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  • Question 1 - You are attending a cardiology clinic one morning. A 54-year-old man presents for...

    Correct

    • You are attending a cardiology clinic one morning. A 54-year-old man presents for a medication review. He is currently taking a beta-blocker but is still frequently symptomatic. From his medication history, it is evident that he does not tolerate calcium channel blockers.

      The consultant considers the option of starting him on a new drug called nicorandil. The patient is hesitant to try it out as he believes it is a calcium channel blocker. You have been asked to explain the mechanism of action of nicorandil to this patient.

      What is the way in which the new drug exerts its effect?

      Your Answer: Causes vasodilation by activating guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP

      Explanation:

      Nicorandil induces vasodilation by activating guanylyl cyclase, leading to an increase in cyclic GMP. This results in the relaxation of vascular smooth muscles through the prevention of calcium ion influx and dephosphorylation of myosin light chains. Additionally, nicorandil activates ATP-sensitive potassium channels, causing hyperpolarization and preventing intracellular calcium overload, which plays a cardioprotective role.

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral...

    Correct

    • An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral vascular disease presents with palpitations and syncope. His ECG reveals an irregularly irregular pulse of 124 beats/min. What factor in his medical history will be given the most consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Age

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct a CHA2DS2-VASc score assessment. This involves considering various factors, including age (which is weighted heaviest, with 2 points given for those aged 75 and over), hypertension (1 point), and congestive heart disease (1 point). Palpitations, however, are not included in the CHA2DS2-VASc tool.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old male with no past medical history is recently diagnosed with hypertension....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male with no past medical history is recently diagnosed with hypertension. His GP prescribes him lisinopril and orders a baseline renal function blood test, which comes back normal. The GP schedules a follow-up appointment for two weeks later to check his renal function. At the follow-up appointment, the patient's blood test results show:

      Na 137 mmol/l
      K 4.7 mmol/l
      Cl 98 mmol/l
      Urea 12.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 250 mg/l

      What is the most likely cause for the abnormal blood test results?

      Your Answer: Bilateral stenosis of renal arteries

      Explanation:

      Patients with renovascular disease should not be prescribed ACE inhibitors as their first line antihypertensive medication. This is because bilateral renal artery stenosis, a common cause of hypertension, can go undetected and lead to acute renal impairment when treated with ACE inhibitors. This occurs because the medication prevents the constriction of efferent arterioles, which is necessary to maintain glomerular pressure in patients with reduced blood flow to the kidneys. Therefore, further investigations such as a renal artery ultrasound scan should be conducted before prescribing ACE inhibitors to patients with hypertension.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A teenage boy suddenly collapses outside his home. He is found to be...

    Correct

    • A teenage boy suddenly collapses outside his home. He is found to be in cardiac arrest and unfortunately passed away in the hospital. Posthumously, he is diagnosed with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. What alterations would this condition bring about in the heart?

      Your Answer: Myocardium replaced by fatty and fibrofatty tissue

      Explanation:

      Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death, is associated with asymmetrical thickening of the septum. Left ventricular hypertrophy can be caused by hypertension, aortic valve stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and athletic training. While arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy can cause ventricular dilation in later stages, it is not transient. Transient ballooning would suggest a diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, which is triggered by acute stress.

      Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.

      The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.

      Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A toddler is brought to the hospital at 18 months of age with...

    Correct

    • A toddler is brought to the hospital at 18 months of age with symptoms of increased work of breathing and difficulty while feeding. On examination, a continuous 'machinery' murmur is heard and is loudest at the left sternal edge. The cardiologist prescribes a dose of indomethacin. What is the mechanism of action of indomethacin?

      The baby was born prematurely at 36 weeks via an emergency cesarean section. Despite the early delivery, the baby appeared healthy and was given a dose of Vitamin K soon after birth. The mother lived in a cottage up in the mountains and was discharged the next day with her happy, healthy baby. However, six weeks later, the baby was brought back to the hospital with concerning symptoms.

