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  • Question 1 - A study can only make confident claims about cause and effect if it...

    Incorrect

    • A study can only make confident claims about cause and effect if it has what?

      Your Answer: Good criterion validity

      Correct Answer: Good internal validity

      Explanation:

      Claims about cause and effect require good internal validity.

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A new test for heart disease has a specificity of 95% and a...

    Incorrect

    • A new test for heart disease has a specificity of 95% and a sensitivity of 98%. A thousand people under the age of 50 undergo the new test.

      How many of these individuals will test negative?

      Your Answer: 20

      Correct Answer: 950

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      20.8
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presented with pain, weakness, and numbness in her right arm...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presented with pain, weakness, and numbness in her right arm one day after undergoing surgery on her right shoulder. Upon neurological examination, it was found that the patient had full power in all upper limb movements except for a 4/5 power in right elbow flexion. Sensation was normal throughout the upper limbs except for a specific area on the lateral part of the forearm. The surgeon suspects that the nerve supplying the biceps brachii in the right arm was damaged during the surgical procedure. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences weakness in elbow flexion, it may be due to an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. This nerve is responsible for supplying the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and brachialis muscles, as well as the skin on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Other nerves in the arm include the axillary nerve, which supplies the teres minor and deltoid muscles, as well as skin over the lower half of the deltoid and adjacent areas of the arm. The median nerve supplies most of the muscles in the anterior part of the forearm, as well as skin over the lateral portion of the palm, the palmar surface of the thumb, and the lateral two and a half fingers. The radial nerve supplies the supinator and extensor muscles in the forearm, as well as skin on the posterior side of the lateral aspect of the hand, the dorsum of the thumb, and the proximal part of the lateral two and a half fingers. Finally, the ulnar nerve supplies one and a half muscles in the anterior part of the forearm, as well as skin over the medial portion of the palm and the posterior surface of the medial part of the hand.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      25.9
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  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On the day before his expected discharge, he experiences severe diarrhea without blood and needs intravenous fluids. A request for stool culture is made.

      What would the microbiology report likely indicate as the responsible microbe?

      Your Answer: Gram-negative coccus

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacillus

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of gram-positive bacillus that can cause pseudomembranous colitis, particularly after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.8
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  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man, with a medical history of bipolar disorder, hypertension, atrial fibrillation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, with a medical history of bipolar disorder, hypertension, atrial fibrillation, benign prostate hypertrophy and osteoarthritis, is admitted to the emergency department due to a suspected lithium overdose. Despite only missing his morning dose of lithium, his plasma lithium concentration is found to be abnormally high. The physician suspects that one of his medications may be the cause.

      Which medication could potentially be responsible for the abnormal results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication with a high risk of toxicity, as it has a narrow therapeutic index and a long plasma half-life. The risk of toxicity is further increased by drugs that hinder the excretion of lithium through the kidneys. These drugs include bendroflumethiazide, diuretics, NSAIDs, metronidazole, ACE inhibitors, and ATII receptor inhibitors. Additionally, any factor that impairs renal function can affect lithium excretion. In this patient, the use of losartan for hypertension may increase the risk of lithium toxicity due to reduced renal clearance, even though there has been no lithium overdose. The other medications are not known to have an increased risk of lithium toxicity.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 6 - An 87-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease is admitted with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. His inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest x-ray reveals focal patchy consolidation in the right lung. He requires oxygen supplementation as his oxygen saturation level is 87% on room air. What factor causes a decrease in haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in temperature

      Explanation:

      What effect does pyrexia have on the oxygen dissociation curve?

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of double vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of double vision when she looks to the left. Upon examination, you observe that her right eye adducts minimally while her left eye abducts with nystagmus. She reports no issues with her hearing or speech and is able to comprehend your instructions. You suspect that a brain lesion may be responsible for her symptoms.

      What is the probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial longitudinal fasciculus

      Explanation:

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. This patient is experiencing impaired adduction of the right eye and horizontal nystagmus of the left eye upon abduction due to a lesion on the right side.

      Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus and results in fluent speech with impaired comprehension. This patient does not exhibit any speech or comprehension issues.

      A lesion in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, cortical blindness, or visual agnosia, but it does not cause nystagmus or impaired adduction.

      Broca’s aphasia, caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, results in non-fluent, halting speech, but comprehension remains intact. This patient’s speech is unaffected.

      Conduction aphasia, caused by a lesion in the arcuate fasciculus, results in poor repetition despite fluent speech and normal comprehension. This is not the case for this patient.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of feeling fatigued for...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of feeling fatigued for a few months. During the examination, the GP observes poorly healed wounds on the patient's knees, which he sustained while playing rugby. The GP also notices follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, and swollen gums that bleed easily. The patient admits to being a smoker and consuming an unhealthy diet consisting mainly of fast food. What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a possible vitamin C deficiency (scurvy), which can impair collagen synthesis and disrupt connective tissue. Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage are particularly indicative of scurvy, and the patient’s smoking and poor diet increase their risk. While reduced thyroxine levels could indicate hypothyroidism and explain the tiredness, they would not account for the skin symptoms. Vitamin K deficiency could cause bleeding and bruising, but reduced haemoglobin levels may suggest anaemia without explaining the other symptoms.

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.

      The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old primigravida, at 8 weeks gestation presents for her prenatal check-up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida, at 8 weeks gestation presents for her prenatal check-up. She reports taking a daily vitamin and denies any use of tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. On examination, her blood pressure is 118/66 mmHg and pulse is 78/min. Bimanual examination reveals a 10-week-sized non-tender uterus with no adnexal masses or tenderness. Ultrasound shows two 8-week intrauterine gestations with normal heartbeats, a single placenta, and no dividing intertwine membrane.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monochorionic monoamniotic twins

      Explanation:

      Twin Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Twin pregnancies occur in approximately 1 out of 105 pregnancies, with the majority being dizygotic or non-identical twins. Monozygotic or identical twins, on the other hand, develop from a single ovum that has divided to form two embryos. However, monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with increased risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and twin-to-twin transfusions. The incidence of dizygotic twins is increasing due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilisation, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean.

      Antenatal complications of twin pregnancies include polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and antepartum haemorrhage. Fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations, especially in monozygotic twins. Labour complications may also arise, such as postpartum haemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement.

      Management of twin pregnancies involves rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labour, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most are induced at 38-40 weeks. Overall, twin pregnancies require close monitoring and management to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose 15.8mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Prognostic Score is a useful tool for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis. If three or more of the following criteria are present within the first 48 hours, it is likely that the patient is experiencing severe pancreatitis and should be referred to the High Dependency Unit or Intensive Care Unit. Conversely, if the score is less than three, severe pancreatitis is unlikely. The criteria include: age over 55 years, white blood cell count over 15 x 109/L, urea over 16 mmol/L, glucose over 10 mmol/L, pO2 less than 8 kPa (60 mm Hg), albumin less than 32 g/L, calcium less than 2 mmol/L, LDH over 600 units/L, and AST/ALT over 200 units. Based on these criteria, the only option that meets the threshold for severe pancreatitis is a glucose level of 15.8 mmol/L.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the hospital complaining of chest pain, vomiting, and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the hospital complaining of chest pain, vomiting, and sweating for the past two hours. She has a medical history of hypertension and peripheral arterial disease. Despite using sublingual nitrate spray at home, the pain has not subsided. Upon admission, she is found to be tachycardic and tachypneic, but no other respiratory or cardiac abnormalities are detected. An ECG reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as ST segment depression in leads I and aVL. Which coronary artery is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The observed ECG alterations are indicative of an ischemic injury in the lower region of the heart. The ST depressions in leads I and aVL, which are located in the lateral wall, are common reciprocal changes that occur during an inferior myocardial infarction. Typically, the right coronary artery is the most probable site of damage in cases involving lesions in the lower wall.

