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  • Question 1 - After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John,...

    Correct

    • After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John, a 25-year-old male, visits the clinic to have it removed. During the examination, it is observed that his left foot is in a plantar flexed position, indicating foot drop. Which nerve is typically impacted, resulting in foot drop?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Footdrop, which is impaired dorsiflexion of the ankle, can be caused by a lesion of the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves after wrapping around the neck of the fibula. The deep peroneal nerve is responsible for innervating muscles that control dorsiflexion of the foot, such as the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus. Damage to the common or deep peroneal nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles, leading to unopposed plantar flexion of the foot. The superficial peroneal nerve, on the other hand, innervates muscles that evert the foot. Other nerves that innervate muscles in the lower limb include the femoral nerve, which controls hip flexion and knee extension, the tibial nerve, which mainly controls plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, and the obturator nerve, which mainly controls thigh adduction.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - How many valves are present between the right atrium and the superior vena...

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    • How many valves are present between the right atrium and the superior vena cava (SVC)?

      Your Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Inserting a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium is relatively easy due to the absence of valves.

      The Superior Vena Cava: Anatomy, Relations, and Developmental Variations

      The superior vena cava (SVC) is a large vein that drains blood from the head and neck, upper limbs, thorax, and part of the abdominal walls. It is formed by the union of the subclavian and internal jugular veins, which then join to form the right and left brachiocephalic veins. The SVC is located in the anterior margins of the right lung and pleura, and is related to the trachea and right vagus nerve posteromedially, and the posterior aspects of the right lung and pleura posterolaterally. The pulmonary hilum is located posteriorly, while the right phrenic nerve and pleura are located laterally on the right side, and the brachiocephalic artery and ascending aorta are located laterally on the left side.

      Developmental variations of the SVC are recognized, including anomalies of its connection and interruption of the inferior vena cava (IVC) in its abdominal course. In some individuals, a persistent left-sided SVC may drain into the right atrium via an enlarged orifice of the coronary sinus, while in rare cases, the left-sided vena cava may connect directly with the superior aspect of the left atrium, usually associated with an unroofing of the coronary sinus. Interruption of the IVC may occur in patients with left-sided atrial isomerism, with drainage achieved via the azygos venous system.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy, relations, and developmental variations of the SVC is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The arrangement of amphipathic phospholipids in the mammalian cell membrane, what is it...

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    • The arrangement of amphipathic phospholipids in the mammalian cell membrane, what is it like?

      Your Answer: A lipid bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing out and hydrophobic tails facing in

      Explanation:

      The Function and Structure of the Mammalian Cell Membrane

      The mammalian cell membrane serves as a protective barrier that separates the cytoplasm from the extracellular environment. It also acts as a filter for molecules that move across it. Unlike plant and prokaryotic cells, mammalian cells do not have a cell wall. The main component of the cell membrane is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids, which have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The phospholipids in the bilayer are oriented with their hydrophilic heads facing outward and their hydrophobic tails facing inward. This arrangement allows for the separation of the watery extracellular environment from the watery intracellular compartment.

      It is important to note that the cell membrane is not a monolayer and the phospholipids are not linked head-to-tail. This is in contrast to DNA, which has a helical chain formation. Overall, the structure and function of the mammalian cell membrane are crucial for maintaining the integrity and proper functioning of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old woman is having surgery for Conns syndrome and experiences bleeding due...

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    • A 58-year-old woman is having surgery for Conns syndrome and experiences bleeding due to damage to the middle adrenal artery. Where does this vessel originate from?

      Your Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The aorta usually gives rise to the middle adrenal artery, while the renal vessels typically give rise to the lower adrenal artery.

      Adrenal Gland Anatomy

      The adrenal glands are located superomedially to the upper pole of each kidney. The right adrenal gland is posteriorly related to the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the kidney, medially related to the vena cava, and anteriorly related to the hepato-renal pouch and bare area of the liver. On the other hand, the left adrenal gland is postero-medially related to the crus of the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the pancreas and splenic vessels, and anteriorly related to the lesser sac and stomach.

