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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old hospitalized patient is prescribed a combination of irinotecan and 5-fluorouracil with added folinic acid for metastatic colon cancer. The patient is informed about the significant side effects associated with these drugs, including severe diarrhea, nausea, and fatigue. What is the mechanism of action of irinotecan?
Your Answer: Pyrimidine antagonist
Correct Answer: Inhibition of topoisomerase I
Explanation:Irinotecan prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA by inhibiting topoisomerase I, an enzyme that regulates DNA supercoiling during mitosis and meiosis. Other topoisomerase inhibitors include topotecan, etoposide, and teniposide.
Azathioprine is a purine analogue that inhibits DNA polymerase, thereby halting DNA synthesis.
5-fluorouracil is a pyrimidine antagonist that inhibits thymidylate synthase, leading to a reduction in pyrimidine nucleotides.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib and erlotinib have significantly improved the prognosis for patients with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man with a history of multiple emergency department admissions for alcohol-related injuries and admissions under the general medical team for alcohol withdrawal is admitted after a twelve-day drinking binge. He presents with confusion, icterus, and hepatomegaly, with stigmata of chronic liver disease. Upon admission, his blood work shows thrombocytopenia, transaminitis with hyperbilirubinemia, and a severe coagulopathy. The diagnosis is severe acute alcoholic hepatitis. In liver disease-associated coagulopathy, which clotting factor is typically increased?
Your Answer: Factor II
Correct Answer: Factor VIII
Explanation:Coagulopathy in Liver Disease: Paradoxical Supra-normal Factor VIII and Increased Thrombosis Risk
In liver failure, the levels of all clotting factors decrease except for factor VIII, which paradoxically increases. This is because factor VIII is synthesized in endothelial cells throughout the body, unlike other clotting factors that are synthesized only in hepatic endothelial cells. Additionally, good hepatic function is required for the rapid clearance of activated factor VIII from the bloodstream, leading to further increases in circulating factor VIII. Despite conventional coagulation studies suggesting an increased risk of bleeding, patients with chronic liver disease are paradoxically at an increased risk of thrombosis formation. This is due to several factors, including reduced synthesis of natural anticoagulants such as protein C, protein S, and antithrombin, which are all decreased in chronic liver disease.
Reference:
Tripodi et al. An imbalance of pro- vs anticoagulation factors in plasma from patients with cirrhosis. Gastroenterology. 2009 Dec;137(6):2105-11. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is prescribed a medication by her physician. Upon reviewing the drug's properties, you observe that the rate of excretion remains constant despite an increase in its concentration.
Which medication exhibits this unique pharmacokinetic characteristic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:When drugs are excreted by zero-order kinetics, the rate at which they are eliminated from the body remains constant regardless of their concentration in the body. This is different from first-order kinetics, where the elimination rate is proportional to the drug’s plasma concentration. Some examples of drugs that follow zero-order kinetics include aspirin, phenytoin, ethanol, and fluoxetine, while drugs like amitriptyline, ampicillin, apixaban, and atenolol follow first-order kinetics.
Pharmacokinetics of Excretion
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain and difficulty hearing on one side. During the examination, you observe that she has a fever and a bulging tympanic membrane. What nerve transmits pain from the middle ear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The correct answer is the glossopharyngeal nerve, which is responsible for carrying sensation from the middle ear.
The ninth cranial nerve, or glossopharyngeal nerve, carries taste and sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, as well as sensation from various areas such as the pharyngeal wall, tonsils, pharyngotympanic tube, middle ear, tympanic membrane, external auditory canal, and auricle. It also provides motor fibers to the stylopharyngeus and parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland. Additionally, it carries information from the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus.
On the other hand, the seventh cranial nerve, or facial nerve, innervates the muscles of facial expression, stylohyoid, stapedius, and the posterior belly of digastric. It carries sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, auricle, and behind the auricle, and taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also provides parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular, sublingual, nasal, and lacrimal glands.
