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  • Question 1 - John, a 35-year-old Caucasian man visited his doctor with a range of symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • John, a 35-year-old Caucasian man visited his doctor with a range of symptoms. He reported feeling feverish on and off for the past few months, experiencing fatigue, unintentional weight loss of around 3kg, and general muscle aches and pains. He was not taking any medication. Upon examination, his doctor found no abnormalities in his observations or physical examination. The doctor ordered a full blood count, which showed the following results:

      - Hb 112g/L Male: (130 - 180)
      - Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 3.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Lymphocytes 2.8 * 109/L (1.0 - 4.5)
      - Mean corpuscular volume 92 fL (76 - 98)
      - Mean corpuscular haemoglobin 31 pg (27 - 32)
      - Ferritin 40 ng/mL (20 - 230)

      Based on these results, the doctor suspects that John may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and orders further blood tests. Which test, if positive, would best indicate that John is likely to have this condition?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of ANA is high, making it a valuable test for ruling out SLE, but its specificity is low. Anti-histone antibodies are typically utilized as an indicator for drug-induced SLE. ESR is not a serum antibody and is not employed for diagnosing or ruling out SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red,...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man, with a history of acromegaly, presents with a swollen, red, hot, and painful right knee that developed over the past three days. He denies having a fever and was previously healthy. He receives monthly octreotide for his acromegaly and does not take any diuretics. An X-ray reveals chondrocalcinosis. What results would you anticipate from the joint fluid microscopy?

      Your Answer: Weakly positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly patients are at an increased risk of developing pseudogout, which is characterized by chondrocalcinosis. The crystals involved in pseudogout are rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent. It is important to note that negatively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals do not cause crystal arthropathy, while negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals are associated with gout crystal arthropathy. Additionally, weakly positive birefringent needle-shaped crystals are not known to cause crystal arthropathy.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      91.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left knee. During a lower limb examination, you observe that the tibia moves backward when a force is applied. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture

      Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) rupture

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.

      Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.

      Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.

      Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.

      Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing undisplaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A new medication, called Lasarex, is being tested to increase the chances of...

    Correct

    • A new medication, called Lasarex, is being tested to increase the chances of survival for patients with pancreatic cancer. The pharmaceutical company conducting the study is currently determining the appropriate dosage.

      As per their calculations, administering 900 mg of the drug orally results in only 540 mg reaching the systemic circulation, and just 180 mg reaching the cancer cells.

      What is the bioavailability of this medication?

      Your Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics and Bioavailability

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how the body processes drugs. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption is the process by which drugs enter the body and reach the circulation. The bioavailability of a drug is an important factor in absorption as it determines the proportion of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation. Bioavailability is calculated by dividing the dose reaching circulation by the total dose administered. For instance, if the bioavailability of a drug is 0.6, it means that 60% of the administered drug reaches the systemic circulation.

      Distribution involves the spread of the drug throughout the body, while metabolism refers to the processes that the body uses to change the drug molecule, usually by deactivating it during reactions in the liver. Excretion, on the other hand, involves the removal of the drug from the body. pharmacokinetics and bioavailability is crucial in determining the appropriate dose of a drug for efficacy. By knowing the bioavailability of a drug, healthcare professionals can calculate the dose that is likely to be needed for the drug to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is on opioids for pain management requests some pain relief for breakthrough pain. He has a medical history of metastatic lung cancer, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease. Earlier in the day, his latest blood results were as follows:

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 25.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 624 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      eGFR 9 mL/min/1.73m² (>90)

      CRP 19 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most appropriate pain relief for this situation?

      Your Answer: IV oxycodone

      Correct Answer: Sublingual fentanyl

      Explanation:

      For palliative care patients with severe renal impairment, fentanyl or buprenorphine are the preferred opioids for pain relief. This is because they are not excreted through the kidneys, reducing the risk of toxicity compared to morphine. Fentanyl is the top choice due to its liver metabolism, making it less likely to cause harm in patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 10 mL/min/1.73². Oxycodone can be used in mild to moderate renal impairment (GFR 10-50 mL/min/1.73²), but it should be avoided in severe cases as it is partially excreted through the kidneys. Ibuprofen is not recommended as it is a weaker pain reliever than opioids and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old high-school student wishes to have a seborrheic wart removed from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old high-school student wishes to have a seborrheic wart removed from her right upper arm as it frequently catches on clothes and she finds it unsightly.
      Regarding consent in minors in England and Wales, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Gillick competent 16-year-olds cannot have their decisions regarding medical treatment overruled by the legal courts

      Correct Answer: A doctor must not discuss consent to treatment by a competent 16-year-old with the parents of the patient in question without the express permission of the patient

      Explanation:

      Understanding Consent and Legal Medicine for Minors in the UK

      In the UK, the laws surrounding consent and medical treatment for minors can be complex. It is important to understand the rights of patients aged 16 and over, as they are considered competent to give consent for treatment and are afforded the same right to patient confidentiality as adults. This means that doctors must not discuss treatment with the parents of a competent 16-year-old without the patient’s express permission.

