00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
      What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery

      When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.

      While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.

      In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      83
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly and he has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the past six hours. Despite his discomfort, his physical examination does not reveal any significant findings. The patient has a notable medical history, having previously suffered a myocardial infarction that necessitated the placement of a pacemaker.
      What test is most likely to confirm a diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia?

      Your Answer: Abdominal computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a lack of blood flow to the intestines, which can lead to serious complications. There are several diagnostic imaging techniques that can be used to identify mesenteric ischaemia, including abdominal computed tomography (CT), abdominal ultrasound, abdominal X-ray, colonoscopy, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA).

      Abdominal CT is often the first-line investigation used to rule out other causes and can identify signs of mesenteric ischaemia, such as gas in the intestinal wall and portal vein. Abdominal ultrasound is not useful in assessing bowel lesions but may indicate perforation and free fluid in the abdomen. Abdominal X-ray findings are non-specific and may not be helpful in narrowing down the differential. Colonoscopy can be helpful in looking at mucosal lesions of the bowel but carries a risk of perforation. MRA can be useful in assessing vascular pathology but is not recommended for patients with pacemakers.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic imaging techniques may be necessary to accurately diagnose mesenteric ischaemia and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cerebral infarction

      Correct Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy

      A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.

      In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Samantha, a 63-year-old female, visits the clinic with complaints of feeling generally unwell,...

    Correct

    • Samantha, a 63-year-old female, visits the clinic with complaints of feeling generally unwell, lethargic, nauseated, and experiencing yellow-green tinted vision for the past 2 weeks. She has a medical history of asthma, hypercholesterolaemia, and hypertension, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler as required, atorvastatin, and verapamil. On examination, Samantha appears lethargic but alert and conscious, with stable haemodynamics. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, pulse 50/min, respiratory rate 16/min, oxygen saturation 99% on room air, and she has a normal body temperature. What is the best next step in managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Temporarily cease digoxin, measure digoxin concentration within 8-12 hours of the last dose and review

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of digoxin toxicity, it is recommended to measure digoxin concentrations within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. Patricia’s symptoms suggest digoxin toxicity, possibly triggered by her recent hypertension diagnosis and verapamil prescription. However, measuring digoxin concentration after 4 hours of the last dose is too early to determine toxicity levels. While verapamil may have contributed to the toxicity, stopping the medication immediately is not advisable due to her hypertension. Hospital referral for DC cardioversion is unnecessary as Patricia is conscious and hemodynamically stable. Increasing digoxin dosage is not recommended as low digoxin levels are not the cause of her symptoms. If digoxin toxicity is confirmed, the appropriate treatment is digibind, the digoxin antidote.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      88.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following scenarios is the most common presentation of testicular...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following scenarios is the most common presentation of testicular cancer?

      Your Answer: Painless testicular lump in a 27-year-old man

      Explanation:

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain,...

    Correct

    • John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain, and dry eyes. He has also noticed a red-purple rash on his upper cheeks that worsens after sun exposure. Upon further inquiry, he reports frequent mouth ulcers. Based on these symptoms, you suspect systemic lupus erythematosus.
      Initial laboratory tests show anemia and proteinuria on urinalysis.
      Which test would be most suitable to rule out this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) is common in the adult population, but it is not a reliable diagnostic tool for autoimmune rheumatic disease without additional clinical features. To accurately diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies, low complement levels, or anti-Smith (Sm) antibodies in patients with relevant clinical features is highly predictive. However, these markers cannot be used as rule-out tests, as there is still a chance of SLE even with a negative result. Anti-Ro/La antibodies are less specific to SLE, as they are also found in other autoimmune rheumatic disorders.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old child presents with the classic murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus....

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child presents with the classic murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus. The child is underweight for their age but is otherwise in good health.

      What course of action would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer: Early operative closure

      Explanation:

      Recommendations for Operative Closure and Antibiotic Use in Persistent Defects

      Early operative closure is advised for patients with defects that have not resolved by 6 months of age. It is important to address these defects promptly to prevent complications and improve outcomes. However, prophylactic antibiotics are no longer recommended for dental and other invasive procedures in these patients. This change in practice is due to concerns about antibiotic resistance and the potential for adverse effects. Instead, careful monitoring and prompt treatment of any infections or complications that arise is recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure the best possible outcomes for patients with persistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the left groin that appears on and off. The patient reports that the lump is influenced by posture and coughing but does not cause any pain. Upon examination, the doctor diagnoses the patient with a hernia.
      What is a true statement regarding groin hernias?