      The arterial supply of the adrenal glands is through the superior adrenal arteries from the inferior phrenic artery, middle adrenal arteries from the aorta, and inferior adrenal arteries from the renal arteries. The right adrenal gland drains via one central vein directly into the inferior vena cava, while the left adrenal gland drains via one central vein into the left renal vein.

      In summary, the adrenal glands are small but important endocrine glands located above the kidneys. They have a unique blood supply and drainage system, and their location and relationships with other organs in the body are crucial for their proper functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman who migrated from Papua New Guinea with her parents during...

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    • A 27-year-old woman who migrated from Papua New Guinea with her parents during her childhood is seeking preconception counseling. She is concerned about the possibility of her future child having sickle cell disease since both her parents are known to be carriers of the sickle cell trait. As a child, she witnessed sickle cell disease in others, which has heightened her anxiety. Her partner is also a carrier of the sickle cell trait. Sickle cell disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.

      What is the likelihood that the woman is a carrier of the sickle cell trait?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and are generally more life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of genetic disorders to provide appropriate genetic counseling and medical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following laryngeal tumors is unlikely to spread to the cervical...

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    • Which of the following laryngeal tumors is unlikely to spread to the cervical lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Glottic

      Explanation:

      The area of the vocal cords lacks lymphatic drainage, making it a lymphatic boundary. The upper portion above the vocal cords drains to the deep cervical nodes through vessels that penetrate the thyrohyoid membrane. The lower portion below the vocal cords drains to the pre-laryngeal, pre-tracheal, and inferior deep cervical nodes. The aryepiglottic and vestibular folds have a significant lymphatic drainage and are prone to early metastasis.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The upper and lower limit of normal, of a cognitive test in the...

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    • The upper and lower limit of normal, of a cognitive test in the research study, is two standard deviations of the population. What percentage of the population is encompassed by two standard deviations?

      Your Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      Normal Distribution and Standard Deviation

      Normal distribution is a statistical concept that assumes that data is distributed in a bell-shaped curve. This means that most of the data falls within a certain range, with fewer data points at the extremes. Standard deviation is a measure of how spread out the data is from the mean. If we assume that there is a normal distribution of a test in the population, we can use standard deviation to understand how much of the population falls within certain ranges.

      For example, one standard deviation from the mean includes 68% of the population. This means that if we were to plot the test scores on a graph, 68% of the scores would fall within one standard deviation of the mean. Two standard deviations from the mean include approximately 95% of the population. This means that if we were to plot the test scores on a graph, 95% of the scores would fall within two standard deviations of the mean. Finally, three standard deviations from the mean include 99.7% of the population. This means that if we were to plot the test scores on a graph, 99.7% of the scores would fall within three standard deviations of the mean.

      normal distribution and standard deviation is important in many fields, including finance, science, and social sciences. By knowing how much of the population falls within certain ranges, we can make more informed decisions and draw more accurate conclusions from our data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue, dark urine, and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue, dark urine, and pale stools after returning from a trip to Turkey. During the examination, the patient is found to be jaundiced. What is the expected incubation period of the virus that could be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: 2-4 weeks

      Explanation:

      The typical incubation period for hepatitis A is between 2 and 4 weeks. Symptoms may include fatigue, fever, nausea, loss of appetite, jaundice, dark urine, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort. A period of 4-6 weeks would be longer than expected, while 3-5 days would be shorter. A period of 2-4 months is more commonly associated with chronic hepatitis.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 69 year old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a...

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    • A 69 year old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected digoxin overdose. The individual has a medical history of hypertension, hyperthyroidism, atrial fibrillation, and eczema. The ECG reveals sinus bradycardia. The medical team administers IV digibind and implements measures to safeguard the heart against any electrolyte imbalances.

      What is the correct application of digoxin in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Digoxin overdose can cause hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia can be caused by an overdose of digoxin.

