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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old woman is admitted to your intermediate care unit with a significant...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman is admitted to your intermediate care unit with a significant medical history of chronic alcoholism. She sustained a brain injury six weeks ago after falling down the stairs at home and is currently bedridden. She was transferred for further rehabilitation and is being fed through a percutaneous gastrostomy, which was inserted three days ago after an initial period of nasogastric tube feeding. The nursing staff reports that she has become increasingly unwell over the past 24 hours, with lethargy and confusion. Upon examination, she appears to be short of breath, and there is evidence of peripheral and pulmonary edema. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Refeeding Syndrome in Malnourished Patients

      Refeeding malnourished patients through enteral feeding requires careful monitoring of electrolytes and minerals. This is because refeeding can trigger a significant anabolic response that affects the levels of electrolytes and minerals essential to cellular function. Unfortunately, refeeding syndrome is often under-recognized and under-diagnosed. The metabolic changes that occur during refeeding can lead to marked hypophosphatemia and shifts in potassium, magnesium, glucose, and thiamine levels.

      Refeeding syndrome is primarily caused by hypophosphatemia and can result in severe cardiorespiratory failure, edema, confusion, convulsions, coma, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor patients undergoing refeeding to prevent and manage refeeding syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a wasp sting during a picnic at the park. She reports swelling and redness at the site of the sting that had begun to spread to her face.

      What is the best course of action for long-term management?

      Your Answer: Dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®), with repeat prescriptions every 3-4 months

      Correct Answer: Refer for venom immunotherapy and dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®)

      Explanation:

      Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of visual disturbance. He experienced...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of visual disturbance. He experienced a temporary loss of vision for approximately one hour, but his vision has since returned to normal. He did not report any headache. Upon evaluation and examination, the doctor suspects a diagnosis of retinal migraine.
      What is a characteristic feature of this condition?

      Your Answer: Visual aura affecting only one eye

      Explanation:

      Understanding Retinal Migraine: Symptoms and Features

      Retinal migraine is a type of migraine that primarily affects vision in one eye. Unlike a typical migraine aura, which affects both eyes, retinal migraine causes recurrent attacks of unilateral visual disturbance or blindness lasting from minutes to one hour, often with minimal or no headache. The visual disturbance typically starts as a mosaic pattern of scotomata that gradually enlarges, leading to total unilateral visual loss.

      Bilateral aura is not usually considered a feature of retinal migraine, and other diagnoses should be considered if both eyes are affected. Loss of consciousness and facial weakness are also not typical symptoms of retinal migraine and may indicate other underlying conditions.

      However, transient aphasia, a feature of classical migraine, may occur in patients who suffer from visual aura. It usually resolves within an hour or two, with complete resolution to normal function.

      It is important to rule out eye disease or vascular disease, mainly carotid artery disease, especially when risk factors for arteriosclerosis exist, particularly if there is a weakness of the facial muscles. Understanding the symptoms and features of retinal migraine can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease,...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following is a recognised complication of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, except:

      Your Answer: Anaemia

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a condition where gastric contents cause symptoms of oesophagitis. If GORD has not been investigated with endoscopy, it should be treated according to dyspepsia guidelines. However, if oesophagitis is confirmed through endoscopy, full dose proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should be given for 1-2 months. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given as required. If there is no response, double-dose PPIs should be given for 1 month.

      For endoscopically negative reflux disease, full dose PPIs should be given for 1 month. If there is a positive response, low dose treatment may be given on an as-required basis with a limited number of repeat prescriptions. If there is no response, H2RA or prokinetic should be given for one month.