      Your Answer: An inguinal hernia usually emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle

      Correct Answer: A direct inguinal hernia lies medial to the inferior epigastric vessels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Groin Hernias: Types, Location, and Risks

      Groin hernias are a common condition that occurs when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. There are different types of groin hernias, including direct inguinal hernias and femoral hernias.

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs when there is a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, and the protrusion happens medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. On the other hand, a femoral hernia emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle.

      Contrary to popular belief, femoral hernias are more common in women than in men. While direct inguinal hernias can become incarcerated, only a small percentage of them will become strangulated per year. Femoral hernias, however, are at a much higher risk of becoming strangulated.

      While most groin hernias should be repaired, especially when they become symptomatic, patients who are unfit for surgery should be treated conservatively. This may include using a truss to support the hernia.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types and locations of groin hernias, as well as their risks, can help patients make informed decisions about their treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension is undergoing an eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension is undergoing an eye examination. He has been experiencing deteriorating headaches and reduced visual acuity over the past few weeks. Upon fundoscopy, he displays flame haemorrhages, cotton wool spots, arteriovenous nipping, and papilloedema. What level of hypertensive retinopathy does this correspond to?

      Your Answer: Grade V

      Correct Answer: Grade IV

      Explanation:

      Grade IV hypertensive retinopathy is indicated by papilloedema, which is a severe manifestation that requires immediate attention due to its association with high morbidity and mortality. The various grades of hypertensive retinopathy have distinct characteristics, which are outlined below.

      Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy: Keith-Wagener Classification

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the blood vessels in the eyes, as well as an increased reflection of light known as silver wiring. In stage II, the blood vessels become compressed where they cross over veins, leading to arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the appearance of cotton-wool exudates, which are white patches on the retina caused by blocked blood vessels. Additionally, there may be flame and blot hemorrhages that can collect around the fovea, resulting in a ‘macular star.’ Finally, stage IV is the most severe stage and is characterized by papilloedema, which is swelling of the optic disc at the back of the eye. Understanding the Keith-Wagener classification can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in...

    Incorrect

    • What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Decrease of action potential conduction speed

      Correct Answer: Decrease of postsynaptic potentials

      Explanation:

      Effects of Inhibition of Voltage-Gated Channels in the Central Nervous System

      In the central nervous system, voltage-gated calcium channels play a crucial role in the release of neurotransmitters. On the other hand, action potentials involve sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels. If these channels are inhibited, the amount of neurotransmitter released would decrease, leading to a subsequent decrease in the postsynaptic potentials, both graded and action. It is important to note that the decrease in postsynaptic potentials is the only correct option from the given choices.

      It is incorrect to assume that the inhibition of voltage-gated channels would lead to a decrease in action potential amplitude. This is because the amplitude of an action potential is an all-or-none event, and it is the frequency of action potentials that determines the strength of a stimulus. Similarly, the decrease in action potential conduction speed is also incorrect as it depends on the myelination of the axon. Moreover, it is incorrect to assume that inhibiting voltage-gated channels would increase the speed and amplitude of action potentials.

      Lastly, inhibiting presynaptic potentials is also incorrect as they depend on sodium/potassium voltage-gated ion channels. Therefore, it is essential to understand the effects of inhibiting voltage-gated channels in the central nervous system to avoid any misconceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      Upon examination of a patient with eye symptoms, it was determined that the presentation pointed towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This was due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the probable outcome if a fetus has homozygous alpha-thalassaemia, assuming it...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable outcome if a fetus has homozygous alpha-thalassaemia, assuming it is at an early stage of development?

      Your Answer: Normal pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Hydrops fetalis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alpha-Thalassaemia

      Alpha-thalassaemia is a condition that arises from a deficiency of alpha chains in haemoglobin. This occurs due to the absence or reduced production of alpha-globulin genes located on chromosome 16. The severity of the condition depends on the number of alpha globulin alleles affected. If one or two alleles are affected, the blood picture would be hypochromic and microcytic, but the haemoglobin level would typically be normal. However, if three alleles are affected, it results in a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly, which is known as Hb H disease. In the case where all four alpha globulin alleles are affected, which is known as homozygote, it can lead to death in utero, also known as hydrops fetalis or Bart’s hydrops. Understanding the severity of alpha-thalassaemia is crucial in managing the condition and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old computer programmer reported experiencing frequent headaches to his GP. Upon examination, the GP observed papilloedema and pupillary dilation and referred the patient for further radiological studies and to a neurologist. The results of the radiological studies revealed a mass causing non-communicating hydrocephalus. Where is the most likely location of the tumour?