      Digoxin is known to inhibit the Na+/K+ ATPase, which is responsible for transporting sodium ions out of cells and promoting potassium influx. This inhibition leads to an accumulation of sodium inside the cell, which is then exchanged for calcium via the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger. In the heart, this increased intracellular calcium results in more calcium being released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C and increasing contractility (inotropy).

      However, an overdose of digoxin can cause widespread inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase, leading to reduced potassium influx into cells and resulting in hyperkalaemia. This is a common occurrence in cases of acute digoxin toxicity.

      In addition, digoxin has been found to increase vagal efferent activity to the heart, which has a parasympathomimetic effect and reduces the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, resulting in a decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropy).

      It is important to note that digoxin has a long half-life of 40 hours.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after being found unconscious by a friend. Shortly after arriving at the hospital, he becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and stops breathing. The medical team suspects shock and examines him. What could be a potential cause of obstructive shock resulting from interference in ventricular filling?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Shock can be caused by various factors, but only tension pneumothorax affects ventricular filling. Distributive shock, such as anaphylactic shock, hypovolaemic shock caused by chemical burns, and cardiogenic shock resulting from myocardial infarction are other examples. Obstructive shock caused by pulmonary embolism interferes with ventricular emptying, not filling.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for an open carpal tunnel decompression. As part...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for an open carpal tunnel decompression. As part of the consent process, the surgeon discusses the potential risks of the procedure, including the possibility of damaging important structures.

      What is accurate regarding the risks linked to open carpal tunnel decompression?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve is at a risk of damage during open carpal tunnel decompression

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve is at risk of damage during open carpal tunnel decompression, making the second answer incorrect. The extensor digitorum tendon is not encountered during a carpal tunnel release as it is found dorsal to the radius and ulna. There is no known association between carpal tunnel decompression and the risk of rheumatoid arthritis or osteoporosis.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What grade of evidence does a randomized controlled trial provide, as per the...

    Correct

    • What grade of evidence does a randomized controlled trial provide, as per the guidance of the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM)?

      Your Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old woman has recently returned from a trip to south-east Asia. She...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has recently returned from a trip to south-east Asia. She is experiencing a swinging fever and shows signs of jaundice. Additionally, she has been complaining of headaches and has started to lose consciousness and experience convulsions. Given the symptoms, it is suspected that there may be cerebral involvement.

      Upon examination of a blood film, it is found that a significant number of red blood cells (RBCs) contain inclusion bodies that resemble 'signet rings'. Approximately 20% of the RBCs have multiple inclusion bodies.

      What is the most likely organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of cerebral malaria is Plasmodium falciparum, also known as ‘malignant’ malaria. This parasitic disease is important to recognize, especially in individuals who have recently traveled to high-risk areas. Other plasmodium species, such as Plasmodium knowlesi, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium ovale, are not typically associated with cerebral malaria.

      Understanding Malaria: Causes, Types, and Protective Factors

      Malaria is a disease caused by Plasmodium protozoa, which is transmitted through the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito. There are four different species of Plasmodium that can cause malaria in humans, with Plasmodium falciparum being the most severe. The other three types, including Plasmodium vivax, cause a milder form of the disease known as benign malaria.

      Several protective factors against malaria have been identified, including sickle-cell trait, G6PD deficiency, HLA-B53, and the absence of Duffy antigens. These factors can help reduce the risk of contracting the disease.

      To better understand the life cycle of the malaria parasite, an illustration is provided by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID). By understanding the causes, types, and protective factors of malaria, we can work towards preventing and treating this deadly disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea that have persisted for 8 months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming meals, particularly those high in carbohydrates. During the examination, the gastroenterologist observes no significant abdominal findings but notices rashes on her elbows and knees. As part of her diagnostic workup, the gastroenterologist is contemplating endoscopy and small bowel biopsy. What is the probable biopsy result?

