal pH, high pa(CO2), and high HCO3, indicating renal compensation. In contrast, compensation for respiratory alkalosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease would show a low pa(CO2) and a high pH.

      Partial compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a high pa(CO2) and a high HCO3, with a normal pH indicating full compensation and a mildly altered pH indicating partial compensation. Compensation for metabolic acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is not applicable, as this condition would present with low HCO3 levels.

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  • Question 22 - After a tennis match, a thin 25-year-old woman complains of left-sided chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • After a tennis match, a thin 25-year-old woman complains of left-sided chest pain that radiates into her abdomen. The physical examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base of the lung with hyper-resonant percussion sounds at the left side of the chest. The abdominal examination shows generalised tenderness. A few minutes later she develops cyanosis.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Tension Pneumothorax from Other Conditions: Clinical Features and Management

      Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when the pressure in the pleural space exceeds atmospheric pressure during both inspiration and expiration. This can lead to impaired venous return, reduced cardiac output, and hypoxemia. The development of tension pneumothorax is not dependent on the size of the pneumothorax, and clinical presentation can be sudden and severe, with rapid, labored respiration, cyanosis, sweating, and tachycardia.

      It is important to differentiate tension pneumothorax from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Acute pancreatitis, ectopic pregnancy, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism can all cause abdominal pain and other non-specific symptoms, but they do not typically present with decreased air entry and hyper-resonant percussion note, which are indicative of pneumothorax.

      Prompt management of tension pneumothorax is crucial and involves inserting a cannula into the pleural space to remove air until the patient is no longer compromised, followed by insertion of an intercostal tube. Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines recommend using a cannula of at least 4.5 cm in length for needle thoracocentesis in patients with tension pneumothorax. The cannula should be left in place until bubbling is confirmed in the underwater-seal system to ensure proper function of the intercostal tube.

      In summary, recognizing the clinical features of tension pneumothorax and differentiating it from other conditions is essential for prompt and effective management.

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  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath and dry cough over the past three months. He gets breathless after walking a few hundred metres. He is a non-smoker and takes medication for type II diabetes mellitus. During examination, his pulse is 80/minute and regular, blood pressure (BP) 130/70 mmHg, bilateral clubbing of digits, oxygen saturation (SpO2) in room air is 90%. Auscultation reveals bilateral, fine, late inspiratory crackles, more marked in the mid-zones and at the lung bases. Chest X-ray reveals patchy shadowing at the lung bases. What is the definitive investigation to guide his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest

      Explanation:

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is the most reliable test for diagnosing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). The radiological pattern seen in IPF is called usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP), which is characterized by honeycombing, reticular opacities, and lung architectural distortion. In advanced cases, there may be lobar volume loss, particularly in the lower lobes.

      Antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) tests are not useful for diagnosing IPF, as they are typically normal or only mildly elevated in this condition. These tests may be helpful in diagnosing interstitial lung disease associated with rheumatologic conditions, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid arthritis.

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis can be performed in patients with IPF who are experiencing respiratory distress. This test typically shows type I respiratory failure with low oxygen levels and normal or decreased carbon dioxide levels. However, ABG analysis is not the definitive test for diagnosing IPF.

      Bronchoalveolar lavage may be considered if HRCT chest cannot detect the UIP pattern, but it is not typically necessary for diagnosing IPF.

      Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) can help differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In IPF, PFTs typically show a restrictive pattern, with decreased forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC), and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. While PFTs are a useful initial test for evaluating lung function in patients with suspected IPF, they are not definitive for establishing a diagnosis.

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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
      Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus

      Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.

      A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.

      A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.

      A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.

      An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a sudden ‘pop’ followed by the onset of pain and shortness of breath.
      Upon examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute. Diminished breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest during auscultation.
      Diagnostic tests reveal a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa) and a PaCO2 of 3.3 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa). A chest X-ray shows a 60% right-sided pneumothorax.
      What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14F chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Chest Drain Insertion Techniques for Pneumothorax Management

      Pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural cavity, can cause significant respiratory distress and requires prompt management. Chest drain insertion is a common procedure used to treat pneumothorax, but the technique used depends on the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Here are some safe and effective chest drain insertion techniques for managing pneumothorax:

      1. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire: This technique is appropriate for large spontaneous pneumothorax without trauma. It involves inserting a narrow-bore chest drain over a Seldinger wire, which is a minimally invasive technique that reduces the risk of complications.

      2. Portex chest drain insertion: Portex chest drains are a safer alternative to surgical chest drains in traumatic cases. This technique involves inserting a less traumatic chest drain that is easier to manage and less likely to cause complications.