The eighth cranial nerve, or vestibulocochlear nerve, has a vestibular component that carries balance information from the labyrinths of the inner ear and a cochlear component that carries hearing information from the cochlea of the inner ear.
The twelfth cranial nerve, or hypoglossal nerve, supplies motor innervation to all of the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for palatoglossus.
Lastly, the maxillary nerve is the second division of the trigeminal nerve, the fifth cranial nerve, which carries sensation from the upper teeth and gingivae, the nasal cavity, and skin across the lower eyelids and cheeks.
Based on the patient’s symptoms of ear pain, the most likely diagnosis is otitis media, as indicated by her fever and the presence of a bulging tympanic membrane on otoscopy.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of hypothyroidism and rheumatoid arthritis. Upon examination, her blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 102 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L), B12 650 pg/mL (normal range: 150-900 pg/mL), MCV 110 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl), platelets 324 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC 6.8 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). A blood film confirms the presence of megaloblastic anemia. What is the most probable underlying cause of the patient's anemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:The likely cause of the patient’s megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia is Methotrexate therapy, which can result in folate deficiency. This drug is commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Lead poisoning, high alcohol intake, and hyperthyroidism are not likely causes of this type of anaemia. Pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune condition that can lead to B12 deficiency, is also not the cause in this case as the patient has normal B12 levels.
Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia
Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.
On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which type of lipoprotein is involved in the development of atherosclerosis observed in coronary artery disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL)
Explanation:Atherosclerosis: The Gradual Narrowing of Arteries
Atherosclerosis is a gradual process that involves the narrowing of arteries due to the accumulation of lipid-rich deposits within artery walls. This condition can take many years to develop and is the primary cause of coronary heart disease, peripheral vascular disease, and ischemic stroke. When a clot forms over an atherosclerotic plaque, it can lead to a heart attack by blocking blood flow to the cardiac muscle.
Monocytes from the blood absorb oxidized LDL particles to form lipid-laden foam cells, which accumulate in the vessel walls and eventually form fatty streaks and atherosclerotic plaques. These foam cells secrete cytokines and chemokines that promote smooth muscle cell proliferation, contributing to the development of the atherosclerotic plaque. Any damage to the plaque can result in the release of tissue factor, which promotes clot formation.
LDL can easily form oxidized LDL, especially in the presence of haem, which is released from damaged red blood cells in areas of turbulent blood flow. Inflammation, obesity, diabetes, and impaired glucose tolerance can also contribute to the formation of oxidized LDL. the causes and mechanisms of atherosclerosis is crucial in preventing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and painful swollen submandibular lymph nodes. After diagnosis, you find out that he has infectious mononucleosis. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should avoid rugby
Explanation:Patients should refrain from engaging in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture. However, swimming is considered a safe activity. It is important to advise patients accordingly.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A study investigating the effectiveness of a new medication to reduce agitation in 30 participants aged 65 and above with dementia measures the number of episodes of agitation in a four hour period before and after treatment. The data collected is not normally distributed.
Which statistical test would be most suitable for analyzing the results of this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female comes to the doctor's office. She had unprotected sex five days ago and is now five days into her pregnancy. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, the germinal vesicle breakdown is stimulated by the LH surge, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. Following fertilization, pronuclear and zygote formation occur, followed by rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.
Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation occurs between days 5 and 6. On day 1, the zygote is formed, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. The 4-cell stage is reached early on day 2, the 8-cell stage early on day 3, and the 16-cell stage late on day 3. The morula is formed on day 4, and the blastocyst is formed on day 5.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with heart failure visits his GP complaining of peripheral edema. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with fluid overload, leading to the release of atrial natriuretic peptide by the atrial myocytes. What is the mechanism of action of atrial natriuretic peptide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antagonist of angiotensin II
Explanation:Angiotensin II is opposed by atrial natriuretic peptide, while B-type natriuretic peptides inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and sympathetic activity. Additionally, aldosterone is antagonized by atrial natriuretic peptide. Renin catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.
Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that is primarily secreted by the myocytes of the right atrium and ventricle in response to an increase in blood volume. It is also secreted by the left atrium, although to a lesser extent. This peptide hormone is composed of 28 amino acids and acts through the cGMP pathway. It is broken down by endopeptidases.
The main actions of atrial natriuretic peptide include promoting the excretion of sodium and lowering blood pressure. It achieves this by antagonizing the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone. Overall, atrial natriuretic peptide plays an important role in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a bottle of insecticide and experiencing multiple episodes of vomiting. The suspected diagnosis is organophosphate poisoning and the patient is being treated with supportive measures and atropine. What potential side effect of atropine administration should be monitored for in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypohidrosis
Explanation:Hypohidrosis is a possible side-effect of Atropine.
Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that works by blocking the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor in a competitive manner. Its side-effects may include tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mouth, hypohidrosis, constipation, and urinary retention. It is important to note that the other listed side-effects are typically associated with muscarinic agonist drugs like pilocarpine.
Understanding Atropine and Its Uses
Atropine is a medication that works against the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. It is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia and organophosphate poisoning. In cases of bradycardia with adverse signs, IV atropine is the first-line treatment. However, it is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) during advanced life support.
Atropine has several physiological effects, including tachycardia and mydriasis. However, it is important to note that it may trigger acute angle-closure glaucoma in susceptible patients. Therefore, it is crucial to use atropine with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. Understanding the uses and effects of atropine can help individuals make informed decisions about their healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are obtaining a medical history from a frequent visitor to the emergency department, who has a history of alcoholism. He arrived at the department feeling unwell last night. He informs you that he has recently returned from a trip to Hawaii, where he spent the last three weeks. He appears restless as he expresses his desire to go on another vacation tomorrow. However, you recall admitting him to the emergency department just a week ago.
What is your suspicion regarding his motive for sharing this falsehood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has an underlying thiamine deficiency
Explanation:Korsakoff’s syndrome is caused by untreated thiamine deficiency, which is also the underlying reason for Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome. Wernicke encephalopathy is an acute neurological deterioration due to thiamine deficiency, while Korsakoff’s syndrome is a chronic neurological deterioration characterized by deficits in memory and confabulation. In this case, the patient’s confabulation is likely due to retrograde memory impairment, which is a feature of Korsakoff’s syndrome. The patient’s history of alcoholism suggests a thiamine deficiency, which can lead to Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome. While alcohol withdrawal is a possible differential, it alone cannot explain the patient’s confabulation. It is important to exclude organic causes before assuming the patient is actively lying.
Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.
The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.
Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient on the medical ward was waiting for a cardiac procedure. On discussing the procedure with the consultant before the procedure, the patient started to feel anxious and had difficulty breathing. The resident obtained an arterial blood gas:
pH 7.55
pCO2 2.7kPa
pO2 11.2kPa
HCO3 24mmol/l
What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:The respiratory alkalosis observed in the arterial blood gas results is most likely a result of hyperventilation, as indicated by the patient’s medical history.
Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach
Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).
The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.
To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his first dose of allopurinol for gout management. He displays redness covering 40% of his skin, with skin separation upon pressure. The patient also exhibits pyrexia and tachycardia.
What are the acute complications that require close monitoring by the healthcare team in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid loss, electrolyte derangement
Explanation:Both frostbite and necrotizing fasciitis can lead to complications similar to those seen in burn patients, including volume loss, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, and secondary infections. Despite the initial fever, the break in the skin can cause hypothermia.
Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.
Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.
In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits the GP clinic for a routine hearing examination. He reports a decline in hearing ability in his left ear for the past few months. After conducting Rinne and Weber tests, you determine that he has conductive hearing loss in the left ear. Upon otoscopy, you observe cerumen impaction.
What are the test findings for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rinne: bone conduction > air conduction in right ear; Weber: lateralising to right ear
Explanation:Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by her nephrologist to adhere to a 'renal diet'. She visits you to gain more knowledge about this.