      Your Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease can be diagnosed through a biopsy that shows villous atrophy, raised intra-epithelial lymphocytes, and crypt hyperplasia. This condition is likely the cause of the patient’s chronic symptoms, which are triggered by meals containing gluten. Fortunately, adhering to a strict gluten-free diet can reverse the villous atrophy. In some cases, coeliac disease may also present with a vesicular rash called dermatitis herpetiformis. Other pathological findings, such as mucosal defects, irregular gland-like structures, or transmural inflammation with granulomas and lymphoid aggregates, suggest different diseases.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old male has been experiencing recurrent chest infections that are becoming more...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male has been experiencing recurrent chest infections that are becoming more frequent. Upon examination of a blood film, it was discovered that he has small mature lymphocytes with a dense nucleus, leading to a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. Which immune cells, derived from lymphoid progenitors, are typically found in higher numbers in this condition?

      Your Answer: B cells

      Explanation:

      Dendritic cells are derived from both myeloid and lymphoid lineages.

      Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells

      Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.

      The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.

      This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by a loose piece of glass. The glass cuts his skin and damages the tendons of one of the muscles in his hand. Consequently, he cannot flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his ring finger. However, he can still flex the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) and the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the same finger. None of his other fingers are impacted.

      Which muscle is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The flexor digitorum profundus muscle is primarily responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. It is located deep to the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and is specific to each digit. The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle, on the other hand, flexes the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is responsible for flexing and adducting the wrist, while the flexor pollicis longus muscle flexes the thumb. It is important to note that the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle must be intact for its function to remain present.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of altered bowel habit for the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of altered bowel habit for the past 2 months. She denies experiencing melaena or fresh rectal blood. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and breast cancer, which has been in remission for 2 years. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week.

      During abdominal palpation, the liver edge is palpable and nodular, descending below the right costal margin. There is no presence of shifting dullness.

      What is the probable cause of the patient's examination findings?

      Your Answer: Liver metastases

      Explanation:

      If a patient has hepatomegaly and a history of malignancy, it is likely that they have liver metastases. The nodular edge of the liver, along with the patient’s history of breast cancer, is a cause for concern regarding cancer recurrence. Acute alcoholic hepatitis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, and non-alcoholic steatohepatitis are less likely causes in this scenario.

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 29 week pregnant 26-year-old has been informed that her baby has hypoplasia...

    Correct

    • A 29 week pregnant 26-year-old has been informed that her baby has hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis, as shown by antenatal ultrasound and subsequent MRI. The baby has been diagnosed with Dandy-Walker syndrome. The neurologist explains to the mother that during embryonic development, the brain is formed from different swellings or vesicles of the neural tube, which eventually becomes the central nervous system.

      What specific embryological vesicle has not developed properly in the affected baby?

      Your Answer: Metencephalon

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the metencephalon is responsible for the formation of the pons and cerebellum.

      As the prosencephalon grows, it splits into two ear-shaped structures: the telencephalon (which develops into the hemispheres) and the diencephalon (which develops into the thalamus and hypothalamus).

      The mesencephalon grows slowly, and its central cavity eventually becomes the cerebral aqueduct.

      The rhombencephalon divides into two parts: the metencephalon (which forms the pons and cerebellum) and the myelencephalon (which forms the medulla).

      Embryonic Development of the Nervous System

      The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.

      The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old female presents to the ED with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents to the ED with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. She is initiated on three antibiotics intravenously. However, her renal function has deteriorated since the start of antibiotics. Her eGFR has significantly dropped from 98 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m². Which antibiotic is the probable cause of this decline in renal function?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage.

      Gentamicin, a powerful antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class, is known to have serious adverse effects such as damage to the kidneys and ears. Therefore, before starting treatment with aminoglycosides, the patient’s kidney function is evaluated.

      Cholestatic jaundice is a common side effect associated with the use of co-amoxiclav and flucloxacillin. Ceftriaxone can lead to the formation of deposits in the gallbladder.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year old male who recently returned from central Africa is experiencing high...

    Correct

    • A 25-year old male who recently returned from central Africa is experiencing high fever and enlargement of the liver and spleen. He has not taken any medication within the past month. What type of organism is the probable cause of his infection?