      Your Answer: Lateral geniculate nucleus

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Non-Communicating Hydrocephalus

      Non-communicating hydrocephalus can be caused by various factors, including a pinealoma, which is a slow-growing tumor of the pineal gland. This type of tumor can compress the midbrain cerebral aqueduct, leading to a blockage in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the lateral and third ventricles to the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space. To address this issue, surgical placement of a shunt may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus is a midbrain tumor, such as a pinealoma, which can compress the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. This can result in mydriasis or dilation of the pupil due to the lack of parasympathetic input from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei to the oculomotor muscles.

      It is important to note that a cerebellar lesion is unlikely to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, as it is associated with defects in coordination and changes in gait. Similarly, an optic nerve lesion is also unlikely to cause this condition, as afferent fibers from the retina pass through the optic nerve to the hypothalamic lateral geniculate nucleus. A lesion in the lateral geniculate nucleus is more likely to cause visual symptoms rather than non-communicating hydrocephalus.

      In summary, understanding the possible causes of non-communicating hydrocephalus can help in identifying and addressing the underlying issue. A thorough evaluation and diagnosis by a medical professional is necessary for proper treatment and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department after consuming 25 500...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department after consuming 25 500 mg paracetamol tablets 24 hours ago. She is fully conscious with a GCS score of 15, and her heart rate is 90 bpm while her blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg. The patient experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant, but there are no indications of jaundice or scleral icterus. She has no prior medical history and expresses regret over her actions. The medical team has ordered blood tests, including liver function tests, and is awaiting the results. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Start acetylcysteine now

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms of paracetamol overdose more than 24 hours after the incident, acetylcysteine should be administered if the patient exhibits jaundice, hepatic tenderness, or an elevated ALT level.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      100.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Over a 5-year period, 100,000 people attended the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic, with 56%...

    Incorrect

    • Over a 5-year period, 100,000 people attended the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic, with 56% of them being female. Out of all the patients, 87 men and 37 women were diagnosed with gonorrhoeae. What is the relative risk of gonorrhoeae in males compared to females during this period?

      Your Answer: 0.3

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Relative Risk

      Relative risk is a measure used to compare the risk of an event or outcome in one group to the risk in another group. It is calculated by taking the ratio of the rate of the event or outcome in one group to the rate in another group. For example, if we want to determine the relative risk of gonorrhoeae in men compared to women, we would calculate the rate of gonorrhoeae in men (87 cases per 44,000 individuals) and the rate in women (37 cases per 56,000 individuals) and then divide the rate in men by the rate in women. This gives us a relative risk of 1.7, indicating that men have a 1.7 times higher risk of gonorrhoeae compared to women. Understanding relative risk is important in epidemiology and public health research as it allows us to compare the risk of different outcomes across different groups and populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in bowel habit towards constipation arrives in the Emergency Department with a tender, distended abdomen. She has also been suffering with a chest infection recently and has known chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. Bowel sounds are absent. The rectum is empty on examination. Abdominal X-ray reveals distended loops of large bowel, consistent with large bowel obstruction.
      Which one of these investigations should be performed next?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin®

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Diagnostic Procedures for Bowel Obstruction in CKD Patients

      Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin® is a safe and effective diagnostic tool for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who present with bowel obstruction. This oral contrast medium provides crucial diagnostic information without posing a significant risk of renal injury. It is important to differentiate between large bowel obstruction and pseudo-obstruction, which can be achieved through imaging studies. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is not indicated in the absence of trauma. Gastroscopy is not necessary as the issue is bowel obstruction, and an ultrasound would not provide the level of detail needed. While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can provide quality images, a CT scan is more readily available and can be organized faster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a complaint of numbness in the skin over his scrotum. Can you identify the nerve responsible for supplying sensation to this area?

      Your Answer: Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to Male Genitalia

      The male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve provides sensory nerve supply to the surface of the scrotum. On the other hand, the pudendal nerve, which gives rise to the dorsal nerve of the penis, is responsible for innervations of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles, which are essential for erectile and ejaculatory functions.