      3. Avoid chest drain insertion using a trochar: Chest drain insertion using a trochar is a dangerous technique that can cause significant pressure damage to surrounding tissues. It should be avoided.

      4. Avoid repeated air aspiration: Although needle aspiration is a management option for symptomatic pneumothorax, repeated air aspiration is not recommended. It can cause complications and is less effective than chest drain insertion.

      In conclusion, chest drain insertion is an effective technique for managing pneumothorax, but the technique used should be appropriate for the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire and Portex chest drain insertion are safer alternatives to more invasive techniques. Chest drain insertion using a trochar and repeated air aspiration should be avoided.

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  • Question 26 - A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest X-ray, there are several rounded lesions with alveolar shadowing. Her serum test shows a positive result for cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Pulmonary Granulomas and Positive c-ANCA: A Case Study

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a rare autoimmune disease that often presents with granulomatous lung disease and alveolar capillaritis. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. Chest X-ray and computed tomography can show rounded lesions that may cavitate, while bronchoscopy can reveal granulomatous inflammation. In this case study, the chest radiograph appearances, epistaxis, and positive c-ANCA are more indicative of GPA than lung cancer, echinococcosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, or tuberculosis. While SLE can also cause pulmonary manifestations, cavitating lesions are not typical. Positive c-ANCA is associated with GPA, while SLE is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies, double-stranded DNA antibodies, and extractable nuclear antigens.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
      What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.

      SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.

      Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.

      Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.

      Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.

      Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.

      In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.

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  • Question 28 - A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity

      A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:

      1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.

      2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.

      3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.

      4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.

      5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.

      In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.

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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the Respiratory Ward with shortness of breath, cough and wheeze. On examination, she appears unwell and short of breath, and there is an audible wheeze. Her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, pulse rate 92 bpm and oxygen saturations 90% on room air. She reports that she is able to leave the house but that she has to stop for breath after walking approximately 100 m. What grade on the MODIFIED MRC dyspnoea scale would this patient be recorded as having?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Managing COPD: Non-Pharmacological, Pharmacological, and Surgical Approaches

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive condition that affects the airways and is often caused by smoking. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. While there is no cure for COPD, there are various management strategies that can help improve symptoms and quality of life.

      Non-pharmacological approaches include quitting smoking, losing weight if necessary, and participating in physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation to improve lung function and exercise capacity. Pharmacological treatment includes the use of bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, as well as oral prednisolone and antibiotics during exacerbations. Diuretics may also be necessary for patients with cor pulmonale and edema. Long-term oxygen therapy can help manage persistent hypoxia.

      Surgical options for COPD include heart and lung transplantation. The modified MRC dyspnoea scale can be used to assess the degree of breathlessness and guide treatment decisions. The BODE index, which includes the mMRC dyspnoea scale, is a composite marker of disease severity that takes into account the systemic nature of COPD.

      Overall, managing COPD requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and systemic aspects of the disease. With proper management, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.

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  • Question 30 - A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following an assault. On examination, there are two puncture wounds on the posterior chest wall. The ambulance crew believe the patient was attacked with a screwdriver. He is currently extremely short of breath, haemodynamically unstable, and his oxygen saturations are falling despite high-flow oxygen. There are reduced breath sounds in the right hemithorax.
      What is the most appropriate first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle decompression of right hemithorax

      Explanation:

      Management of Tension Pneumothorax in Penetrating Chest Trauma

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention in patients with penetrating chest trauma. The following steps should be taken:

      1. Clinical Diagnosis: Falling oxygen saturations, cardiovascular compromise, and reduced breath sounds in the affected hemithorax are suggestive of tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis.

      2. Needle Decompression: Immediate needle decompression with a large bore cannula placed into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line is required. This is a temporizing measure to provide time for placement of a chest drain.

      3. Urgent Chest Radiograph: A chest radiograph may be readily available, but it should not delay decompression of the tension pneumothorax. It should be delayed until placement of the chest drain.

      4. Placement of Chest Drain: This is the definitive treatment of a tension pneumothorax, but immediate needle decompression should take place first.

      5. Contact On-Call Anaesthetist: Invasive ventilation by an anaesthetist will not improve the patient’s condition.

      6. Avoid Non-Invasive Ventilation: Non-invasive ventilation would worsen the tension pneumothorax and should be avoided.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of tension pneumothorax are crucial in patients with penetrating chest trauma. Needle decompression followed by chest drain placement is the definitive treatment.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (2/4) 50%
Passmed