      Your Answer: Protozoa

      Explanation:

      Malaria Transmission and Life Cycle

      Malaria is a disease caused by a protozoan called Plasmodium falciparum. The most likely diagnosis for someone who has recently travelled to a high-risk malaria region and has not been taking any antimalarial prophylaxis is malaria. However, leishmaniasis should also be considered if blood tests are negative for malaria.

      Mosquitoes are the carriers of malaria. They inject the disease in the form of schizonts from their salivary glands into the human bloodstream. These schizonts then migrate to the liver where they invade hepatocytes and multiply as merozoites. After a while, the hepatocytes rupture and the merozoites invade red blood cells in the bloodstream. In these cells, they undergo replication as trophozoites.

      At this stage, gametocytes can also be produced, which are taken up by feeding mosquitoes. In the mosquito midgut, gametocytes fuse to form an oocyst. Schizonts bud off from the oocyst to reside in the mosquito salivary glands. This completes the life cycle of malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 78-year-old male is admitted to your ward with community-acquired pneumonia. He has...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male is admitted to your ward with community-acquired pneumonia. He has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 6 years. The patient becomes increasingly agitated during his stay, and you notice that he is prescribed haloperidol for agitation. However, after receiving the medication, his Parkinson's symptoms worsen significantly. What is the likely mechanism of action of haloperidol?

      Your Answer: Blocks dopamine receptors

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. However, typical antipsychotics are known to have non-selective blockage of various dopamine receptors, leading to unwanted side effects such as parkinsonism. This is particularly problematic for individuals with Parkinson’s disease, as the depletion of dopaminergic neurons already present in the condition can be further exacerbated by the use of antipsychotics that block any remaining dopamine transmissions.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A senior citizen presents to the emergency department with recent onset of vision...

    Correct

    • A senior citizen presents to the emergency department with recent onset of vision loss. A stroke is suspected, and an MRI is conducted. The scan reveals an acute ischemic infarct in the thalamus.

      Which specific nucleus of the thalamus has been impacted by this infarct?

      Your Answer: Lateral geniculate nucleus

      Explanation:

      Visual impairment can occur when there is damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus, which is responsible for carrying visual information from the optic tracts to the occipital lobe via the optic radiations. This can result in a loss of vision in the contralateral visual field, often with preservation of central vision. The medial geniculate nucleus is responsible for processing auditory information, while the ventral anterior nucleus and ventro-posterior medial and lateral nuclei relay information related to motor function and somatosensation, respectively.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following statements relating to the hip joint is false?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the hip joint is false?

      Your Answer: The posterior aspect of the patella is extrasynovial

      Explanation:

      The knee is the largest synovial joint in the body and its posterior aspect is located within the synovial membrane. In case of an ACL injury, the knee may swell significantly and cause severe pain due to its extensive innervation from the femoral, sciatic, and obturator nerves. When fully extended, all ligaments are stretched and the knee is in a locked position.

      The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following is not associated with excessive glucocorticoids? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not associated with excessive glucocorticoids?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Excessive levels of glucocorticoids can lead to various negative consequences such as skin thinning, osteonecrosis, and osteoporosis. Steroids can cause the body to retain sodium and water, while also resulting in potassium loss and potentially leading to hypokalaemic alkalosis.

      Cortisol: Functions and Regulation

      Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.

      Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man comes to the hospital with a sudden onset of vision...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the hospital with a sudden onset of vision changes while watching TV. He has a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation but admits to poor adherence to his medication regimen.

      During the eye exam, there are no apparent changes in the sclera. The visual field test shows a homonymous quadrantanopia with a loss of the left inferior aspect of vision. All eye movements are normal, pupils are equal and reactive to light, and fundoscopy appears normal.