      However, the long course of the genitofemoral nerve, which includes travel through the superficial inguinal ring along with the spermatic cord, makes it susceptible to injury. Any damage to this nerve can result in sensory loss in the scrotum, leading to discomfort and pain.

      The inferior anal and rectal nerve, which is also a branch of the pudendal nerve, provides sensory and motor innervation to the anal canal and rectum. These nerves play a crucial role in bowel and bladder control, and any damage to them can result in fecal and urinary incontinence.

      In summary, the male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions, and any damage to these nerves can result in discomfort, pain, and loss of function. It is essential to understand the anatomy and function of these nerves to prevent injury and provide appropriate treatment in case of damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of persistent abdominal cramping,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of persistent abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea that has been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stools, no unexplained weight loss, and no fatigue. Her medical history includes obesity, but there is no family history of any relevant conditions.

      Upon examination, her heart rate is 80 bpm, her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg, and she has no fever. Both her abdominal and pelvic exams are unremarkable, and there is no pallor or jaundice.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Urgently refer to gastroenterology

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA-125

      Explanation:

      If a woman aged 50 or older presents with persistent symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), such as cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea, ovarian cancer should be suspected even without other symptoms like unexplained weight loss or fatigue. This is because ovarian cancer often presents with non-specific symptoms similar to IBS and rarely occurs for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. It is important to measure serum CA-125 to help diagnose ovarian cancer. An abdominal and pelvic examination should also be carried out, but if this is normal, measuring CA-125 is the next step. Ultrasound scans of the abdomen and pelvis are recommended once CA-125 has been measured, and if these suggest malignancy, other ultrasounds may be considered under specialist guidance. Measuring anti-TTG antibodies is not necessary in this case, as IBS rarely presents for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is not appropriate unless the patient has features of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      73.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. After workup, including blood tests, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a chest X-ray, a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected.
      In which situation might a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan be preferred to a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to confirm a diagnosis of PE?

      Your Answer: Wells PE score of 3

      Correct Answer: Renal impairment

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism: Considerations and Limitations

      When evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), choosing the appropriate imaging test can be challenging. Several factors need to be considered, including the patient’s medical history, clinical presentation, and available resources. Here are some examples of how different patient characteristics can influence the choice of imaging test:

      Renal impairment: A V/Q scan may be preferred over a CTPA in patients with renal impairment, as the latter uses radiocontrast that can be nephrotoxic.

      Abnormal chest X-ray: If the chest X-ray is abnormal, a V/Q scan may not be the best option, as it can be difficult to interpret. A CTPA would be more appropriate in this case.

      Wells PE score of 3: The Wells score alone does not dictate the choice of imaging test. A D-dimer blood test should be obtained first, and if positive, a CTPA or V/Q scan may be necessary.

      Weekend admission: Availability of imaging tests may be limited during weekends. A CTPA scan may be more feasible than a V/Q scan, as the latter requires nuclear medicine facilities that may not be available out of hours.

      History of COPD: In patients with lung abnormalities such as severe COPD, a V/Q scan may be challenging to interpret. A CTPA would be a better option in this case.

      In summary, choosing the right imaging test for suspected PE requires careful consideration of the patient’s characteristics and available resources. Consultation with a radiologist may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female patient presents at the outpatient clinic with an androgen-secreting tumor....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents at the outpatient clinic with an androgen-secreting tumor. She is curious about the most probable location of the tumor.

      Can you identify the site where androgens are primarily produced?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Correct Answer: Zona reticularis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Function of the Kidneys and Adrenal Glands

      The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneum on the posterior abdominal wall, with the right kidney slightly lower than the left due to the size of the right lobe of the liver. The suprarenal glands, also known as adrenal glands, are situated between the kidneys and the diaphragm. Each gland has two parts: the outer cortex and the inner medulla. The cortex is divided into three zones that produce different types of steroids, while the medulla synthesizes and secretes catecholamines.

      The suprarenal cortex is responsible for producing three classes of steroids: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. Glucocorticoids are produced in the zona fasciculata, mineralocorticoids in the zona glomerulosa, and androgens in the zona reticularis. The suprarenal medulla, on the other hand, is a mass of nervous tissue that synthesizes and secretes adrenaline. This tissue is derived from neural crest cells associated with the sympathetic nervous system.