What is typically recommended to individuals with chronic kidney disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low potassium diet
Explanation:Dietary Recommendations for Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Chronic kidney disease patients are recommended to follow a specific diet that is low in protein, phosphate, sodium, and potassium. This dietary advice is given to reduce the strain on the kidneys, as these substances are typically excreted by the kidneys. By limiting the intake of these nutrients, patients can help slow the progression of their kidney disease and manage their symptoms more effectively. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider or a registered dietitian to ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs while following these dietary restrictions. With proper guidance and adherence to this diet, patients with chronic kidney disease can improve their overall health and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue and weight loss that has persisted for the past year. He has also been experiencing fevers and night sweats lately. During the physical examination, the doctor observes that the patient has bruises on his shins and forearms and hepatosplenomegaly. The doctor orders blood tests.
Hemoglobin: 100 g/L
White blood cells: 18.0 x 109/L
Neutrophils: 10.0 x 109/L
The patient is referred to the hospital, where a bone marrow biopsy is performed, and he is subsequently treated with imatinib.
Based on the most probable diagnosis, which of the following cell types is also likely to be elevated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:The origin of eosinophils is from common myeloid progenitor cells. A patient with neutrophilia and low haemoglobin is likely to have chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). CML is characterized by increased levels of all cells derived from the myeloid lineage, including basophils, monocytes, and eosinophils. The bone marrow biopsy is diagnostic for CML and typically shows the t(9;22) chromosomal translocation, also known as the Philadelphia chromosome. Imatinib, an inhibitor of the BCR-ABL fusion protein created with this translocation, is a common treatment for CML. Cells derived from common lymphoid progenitor cells are not affected in CML.
Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells
Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.
The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the molecule produced at the end of glycolysis that connects to the Kreb cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetyl CoA
Explanation:The Process of Energy Production from Glucose
The process of producing energy from glucose involves several steps. The first step is glycolysis, where glucose is converted into fructose 1,6 bisphosphate and split into two 3-carbon particles. These particles are then converted into acetyl CoA, which provides the link with the Kreb cycle. The Kreb cycle, also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle, is a process where organic acids are modified in a series of steps to produce NADH. Succinate and oxaloacetate are intermediates in the Kreb cycle.
The final step in the process is the electron transfer chain, which occurs inside mitochondria. The NADH generated during the Kreb cycle is used to produce energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a series of redox reactions. This process is essential for the production of energy in the body, as ATP is the primary source of energy for cellular processes. By the process of energy production from glucose, we can better understand the importance of maintaining a healthy diet and lifestyle to ensure optimal energy production in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 36/40 primigravida woman arrives at the Emergency Department in labour and expresses her worry about being exposed to cat litter during pregnancy. She has heard that it can have an impact on the baby. Following delivery, the infant is diagnosed with congenital toxoplasmosis. What is one clinical manifestation of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral calcification
Explanation:Most cases of intracerebral hemorrhage are linked to chronic arterial hypertension, while other risk factors include bleeding disorders and recent head trauma. It is incorrect to associate macrosomia with congenital toxoplasmosis, as the latter is associated with intrauterine growth retardation rather than an unusually large body for a neonate. Macrosomia is instead linked to maternal diabetes and other conditions.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision. The headache began 2 days ago and is aggravated by coughing and changing position. The blurred vision started 5 hours ago. She has no history of head injuries and has never experienced these symptoms before. Her BMI is 27 kg/m² and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Upon examination, the patient has difficulty abducting her left eye. Fundoscopy reveals bilateral papilloedema.