      Based on these findings, where is the most likely location of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing an inferior homonymous quadrantanopia due to a lesion in the superior optic radiations of the parietal lobe. This type of visual field defect occurs when there is damage to the opposite side of the brain from where the defect is present. Lesions in the inferior temporal lobe result in superior defects, while lesions in the superior parietal lobe result in inferior defects. It is important to note that the left superior optic radiations are located in the parietal lobe, not the temporal lobe, and therefore a lesion in the left superior optic radiations in the temporal lobe is not possible. Additionally, a lesion in the right inferior optic radiations in the parietal lobe or the right superior optic radiations in the temporal lobe would not cause a defect on the patient’s right side, as the lesion must be on the opposite side of the brain from the defect.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic due to worsening joint pain caused...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic due to worsening joint pain caused by her longstanding rheumatoid arthritis. Her symptoms have progressed to the point where she can no longer perform her daily activities. She is interested in trying infliximab after hearing about it from a friend and reading about it online. She wants to know how the drug works and how it can potentially alleviate her symptoms.

      What is the mechanism of action of infliximab?

      Your Answer: Anti-TNF

      Explanation:

      Infliximab targets TNF through its monoclonal antibody action, while rituximab targets CD20, cetuximab acts as an antagonist to epidermal growth factor receptor, alemtuzumab targets CD52, and OKT3 targets CD3.

      Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.

      TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.

      Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding the use of the p-value in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the use of the p-value in statistical hypothesis testing is correct?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected if the p-value is smaller than or equal to the significance level

      Explanation:

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which one of the following statements relating to the regulation of cardiac blood...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the regulation of cardiac blood flow is not true?

      Your Answer: Systolic blood pressures of less than 65mmHg will cause the mesangial cells to secrete aldosterone

      Explanation:

      The kidney has the ability to regulate its own blood supply within a certain range of systolic blood pressures. If the arterial pressure drops, the juxtaglomerular cells detect this and release renin, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Mesangial cells, which are located in the tubule, do not have any direct endocrine function but are able to contract.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old woman is brought in by her family. They report that she...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought in by her family. They report that she has been isolating herself and has not left the house for a few months. They suspect that she is experiencing auditory hallucinations and has been refusing to eat, believing that the food is contaminated. What is the recommended initial treatment for her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is typically reserved for patients who do not respond to other antipsychotic medications, as it has the potential to cause serious side effects. Based on the symptoms described in the scenario, the most likely diagnosis is schizophrenia, which is typically treated with antipsychotic medications such as Olanzapine. Sertraline is an SSRI commonly used for depression and anxiety, while Sodium Valproate is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder and epilepsy.

      Schizophrenia management guidelines were published by NICE in 2009. The guidelines recommend that first-line treatment for schizophrenia should involve oral atypical antipsychotics. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients. It is important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare professionals should take necessary measures to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which muscles are responsible for flexing the knee joint? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscles are responsible for flexing the knee joint?

      Your Answer: Semitendinosus

      Explanation:

      The Flexors of the Knee Joint and Other Related Muscles

      The muscles responsible for flexing the knee joint are the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. On the other hand, the quadriceps femoris and sartorius muscles are involved in hip flexion, although the latter is weak despite being the longest muscle in the body. Lastly, the soleus muscle is responsible for ankle plantar flexion.

      In summary, the flexors of the knee joint are composed of four muscles, while other related muscles are involved in hip flexion and ankle plantar flexion. the functions of these muscles is essential in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect the lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a lump in his groin....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a lump in his groin. He reports no other symptoms such as abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. Upon examination, the GP notes that the lump is soft and can be reduced without causing discomfort to the patient. The GP suspects an inguinal hernia but is unsure if it is direct or indirect. To determine this, the GP reduces the lump and applies pressure to the anatomical landmark for the deep inguinal ring. What is this landmark?

      Your Answer: Superior to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following is not associated with an increase in ESR? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not associated with an increase in ESR?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

      The Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is a test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. It is a non-specific marker of inflammation and can be affected by various factors such as the size, shape, and number of red blood cells, as well as the concentration of plasma proteins like fibrinogen, alpha2-globulins, and gamma globulins.