      Complications of GORD include oesophagitis, ulcers, anaemia, benign strictures, Barrett’s oesophagus, and oesophageal carcinoma. It is important to manage GORD effectively to prevent these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about his fertility....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about his fertility. He and his partner have been trying to conceive for the past two years without success. He also reports that he has noticed his testicles appear to be shrinking. He is typically healthy, doesn't smoke or drink alcohol, exercises regularly, and is not taking any medications.
      During the examination, the patient is noted to have a muscular build, a BMI of 31 kg/m2 (normal range: 18–25 kg/m2), facial acne, and gynaecomastia.
      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Anabolic steroid use

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of male infertility and related symptoms

      Anabolic steroid use, unexplained infertility, Cushing’s disease, Klinefelter syndrome, and obesity are among the possible causes of male infertility and related symptoms. Anabolic steroid use can lead to a range of unwanted effects, including acne, gynaecomastia, testicular shrinkage, and altered mood, as well as physical and psychological dependence. Unexplained infertility affects a significant proportion of infertile men and couples, but additional symptoms such as gynaecomastia and acne may suggest anabolic steroid use. Cushing’s disease, caused by a pituitary adenoma, can produce a distinct pattern of symptoms, including truncal obesity, muscle weakness, gonadal dysfunction, and impaired immune function, but in a young and muscular gym-goer, anabolic steroid use is more likely. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder affecting 1 in 660 men, can cause small testes, hypogonadism, infertility, gynaecomastia, and learning disability, but not testicular shrinkage or acne. Obesity, especially with a BMI over 30 kg/m2, can also impair fertility, but is not associated with testicular shrinkage or acne. A careful history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help to establish the underlying cause of male infertility and related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who has been experiencing fatigue. All his full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and thyroid function tests were normal. The fasting plasma glucose result is provided below:

      Fasting plasma glucose 6.2 mmol/l

      What is the most suitable conclusion to draw from this finding?

      Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance - moderate risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Prediabetes - high risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The individual with a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level ranging from 6.1-6.9 mmol/l is identified as having impaired fasting glycaemia and should be treated as having prediabetes.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner because she is concerned about her weight, which is 56 kg. Her body mass index (BMI) is 18 kg/m2. She also reports prolonged fasts, sometimes not eating for a few days. She denies using laxatives or diuretics to help her lose weight. She is scared of putting on weight and has missed her last three periods. She has no known medical comorbidities.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eating Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and psychological consequences. When a patient presents with symptoms of an eating disorder, it is important to consider a range of differential diagnoses to ensure appropriate treatment. Here, we explore the key features of several eating disorders and related conditions, including anorexia nervosa, personality disorders, avoidant restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID), bulimia nervosa, and depression. By understanding the unique characteristics of each disorder, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide effective support for patients with eating disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result...

    Incorrect

    • You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 2200 ng/litre.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Referral to cardiology within 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call cardiologist

      Explanation:

      NT-proBNP Guidelines for Heart Failure Diagnosis

      NICE guidelines provide clear instructions for the interpretation of NT-proBNP levels in the diagnosis of heart failure. An NT-proBNP level above 2000ng/litre indicates a poor prognosis and requires urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks. For levels between 400 and 2000 ng/litre, referral should be made within 6 weeks. However, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use can reduce the reading. Therefore, careful consideration of these factors is necessary when interpreting NT-proBNP levels. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high blood pressure. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 142/88 mmHg and you believe that he requires a higher level of treatment. The patient's blood test results are as follows: Serum Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144), Serum Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Creatinine 75 µmol/L (60-110). Based on the most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136), what would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Add spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension

      Managing hypertension is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s role, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the latest NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136). Step 4 of the guidelines recommends seeking expert advice or adding low-dose spironolactone if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/l, and an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker if the blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/l. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled on optimal tolerated doses of four drugs, expert advice should be sought.

      It is important to note that hypertension management is a topic that may be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. Therefore, it is crucial to have a good understanding of the NICE guidelines on hypertension to perform well in the exam. By following the guidelines, general practitioners can provide optimal care to their patients with hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has no significant medical history and her routine blood tests (including fasting glucose) and ECG were unremarkable.

      What is the recommended target blood pressure for her while on amlodipine treatment?

      Your Answer: < 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The recommended blood pressure target for individuals under 80 years old during a clinic reading is 140/90 mmHg. However, the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) indicator for GPs practicing in England specifies a slightly higher target of below 150/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Passmed