      Understanding Acute Coronary Syndrome

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease. It includes ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS usually develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries. This can lead to a gradual narrowing of the arteries, resulting in less blood and oxygen reaching the myocardium, causing angina. It can also lead to sudden plaque rupture, resulting in a complete occlusion of the artery and no blood or oxygen reaching the area of myocardium, causing a myocardial infarction.

      There are many factors that can increase the chance of a patient developing ischaemic heart disease, including unmodifiable risk factors such as increasing age, male gender, and family history, and modifiable risk factors such as smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and obesity.

      The classic and most common symptom of ACS is chest pain, which is typically central or left-sided and may radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms include dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. Patients presenting with ACS often have very few physical signs, and the two most important investigations when assessing a patient with chest pain are an electrocardiogram (ECG) and cardiac markers such as troponin.

      Once a diagnosis of ACS has been made, treatment involves preventing worsening of the presentation, revascularising the vessel if occluded, and treating pain. For patients who’ve had a STEMI, the priority of management is to reopen the blocked vessel. For patients who’ve had an NSTEMI, a risk stratification tool is used to decide upon further management. Patients who’ve had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to help reduce the risk of a further event, which includes aspirin, a second antiplatelet if appropriate, a beta-blocker, an ACE inhibitor, and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of ibuprofen. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of ibuprofen. On your first contact with him, you notice that he is very unwell.

      His observations are show below :

      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 36 breaths per minute
      Temperature 37.6º
      Oxygen saturations 97%

      Select the most appropriate option that correctly explains the abnormality detected on observation

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct stimulation of the medullary respiratory centres by aspirin resulting in hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      The option of a panic attack is unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are not consistent with a panic attack and there are no signs of hypoxia mentioned in the stem. Therefore, this option is incorrect. While hospitalization can cause anxiety in patients, it is unlikely to be the correct answer as we already know the underlying cause of the patient’s anxiety. Similarly, while overdosing on drugs can lead to feelings of guilt and anxiety, we know the exact cause of the patient’s hyperventilation, making this answer incorrect.

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of dysuria, haematuria, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of dysuria, haematuria, and painful ejaculation. During digital rectal examination, his prostate gland is found to be intensely tender. The physician prescribes gentamicin for the treatment of prostatitis. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 30S ribosomal unit

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides hinder the process of protein synthesis by targeting the 30S ribosomal subunit. By binding to this subunit, they cause mRNA to be misread, leading to the production of abnormal peptides that accumulate within the cell and ultimately result in its death. These antibiotics are classified as bactericidal.

      Rifampicin, on the other hand, works by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which leads to a suppression of RNA synthesis and ultimately causes cell death.

      Quinolones prevent bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating by inhibiting DNA topoisomerase.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase, which inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is a crucial precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway, and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

      Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, which blocks the biosynthesis of ergosterol, a vital component of fungal cell membranes.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 14 - At what age is a child most vulnerable to infection due to their...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is a child most vulnerable to infection due to their underdeveloped humoral response, and what type of antibodies can they receive from their mother during pregnancy?

      A child in the early stages of life may be susceptible to infections as their humoral response is not yet fully developed. However, during pregnancy, a mother can pass on some immunity to her child through the placenta. Which specific type of antibodies are capable of crossing the placental barrier?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgG is the sole antibody that can cross the placenta and complement deficiencies. This is achieved through receptor-mediated active transport, which is highly specific to IgG. The transfer of this antibody is contingent on a healthy placenta. The transfer process commences at 17 weeks of gestation and intensifies to the point where fetal IgG levels surpass maternal levels at 40 weeks. No other antibodies are transferred.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of edema...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of edema around his eyes and ankles. Upon further inquiry, he reports having foamy urine and is diagnosed with hypertension. The physician suggests that a biopsy of the affected organ would be the most informative diagnostic tool.