      A high ESR can be caused by various conditions such as temporal arteritis, myeloma, connective tissue disorders like systemic lupus erythematosus, malignancies, infections, and other factors like increasing age, female sex, and anaemia. On the other hand, a low ESR can be caused by conditions like polycythaemia, afibrinogenaemia, or hypofibrinogenaemia.

      It is important to note that while a high ESR can indicate the presence of an underlying condition, it is not a definitive diagnosis and further testing may be required to determine the cause. Therefore, it is essential to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient is seen in clinic and has a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity....

    Correct

    • A patient is seen in clinic and has a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity. Given that this patient is 25 years old and 46XY, what is the correct phenotype?

      Your Answer: Internal genitalia ambiguous and external genitalia female

      Explanation:

      Androgens play a crucial role in the development of male reproductive organs, as they stimulate the formation of Wolffian ducts that eventually give rise to the vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles. In the absence of androgen activity, the Wolffian ducts break down, leading to the failure of male reproductive organ development. Additionally, Sertoli cells produce anti-Mullerian hormone, which prevents the formation of female internal genitalia. The lack of androgen effects also results in the absence of masculine characteristics in the external genitalia.

      Understanding Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic condition that affects individuals with an XY genotype, causing them to develop a female phenotype due to their body’s resistance to testosterone. This condition was previously known as testicular feminization syndrome. Common features of this condition include primary amenorrhea, little to no pubic and axillary hair, undescended testes leading to groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to estrogen.

      Diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome can be done through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis, which reveals a 46XY genotype. After puberty, testosterone levels in individuals with this condition are typically in the high-normal to slightly elevated range for postpubertal boys.

      Management of androgen insensitivity syndrome involves counseling and raising the child as female. Bilateral orchidectomy is recommended to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes. Additionally, estrogen therapy may be used to promote the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Understanding androgen insensitivity syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      7.2
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  • Question 34 - A 3-week old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who...

    Correct

    • A 3-week old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who has noticed yellowish discharge from her umbilicus on a daily basis. The baby was born without any complications and is healthy otherwise.

      Which embryological structure is most likely responsible for this issue?

      Your Answer: Allantois

      Explanation:

      If the allantois persists, it can result in a patent urachus, which may manifest as urine leakage from the belly button.

      A patent urachus is a remnant of the allantois from embryonic development that links the bladder to the umbilicus, enabling urine to flow through and exit from the abdominal area.

      When the vitelline duct fails to close, it can lead to the formation of a Meckel’s diverticulum.

      The ductus venosus acts as a bypass for umbilical blood to avoid the liver in the fetus.

      The umbilical vessels serve as a conduit for blood to and from the fetus during gestation. They are not connected to the bladder and would not cause daily leakage.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.8
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  • Question 35 - A patient with known multiple myeloma is becoming lethargic and unresponsive, his blood...

    Correct

    • A patient with known multiple myeloma is becoming lethargic and unresponsive, his blood results were all normal, except for his calcium levels (see table below). Alongside rehydration therapy, the doctor decides to administer calcitonin for short term relief of his symptoms.

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Calcium 3.5 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 1.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      What is the mechanism by which this drug will provide a therapeutic effect for a patient in their 60s with known multiple myeloma?

      Your Answer: Inhibit osteoclast activity, which will decrease plasma calcium levels

      Explanation:

      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts, leading to a decrease in plasma calcium and phosphate levels. It is produced by the thyroid’s parafollicular or C cells in response to high plasma calcium levels. Administering calcitonin does not affect its own release. It is used as an adjunct to rehydration therapy for hypercalcemia, providing rapid symptom relief. However, bisphosphonates are typically used for long-term correction of calcium levels. Calcitonin does not affect parathyroid hormone activity or the activation of vitamin D, which both contribute to increased plasma calcium levels.