      It is also important to note that a 16-year-old is presumed to have capacity to consent to treatment, unless there is obvious evidence to the contrary. Additionally, fathers no longer need to be married to the mother at the time of conception or birth to give consent regarding treatment, as long as they are registered at the time of birth and have parental responsibility.

      Patients with learning difficulties may still be Gillick competent and able to make decisions regarding their medical treatment. However, a competent minor who withholds consent may be overruled by the courts or an individual with parental responsibility, which may be the child’s mother, father, or legal guardian (such as a local authority). Understanding these laws and rights is crucial for providing appropriate medical care to minors in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.

      What is the most concerning finding from the above information?

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)

      Explanation:

      Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.

      For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in his right hand and forearm. He reports experiencing numbness and tingling in the back of his hand, particularly around his thumb, index, and middle finger. Additionally, he has noticed weakness in his elbow and wrist. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced power in elbow and wrist extension on the right side. The patient denies any history of trauma to the arm and does not engage in extreme sports. He works as a security agent and often sleeps in a chair during his night shifts. X-rays of the right wrist, elbow, and shoulder reveal no apparent fractures. What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Radial Nerve Palsy from Other Upper Limb Pathologies

      Radial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the extensors of the wrist and forearms, as well as the sensation of the back of the hands at the thumb, index, middle, and radial side of the ring finger. It is often caused by compression or injury to the radial nerve, which can occur from sleeping in an awkward position or other trauma. This condition is commonly referred to as Saturday night palsy.

      It is important to differentiate radial nerve palsy from other upper limb pathologies, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, Erb’s palsy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and Klumpke’s palsy. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing tingling, numbness, and pain in the palmar side of the thumb, index, middle, and ring finger area. Erb’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the upper roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing an adducted and internally rotated shoulder with elbow extension, pronation, and wrist flexion. Cubital tunnel syndrome involves impingement of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing numbness and tingling at the ulnar side of the ring finger and small finger, and potentially leading to an ulnar claw deformity. Klumpke’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the lower roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing a claw hand and potentially Horner syndrome.

      By understanding the specific symptoms and causes of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with upper limb pathologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      290
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A clinical trial compared the effectiveness of two anti-anginal medications in reducing stable...

    Correct

    • A clinical trial compared the effectiveness of two anti-anginal medications in reducing stable angina pain while walking on flat ground. The study found that 65% of patients who took drug A and 60% of patients who took drug B achieved the primary outcome.

      If a patient wants to avoid stable angina pain while walking on flat ground, how many more patients need to be treated with drug A compared to drug B?

      Your Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      When analyzing the results of a randomized controlled clinical trial, the number needed to treat (NNT) is a useful metric to consider. It is calculated by taking 100 divided by the absolute risk reduction (ARR). For example, if the ARR is 5%, then the NNT would be 20 (100/5).

      The NNT provides a more intuitive of the results compared to other metrics such as relative risk reduction (RRR) or ARR. It represents the number of patients who need to be treated in order to prevent one additional negative outcome. In the example above, for every 20 patients treated, one negative outcome would be prevented.

      Overall, the NNT is a valuable tool for clinicians and researchers to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments and interventions. It allows for a more practical interpretation of study results and can aid in making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old man collapsed during a routine hospital visit and was quickly assessed....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man collapsed during a routine hospital visit and was quickly assessed. He presented with homonymous hemianopia, significant weakness in his right arm and leg, and a new speech impairment. A CT head scan was urgently performed and confirmed the diagnosis of an ischemic stroke. What CT head results would be indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Effacement of the cerebral ventricles and loss of grey-white matter differentiation

      Correct Answer: Hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign

      Explanation:

      A hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign may be observed on CT in cases of acute ischaemic stroke, typically appearing immediately after symptom onset. This is in contrast to changes in the parenchyma, which tend to develop as the ischaemia within the tissue becomes established. An acute subdural haematoma can be identified on a CT head scan by the presence of a crescent-shaped hyperdense extra-axial collection adjacent to the frontal lobe. Raised intracranial pressure can be detected on a CT head scan by the effacement of the cerebral ventricles and loss of grey-white matter differentiation. The presence of hyperdense material in the cerebral sulci and basal cisterns is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) on a CT head scan.

      Assessment and Investigations for Stroke

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      29.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Medicine (0/2) 0%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
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