      Considering the organ most likely involved in his symptoms, what would be the optimal approach for obtaining a biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posteriorly, inferior to the 12 rib and adjacent to the spine

      Explanation:

      The safest way to access the kidneys is from the patient’s back, as they are retroperitoneal structures. Attempting to access them from the front or side would involve passing through the peritoneum, which increases the risk of infection. The kidneys are located near the spine and can be accessed below the 12th rib.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A woman in her mid-twenties comes to the clinic with symptoms of unilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her mid-twenties comes to the clinic with symptoms of unilateral facial weakness, slurring, and weakness in one arm that lasted for a few minutes. After diagnosis, she is found to have experienced a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). She has a medical history of migraine and is currently using a form of contraception. Which type of contraception is most likely to have caused her TIA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with migraine who use combined contraception have a higher risk of stroke. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a sign that a stroke may occur. The risk of stroke for women with migraine using combined contraception is 8 per 100,000 at age 20 and increases to 40 per 100,000 at age 40.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 17 - What are the root values of the sciatic nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the root values of the sciatic nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4 to S3

      Explanation:

      The origin of the sciatic nerve is typically from the fourth lumbar vertebrae to the third sacral vertebrae.

      Understanding the Sciatic Nerve

      The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.

      The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old woman has been referred to the osteoporosis clinic by her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has been referred to the osteoporosis clinic by her GP for alternate bone-sparing treatment. She recently had a bone density scan after experiencing a low impact distal radial fracture. Her T-score for her hip and spine were -2.6 and -2.2 respectively. Despite trying different bisphosphate preparations such as alendronate and risedronate, she experienced significant gastrointestinal side effects. The clinic has decided to start her on a RANKL inhibitor. What treatment is being referred to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      Denosumab is the correct answer as it inhibits RANKL and prevents the development of osteoclasts, which are responsible for bone resorption. Strontium ranelate promotes bone formation and reduces bone resorption, while teriparatide promotes bone formation and zoledronic acid slows down the rate of bone change and is used in the treatment of osteoporosis and fracture prevention in cancer patients.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 19 - Which blood vessel in the systemic circulation causes the highest amount of resistance...

    Incorrect

    • Which blood vessel in the systemic circulation causes the highest amount of resistance to blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterioles

      Explanation:

      Arterioles and Total Peripheral Vascular Resistance

      Arterioles play a crucial role in determining the total peripheral vascular resistance due to their small calibre, larger surface area, and higher tensile strength compared to capillaries. These vessels are responsible for regulating blood flow to the capillaries and organs by constricting or dilating. The constriction of arterioles increases resistance to blood flow, while dilation decreases resistance.

      The high tensile strength of arterioles allows them to withstand the pressure of blood flow and maintain their shape, which is important for regulating blood pressure. Additionally, their larger surface area allows for more precise control of blood flow to specific areas of the body. Overall, arterioles are essential in regulating blood flow and maintaining proper blood pressure throughout the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 20 - Sophie attends her follow-up clinic appointment after her successful liver transplant. Her current...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie attends her follow-up clinic appointment after her successful liver transplant. Her current medications include paracetamol, loratadine, salbutamol inhaler, prednisolone and mycophenolate.

      A urine dipstick performed in clinic shows the following:

      Nitrites -
      Leucocytes -
      Glucose ++
      Protein -
      Blood -

      Based on these results you decide to check her blood sugar levels, which is shown below.

      Capillary blood glucose 9.2 mmol/L

      Which of her medications is most likely responsible for her elevated blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention

      Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.

      Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 21 - A woman punishes her 10-year-old son for breaking his younger sibling's toy by...

    Incorrect

    • A woman punishes her 10-year-old son for breaking his younger sibling's toy by removing one of his favourite toys from the shelf. Her son becomes tearful and wets his bed. He was a previously toilet-trained child.

      Which ego defence mechanism is demonstrated by the 10-year-old's behaviour of wetting his bed after being punished for breaking his sibling's toy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regression

      Explanation:

      Regression refers to the involuntary process of reverting back to earlier ways of dealing with the world, which is different from fixation. This phenomenon is commonly observed in children who are experiencing stress due to factors such as illness, punishment, or the arrival of a new sibling. For instance, a child who was previously toilet-trained may start bedwetting again under such circumstances. Other related psychological concepts include reaction formation, fixation, and displacement.