      In summary, the kidneys and adrenal glands play important roles in the body’s endocrine system. The kidneys filter waste products from the blood and regulate fluid balance, while the adrenal glands produce hormones that help regulate metabolism, blood pressure, and stress response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of difficulty maintaining an erection,...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of difficulty maintaining an erection, which has been ongoing for some time and is causing problems in his relationship. He is generally healthy, except for high blood pressure that is managed with amlodipine. He reports still experiencing morning erections and has not noticed any changes in his sex drive. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 145/78 mmHg, and his BMI is 30 kg/m2. His abdominal, genital, and prostate exams are all normal. What is the most crucial test to rule out any organic causes for his difficulty maintaining an erection?

      Your Answer: HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: Assessing Cardiovascular Risk Factors

      Erectile dysfunction can have both psychological and organic causes. In this case, the patient still experiences morning erections, suggesting a functional overlay. However, it is important to screen for cardiovascular risk factors, as they are the most common cause of erectile dysfunction. This includes assessing HbA1c or fasting blood glucose and lipid profile, especially since the patient has a high BMI and is at increased risk of diabetes and high cholesterol. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring may also be necessary, given the patient’s history of hypertension. While repeat blood pressure checks are important, they would not rule out other organic causes for the patient’s symptoms. It is crucial to investigate for both organic and psychological causes of erectile dysfunction, even if the cause is believed to be functional. Prostate-specific antigen testing is not necessary in this case, as the genital and prostate examination were normal. Testosterone levels may also be assessed, but since the patient reports good libido and morning erections, low testosterone is unlikely to be the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      84.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition commonly diagnosed following birth, a teenager...

    Correct

    • Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition commonly diagnosed following birth, a teenager whose mother and brother both have PKU but he himself does not, is seeking genetic counselling. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance: The Case of Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that results from a specific enzyme deficiency, causing phenylalanine to accumulate in the body. PKU is an autosomal-recessive disease, meaning that both parents must carry the abnormal gene for their child to inherit the disease. In the case of a teenager whose mother has PKU and father is a carrier, there is a 50% chance of inheriting the disease and a 50% chance of being a carrier. However, if the teenager does not have PKU, it means he has inherited one abnormal gene from his mother and is a carrier with a 100% chance. Early detection and treatment of PKU can prevent intellectual disability. Understanding autosomal-recessive inheritance is crucial in predicting the likelihood of inheriting genetic disorders like PKU.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old man without medical history is beginning treatment with tranylcypromine for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man without medical history is beginning treatment with tranylcypromine for his depression. What foods should he be cautioned against consuming?

      Your Answer: Spinach

      Correct Answer: Cheese

      Explanation:

      To prevent a hypertensive crisis, individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should steer clear of tyramine-containing foods, such as cheese. Other foods have not been found to have an interaction with MAOIs.

      Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors and their Adverse Effects

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are drugs that inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is responsible for the breakdown of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and noradrenaline in the presynaptic cell. Non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors, such as tranylcypromine and phenelzine, are used in the treatment of atypical depression and other psychiatric disorders. However, they are not commonly used due to their adverse effects.

      One of the main adverse effects of non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors is hypertensive reactions when consuming tyramine-containing foods such as cheese, pickled herring, Bovril, Oxo, Marmite, and broad beans. This is because monoamine oxidase normally breaks down tyramine, but when inhibited by the drug, tyramine can accumulate and cause a sudden increase in blood pressure. Therefore, patients taking non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors must adhere to a strict diet that avoids these foods.

      Another adverse effect of non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors is anticholinergic effects, which can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. These effects are due to the inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, acetylcholine levels increase and can lead to these side effects.

      In conclusion, while non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors can be effective in treating certain psychiatric disorders, they are not commonly used due to their adverse effects. Patients taking these drugs must adhere to a strict diet and be monitored for potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 17-year-old male student spontaneously disrobed while watching a film. He saw wavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male student spontaneously disrobed while watching a film. He saw wavy lines on the screen and then reported a brief episode of mental blankness, followed soon after by a headache and extreme fatigue.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophreniform disorder

      Correct Answer: Partial complex seizure or Focal Impaired Awareness epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Neuropsychiatric Syndromes and Seizure Disorders: Understanding the Differences

      Seizure disorders can be complex and varied, with different symptoms and causes. One type of seizure disorder is the partial complex seizure (PCS), which is confined to the limbic structures of the brain. Symptoms of PCS can include visual distortions and disruptions of cognitive function. Patients may also experience intense dysphoria, anxiety, or rage during or after a seizure. However, organised, directed violent behaviour is not typical of a seizure.