      Understanding Calcitonin and Its Role in Regulating Calcium Levels

      Calcitonin is a hormone that is produced by the parafollicular cells or C cells of the thyroid gland. It is released in response to high levels of calcium in the blood, which can occur due to various factors such as bone resorption, vitamin D toxicity, or certain cancers. The main function of calcitonin is to decrease the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream.

      Calcitonin works by binding to specific receptors on the surface of osteoclasts, which reduces their ability to resorb bone. This leads to a decrease in the release of calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream, which helps to restore normal levels of these minerals. In addition to its effects on bone metabolism, calcitonin also has other physiological functions such as regulating kidney function and modulating the immune system.

      Overall, calcitonin plays an important role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body and preventing the development of conditions such as hypercalcemia, which can have serious health consequences. By inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation, calcitonin helps to maintain the structural integrity of bones and prevent fractures. Understanding the mechanisms of calcitonin action can provide insights into the pathophysiology of bone diseases and inform the development of new treatments for these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 36 - A senior citizen has a cervical disc prolapse in his spine resulting in...

    Correct

    • A senior citizen has a cervical disc prolapse in his spine resulting in spinal cord injury due to compression by the disc. Considering the anatomy of the spinal cord, which cell groups and their corresponding functions are likely to be affected at the site of injury?

      Your Answer: Ventral horn cells and a motor defect

      Explanation:

      Motor defects are caused by lesions in the anterior cord as it contains the cell bodies of lower motor neurons in the ventral horns of the grey matter. Injuries to the ventral region are more likely to affect motor function at the level of injury. On the other hand, dorsal injuries result in sensory defects as the dorsal horns receive input from primary sensory neurons. The intermediate horns are not present in the cervical spine and are unlikely to be affected by anterior injuries.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 37 - A 15-year-old boy presents with diplopia and headache. Imaging reveals acute hydrocephalus and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with diplopia and headache. Imaging reveals acute hydrocephalus and a space occupying lesion in the base of the 4th ventricle. What type of cell proliferation would be expected on biopsy?

      Your Answer: Ependymal cells

      Explanation:

      Childhood tumours of the central nervous system (CNS) frequently develop at the base of the 4th ventricle. Oligodendrocytes are accountable for creating the myelin sheath in the CNS. The formation of the blood-brain barrier is a crucial function of astrocytes. Schwann cells are responsible for creating the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system.

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 38 - A 60-year-old male patient comes in for a routine colonoscopy. He had stage...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male patient comes in for a routine colonoscopy. He had stage I colon cancer that was treated successfully ten years ago. During the discussion of his thoughts, concerns, and expectations, he mentions that he hasn't thought about the potential results until now and that worrying won't change anything.

      What ego defense mechanism is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Suppression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the submandibular gland. The incision is sited transversely approximately 4 cm below the mandible. After incising the skin, platysma and deep fascia which of the following structures is most likely to be encountered.

      Your Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      When accessing the submandibular gland, the facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes are the structures that are most easily visible. The gland is divided into a superficial and deep part by the mylohyoid muscle. The facial artery runs along the surface of the gland and can be seen in a groove. It then passes between the gland and the mandible before emerging on the face. During surgery, the facial vein is encountered first as the incision is made 4 cm below the mandible to prevent damage to the marginal mandibular nerve.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 40 - A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP due to poor glycaemic control for the past three days, with home blood glucose readings around 25 mmol/L. He is currently being treated with metformin and lisinopril. Yesterday, his GP checked his U+E and found that his serum sodium was 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium was 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea was 20 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine was 350 µmol/L (60-110). On examination, he has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 108 bpm, a blood pressure of 96/60 mmHg, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturations of 99% on air. His cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examination are otherwise normal. Further investigations reveal a plasma glucose level of 17 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and urine analysis showing blood ++ and protein ++, but ketones are negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      1.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (7/7) 100%
Cardiovascular System (2/2) 100%
Basic Sciences (1/1) 100%
Renal System (2/2) 100%
General Principles (8/8) 100%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (4/4) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (5/5) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (3/3) 100%
Endocrine System (2/2) 100%
Reproductive System (1/1) 100%
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