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. On which...

    Incorrect

    • Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. On which chromosome is this gene located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 7

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 23 - You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to prepare a presentation for the geriatric journal club on a novel drug in the treatment of osteoporosis.

      You find a relevant recent systematic review and meta-analysis which combines data from multiple randomized controlled trials investigating the effectiveness of the novel drug on bone mineral density in elderly patients with osteoporosis.

      A figure in the meta-analysis shows each study as a dot on a plot where the x-axis represents the effect size for each study and the y-axis is the standard error of the effect size for each study.

      What is the name of the figure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A forest plot is a graphical representation of the results of multiple studies on a particular topic. It displays the effect size and confidence intervals for each study, with a diamond at the bottom indicating the average effect size. On the other hand, a Kaplan-Meier curve is a visual representation of a survival function, showing the probability of an event occurring at a given time. The y-axis typically represents the probability of survival, while the x-axis represents time.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman is referred for amniocentesis after her 12-week ultrasound scan revealed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is referred for amniocentesis after her 12-week ultrasound scan revealed increased fetal nuchal translucency. Her combined test results indicate a diagnosis of Down's syndrome. She expresses her desire to terminate the pregnancy but is worried about the possibility of the condition being genetic and recurring in future pregnancies.

      What is the probable cytogenetic basis for this disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal non-disjunction

      Explanation:

      Down’s syndrome is primarily caused by non-disjunction during maternal meiosis, which accounts for the majority of cases. Paternal errors contribute to only a small fraction of cases of Down’s syndrome. In rare cases, Robertsonian translocation can also be attributed to paternal DNA.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea and is in a critical condition. Despite the absence of peritonism, which of the following arterial blood gas patterns is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH 7.20, pO2 9.0, pCO2 3.5, Base excess -10, Lactate 8

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is experiencing metabolic acidosis as a result of a mesenteric infarction.

      Disorders of Acid-Base Balance

      The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 26 - You have been requested by the GP to have a conversation with an...

    Incorrect

    • You have been requested by the GP to have a conversation with an 85-year-old man regarding his recent diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is the most prevalent cause of dementia in the UK, and it is characterized by the abnormal hyperphosphorylation and aggregation of tau protein, which is primarily found in neurons. What is the typical outcome of this protein's hyperphosphorylation or abnormal phosphorylation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced binding to microtubules, and reduced microtubule stability

      Explanation:

      The binding of Tau protein to microtubules, which helps to stabilize their assembly, is inhibited by phosphorylation. This can lead to decreased microtubule stability. Blood pressure is not typically impacted by this process. Lewy bodies are more commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease, while reduced acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction are a hallmark of myasthenia gravis.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old male attends a dermatology clinic after being referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male attends a dermatology clinic after being referred by his GP for severe eczema. Despite treatment with both emollients and topical corticosteroids, the patient's eczema remains very severe and is causing him much psychological distress. As a result, the doctor decides to prescribe azathioprine.

      What are the necessary checks that must be done before starting the treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase activity

      Explanation:

      Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to check for thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency (TPMT) to avoid the risk of myelosuppression in patients with reduced enzyme activity. Azathioprine is commonly used as an immunosuppressant for conditions like IBD and severe refractory eczema. However, an ECG and lipid profile are not necessary before starting treatment with azathioprine. On the other hand, thyroid function tests are required before initiating treatment with amiodarone, while renal function and electrolytes should be checked before starting treatment with drugs like ACE inhibitors.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 28 - A 14-year-old girl presents with bilateral swelling around her eyes and ankles. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with bilateral swelling around her eyes and ankles. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, a urine dipstick and blood tests are performed, revealing the following results:

      Blood: Negative
      Protein: +++
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leukocytes: Negative
      eGFR: 95 mL/min/1.73m2 (>90 mL/min/1.73m2)
      Albumin: 3.0 g/dL (3.5 - 5.5 g/dL)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent reason for nephrotic syndrome in children is minimal change disease, a type of glomerulonephritis. This question assesses your comprehension of glomerulonephritis and the populations it affects. The child in question displays symptoms of nephrotic syndrome, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is an inappropriate answer as it typically appears a few weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as pharyngitis. This patient was previously healthy, and this condition would cause a nephritic presentation with hematuria.

      Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is not the most probable answer as it is less common in children and more prevalent in adults.

      Minimal change disease is the correct answer as it is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in children and results in a nephrotic presentation.

      IgA nephropathy is not the most appropriate answer as it typically presents during or shortly after an upper respiratory tract infection. This child was previously healthy, and it would cause a nephritic, not a nephrotic, presentation.

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome in Children

      Nephrotic syndrome is a medical condition characterized by the presence of proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. This condition is commonly observed in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years old, with around 80% of cases attributed to minimal change glomerulonephritis. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is generally good, with 90% of cases responding well to high-dose oral steroids.

      Aside from the classic triad of symptoms, children with nephrotic syndrome may also experience hyperlipidaemia, a hypercoagulable state, and a higher risk of infection. These additional features are due to the loss of antithrombin III and immunoglobulins, respectively. Understanding the signs and symptoms of nephrotic syndrome in children is crucial for early detection and prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no personal or family history of lung issues and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests.

      Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis can be diagnosed through various methods, including chest radiography, histopathology, and pulmonary function tests.

      Chest radiography can reveal thickened bronchial walls, cystic lesions with fluid levels, collapsed areas with crowded pulmonary vasculature, and scarring, which are characteristic features of bronchiectasis.

      Histopathology, which is a more invasive investigation often done through autopsy or surgery, can show irreversible dilation of bronchial airways and bronchial wall thickening.

      However, high-resolution computerised tomography is a more favorable imaging technique as it is less invasive than histopathology.

      Pulmonary function tests are commonly used to diagnose bronchiectasis, but they should be used in conjunction with other investigations as they are not sensitive or specific enough to provide sufficient diagnostic evidence on their own. An obstructive pattern is the most common pattern encountered, but a restrictive pattern is also possible.

      Understanding the Causes of Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic inflammation or infection. There are various factors that can lead to this condition, including post-infective causes such as tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, and pneumonia. Cystic fibrosis, bronchial obstruction caused by lung cancer or foreign bodies, and immune deficiencies like selective IgA and hypogammaglobulinaemia can also contribute to bronchiectasis. Additionally, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), ciliary dyskinetic syndromes like Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome, and yellow nail syndrome are other potential causes. Understanding the underlying causes of bronchiectasis is crucial in developing effective treatment plans for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 30 - A 3-year-old child presents to their pediatrician with severe perianal itching that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child presents to their pediatrician with severe perianal itching that is particularly worse at night. The child has no known medical conditions and has been healthy up until this point. The birth history was unremarkable, and the child is up to date with their vaccinations. There have been no developmental concerns.

      After taking a thorough history, including asking about symptoms in other family members, the pediatrician uses the 'tape test' to make a diagnosis and prescribes appropriate treatment.

      What is the most probable cause of the child's pruritus in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterobius vermicularis infection

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a 2-year-old child with perianal itching, especially at night, is Enterobius vermicularis infection, commonly known as pinworms. This is a common condition in young children and can cause discomfort and restlessness due to the itching around the anus.

      The diagnosis can be confirmed through the tape test, where adhesive tape is applied around the anus of the child upon waking and then examined under a microscope for the presence of worms or their eggs. While haemorrhoids can also cause peri-anal itching, they are not the most probable diagnosis in this case, especially given the age of the child.

      Echinococcus granulosus infection, which causes hydatid disease and cysts, is not a likely diagnosis for perianal itching. Perianal eczema is another possibility, but it would typically present with visible signs upon inspection, and the tape test would not be used for diagnosis.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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