      Another type of seizure disorder is the generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, which can cause a loss of consciousness and convulsions. Inhibition-type behaviour is not typical of this disorder, and there is no history of tonic-clonic seizure activity.

      Schizophreniform disorder is a condition that involves schizophrenic symptoms of short duration. Patients with repeated focal seizures may exhibit personality changes that closely resemble chronic schizophrenia, such as passivity, unusual sexual behaviour, anhedonia, obsessiveness, religiosity, and psychosis.

      Migraine behavioural syndrome can involve visual auras, but it is unlikely to involve bizarre behaviour such as inappropriate disrobing. Finally, exhibitionism involves attracting attention to oneself, such as compulsive exposure of genitals in public.

      Understanding the differences between these neuropsychiatric syndromes and seizure disorders is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old nulliparous woman is undergoing evaluation at the Infertility Clinic. Initial assessments,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old nulliparous woman is undergoing evaluation at the Infertility Clinic. Initial assessments, including thyroid function tests and mid-luteal phase progesterone and prolactin levels, are within normal limits. Semen analysis also shows no abnormalities. No sexually transmitted infections were found.
      She experiences regular and heavy menstrual periods, accompanied by dysmenorrhoea that begins 1-2 days before the onset of bleeding. She also reports deep dyspareunia. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals no abnormalities.
      Which investigation is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) abdomen pelvis

      Correct Answer: Exploratory laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Modalities for Endometriosis: Exploratory Laparoscopy, Transabdominal Ultrasound, Hysterosalpingography, MRI Abdomen Pelvis, and CA-125

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the endometrial cavity, causing cyclical proliferation and bleeding. It can lead to scarring, adhesions, and cysts with haemorrhagic contents. The classic symptoms are dyspareunia, infertility, cyclical pelvic pain, and dysmenorrhoea. Diagnosis is often made through Exploratory laparoscopy, where small, dark purple-black spots on the peritoneum can be identified and sampled for histological analysis. Transabdominal ultrasound is not very sensitive at detecting small deposits, but can detect endometriotic cysts. Hysterosalpingography is recommended for investigating infertility and recurrent miscarriage, but is not a definitive diagnosis for endometriosis. MRI of the pelvis is sensitive for endometriomas and adnexal masses, but not small deposits. CA-125 testing is not recommended for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      133.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An ophthalmology clinic is treating a 75-year-old man with bilateral primary open-angle glaucoma....

    Correct

    • An ophthalmology clinic is treating a 75-year-old man with bilateral primary open-angle glaucoma. Despite using latanoprost eye drops, his intraocular pressures remain high. The ophthalmologist now needs to add a second topical agent to reduce intraocular pressure by decreasing the rate of aqueous humour production. What class of drug should be considered next?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta blockers, like timolol, are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous humour. They are commonly used as a first-line or second-line treatment, either alone or in combination with a prostaglandin analogue. Topical antimuscarinics should not be used as they can increase IOP, while pilocarpine can be used to reduce it. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are available for glaucoma treatment, but not carbonic anhydrase analogues. Topical corticosteroids are not used for glaucoma. If a patient is not responding well to their current treatment, guidelines recommend trying a drug from a different therapeutic class rather than adding a second prostaglandin analogue.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events which occurred earlier in the day. The father describes multiple events throughout the day whereby his daughter has been sitting on the floor and suddenly stops what she is doing, becoming somewhat vacant. She would not respond to anything that he said. He describes the events lasting for around five seconds and they end quite rapidly. She is not aware of these events and cannot recall any odd feelings. The father is very worried and is sure that this is not normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atypical absence seizure

      Correct Answer: Typical absence seizure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Absence Seizures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Absence seizures are a type of seizure that typically begins in childhood, between the ages of four and seven years. They can occur several times every day and are characterized by an immediate distraction from what is being done and vacant staring into space, accompanied by unresponsiveness lasting for around 5–10 seconds. The event will usually terminate as quickly as it commences, with the child immediately carrying on with whatever they were doing.

      Diagnosing absence seizures can be challenging, as they can be mistaken for daydreaming or other types of seizures. Atypical absence seizures have been reported to start slowly and also gradually fade away, while focal dyscognitive seizures are more likely to include focal automatic behaviors such as lip smacking and mumbling.