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin synthase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Indomethacin is a medication that hinders the production of prostaglandins in infants with patent ductus arteriosus by inhibiting the activity of COX enzymes. On the other hand, bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist, is utilized to treat pulmonary hypertension by blocking the vasoconstricting effect of endothelin, leading to vasodilation. Although endothelin causes vasoconstriction by acting on endothelin receptors, it is not employed in managing PDA. Adenosine receptor antagonists like theophylline and caffeine are also not utilized in PDA management.

      Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.

      This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.

      The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man is admitted for a below knee amputation. He is taking...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is admitted for a below knee amputation. He is taking digoxin. The patient presents with an irregularly irregular pulse. What would be your expectation when examining the jugular venous pressure?

      Your Answer: Absent a waves

      Explanation:

      The pressure in the jugular vein.

      Understanding Jugular Venous Pressure

      Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is a useful tool for assessing right atrial pressure and identifying underlying valvular disease. The waveform of the jugular vein can provide valuable information about the heart’s function. A non-pulsatile JVP may indicate superior vena caval obstruction, while Kussmaul’s sign describes a paradoxical rise in JVP during inspiration seen in constrictive pericarditis.

      The ‘a’ wave of the jugular vein waveform represents atrial contraction. A large ‘a’ wave may indicate conditions such as tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, or pulmonary hypertension. However, an absent ‘a’ wave is common in atrial fibrillation.

      Cannon ‘a’ waves are caused by atrial contractions against a closed tricuspid valve. They are seen in conditions such as complete heart block, ventricular tachycardia/ectopics, nodal rhythm, and single chamber ventricular pacing.

      The ‘c’ wave represents the closure of the tricuspid valve and is not normally visible. The ‘v’ wave is due to passive filling of blood into the atrium against a closed tricuspid valve. Giant ‘v’ waves may indicate tricuspid regurgitation.

      Finally, the ‘x’ descent represents the fall in atrial pressure during ventricular systole, while the ‘y’ descent represents the opening of the tricuspid valve. Understanding the jugular venous pressure waveform can provide valuable insights into the heart’s function and help diagnose underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old UK born patient with end-stage kidney failure arrives at the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old UK born patient with end-stage kidney failure arrives at the emergency department complaining of sharp chest pain that subsides when sitting forward. The patient has not undergone dialysis yet. Upon conducting an ECG, it is observed that there is a widespread 'saddle-shaped' ST elevation and PR depression, leading to a diagnosis of pericarditis. What could be the probable cause of this pericarditis?

      Your Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      There is no indication of trauma in patients with advanced renal failure prior to dialysis initiation.

      ECG results do not indicate a recent heart attack.

      The patient’s age decreases the likelihood of malignancy.

      Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management

      Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.

      The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.

      Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.

      Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.

      In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department with loss of vision on the right side.

      Which artery disease could be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic artery is the first branch of the internal carotid artery and supplies the orbit. If the internal carotid artery is affected by disease, it can lead to vision loss. However, disease of the external carotid artery, which supplies structures of the face and neck, or its branches such as the facial artery (which supplies skin and muscles of the face), lingual artery (which supplies the tongue and oral mucosa), or middle meningeal artery (which supplies the cranial dura), would not result in vision loss. Disease of the middle meningeal artery is commonly associated with extradural hematoma.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man is having a radical gastrectomy for stomach cancer. What structure...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is having a radical gastrectomy for stomach cancer. What structure must be divided to access the coeliac axis during the procedure?

      Your Answer: Lesser omentum

      Explanation:

      The division of the lesser omentum is necessary during a radical gastrectomy as it constitutes one of the nodal stations that must be removed.

      The Coeliac Axis and its Branches

      The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.

      The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.

      Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where are the red hat pins most likely located based on the highest...

    Correct

    • Where are the red hat pins most likely located based on the highest velocity measurements in different parts of a bovine heart during experimental research for a new drug for heart conduction disorders?

      Your Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      3.5
      Seconds

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