      To differentiate between absence seizures and other conditions, clinical tests such as hyperventilation and electroencephalogram (EEG) can be implemented. It is also important to consider the duration of the seizure and any accompanying symptoms, such as myoclonic jerks or confusion.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of absence seizures is crucial for proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has been experiencing a racing heart for the past year. She also feels sweaty and sometimes has difficulty breathing. Despite seeing a cardiologist, no abnormalities were found in her heart. The patient admits to worrying about various things, which has affected her relationships with her loved ones. She also suffers from insomnia 3-4 nights a week. The patient has no significant medical history, but her cousin has a history of depression. On examination, the patient's heart rate is 89 bpm, and her palms are sweaty. Blood tests show no abnormalities, including normal thyroid function and calcium levels. Which neuroendocrine axis is involved in the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid (HPT)

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA)

      Explanation:

      The Role of Hypothalamic-Pituitary Axes in Health and Disease

      The hypothalamic-pituitary axes play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body. Among these axes, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is particularly important in the pathophysiology of anxiety disorders. Overactivation of the HPA axis leads to the release of catecholamines, resulting in the fight or flight response. Environmental factors and genetics may contribute to the development of anxiety disorders, but the final common pathway is the dysregulation of the HPA axis.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis is involved in thyroid disorders, such as hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. However, normal thyroid function rules out this axis as a cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is responsible for the release of sex hormones, such as oestrogen and testosterone. Disorders affecting the HPG axis can impact puberty and sexual development.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-prolactin (HPP) axis regulates the release of prolactin, which acts on the mammary glands. Medications can cause dysregulation of the HPP axis, resulting in hyperprolactinaemia or hypoprolactinaemia.

      Finally, the hypothalamic-pituitary-somatotropic (HPS) axis is involved in the release of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1. Dysregulation of the HPS axis can lead to growth hormone deficiency and Laron syndrome.

      Understanding the role of these hypothalamic-pituitary axes is crucial in diagnosing and treating various health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been occurring for the past 5 months. He has been feeling fatigued lately and occasionally experiences mild itching on his arms. He denies any pain or weight loss. The patient has a history of ulcerative colitis, which was diagnosed 13 years ago and has been managed with mesalazine, anti-diarrhoeals, and steroids. The GP orders liver function tests, which reveal the following results:
      total bilirubin 38 mmol/l
      aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 32 iu/l
      alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 iu/l
      alkaline phosphatase 310 u/l.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Cholestatic Jaundice in a Patient with UC

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that should be considered in a patient with UC who presents with a raised alkaline phosphatase level. This is because approximately two-thirds of patients with PSC also have coexisting UC, and between 3% and 8% of UC sufferers will develop PSC. Chronic cholecystitis would present with pain, which is not present in this patient, making PSC the more likely diagnosis. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain and obstructive liver function tests, which are not present in this case. Primary biliary cholangitis is more likely to affect women aged 30-60, and given the patient’s history of UC, PSC is more likely. Pancreatic carcinoma would be associated with weight loss and obstructive liver function tests. Therefore, in a patient with UC presenting with cholestatic jaundice, PSC should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at night. His general practitioner referred him for evaluation. During fundoscopy, the doctor observes distinct red patches. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is a lifelong smoker. What is the most probable diagnosis, and what is the most suitable treatment?

      Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for wet AMD is anti-VEGF therapy. Wet age-related macular degeneration, also known as exudative or neovascular macular degeneration, is caused by choroidal neovascularization, which can lead to rapid vision loss due to fluid and blood leakage. Symptoms include reduced visual acuity, particularly for near objects, worse vision at night, and red patches visible on fundoscopy indicating fluid leakage or hemorrhage. Anti-VEGF therapy targets vascular endothelial growth factor, a potent mitogen that increases vascular permeability in patients with wet ARMD, reducing leakage. Treatment should begin as soon as possible to prevent further vision loss.

      Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is treated with aspirin and is caused by a variety of conditions, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. It typically presents as a sudden loss of vision, as if a curtain is coming down.

      Cataract surgery is the appropriate treatment for cataracts, which cause reduced vision, faded color vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex may be observed on fundoscopy.

      High-dose steroids are used to treat optic neuritis, which presents with unilateral vision loss over hours or days, red desaturation, pain, and scotoma.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Colorectal (3/4) 75%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/4) 50%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/3) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Passmed