Vital signs:
Blood pressure: 130/90 mmHg
Heart rate: 80 bpm
Respiratory rate: 16/min
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:The patient’s difficulty in abducting the right eye and accompanying 6th nerve palsy, along with papilloedema, are indicative of idiopathic intracranial hypertension. This is further supported by the patient’s age, BMI, and COCP use, which are common risk factors for this condition. Acute-angle closure glaucoma, meningitis, and migraine are less likely explanations as they do not fully align with the patient’s symptoms and history.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old patient attends the diabetic clinic with an HbA1c of 58mmol/mol. Despite his efforts to lose weight, his blood sugar levels remain high. You adjust his metformin dosage and schedule a follow-up appointment in 4 months. During the consultation, he confides in you about his difficulty in achieving and maintaining an erection, which has caused strain in his relationship. To address this issue, you prescribe a course of sildenafil. How does sildenafil improve erectile function?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased penile blood due to vasodilation through an increase in cGMP
Explanation:PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, promote vasodilation by elevating the levels of cGMP. Sildenafil works by inhibiting the cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down cGMP in the corpus cavernosum surrounding the penis. Sexual stimulation triggers the release of nitric oxide (NO) from nerve terminals and endothelial cells, leading to the synthesis of cGMP in smooth muscle cells. This results in the relaxation of penile arteries and corpus cavernosal smooth muscle, leading to increased blood flow and penile erection. By enhancing the amount of cGMP, sildenafil improves erectile function. This is achieved by reducing intracellular calcium concentration, which causes smooth muscle relaxation. The other options are incorrect because vasoconstriction, corpus cavernosal smooth muscle contraction, and increased intracellular calcium concentration would worsen erectile dysfunction.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a branch of the subclavian artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery
Explanation:The branches of the subclavian artery can be remembered using the mnemonic VIT C & D, which stands for Vertebral artery, Internal thoracic, Thyrocervical trunk, Costalcervical trunk, and Dorsal scapular. It is important to note that the Superior thyroid artery is actually a branch of the external carotid artery.
The Subclavian Artery: Origin, Path, and Branches
The subclavian artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. It has two branches, the left and right subclavian arteries, which arise from different sources. The left subclavian artery originates directly from the arch of the aorta, while the right subclavian artery arises from the brachiocephalic artery (trunk) when it bifurcates into the subclavian and the right common carotid artery.
From its origin, the subclavian artery travels laterally, passing between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, deep to scalenus anterior and anterior to scalenus medius. As it crosses the lateral border of the first rib, it becomes the axillary artery and is superficial within the subclavian triangle.
The subclavian artery has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. These branches include the vertebral artery, which supplies blood to the brain and spinal cord, the internal thoracic artery, which supplies blood to the chest wall and breast tissue, the thyrocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the thyroid gland and neck muscles, the costocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the neck and upper back muscles, and the dorsal scapular artery, which supplies blood to the muscles of the shoulder blade.
In summary, the subclavian artery is an important blood vessel that plays a crucial role in supplying blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. Its branches provide blood to various parts of the body, ensuring proper functioning and health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with steroid, bronchodilators and 15 l/min of oxygen.
His pulse rate is 125/min, oxygen saturation 89%, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 140/88 mmHg and he has a peak flow rate of 150 l/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bilateral wheezes.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) result taken on 15 l/min oxygen shows:
pH 7.42 (7.36-7.44)
PaO2 8.4 kPa (11.3-12.6)
PaCO2 5.3 kPa (4.7-6.0)
Standard HCO3 19 mmol/L (20-28)
Base excess −4 (+/-2)
Oxygen saturation 89%
What is the most appropriate action for this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call ITU to consider intubation
Explanation:Urgent Need for Ventilation in Life-Threatening Asthma
This patient is experiencing life-threatening asthma with a dangerously low oxygen saturation level of less than 92%. Despite having a normal PaCO2 level, the degree of hypoxia is inappropriate and requires immediate consideration for ventilation. The arterial blood gas (ABG) result is consistent with the clinical presentation, making a venous blood sample unnecessary. Additionally, the ABG and bedside oxygen saturation readings are identical, indicating an arterialised sample.
It is crucial to note that in cases of acute asthma, reducing the amount of oxygen below the maximum available is not recommended. Hypoxia can be fatal and must be addressed promptly. Therefore, urgent intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What are the primary constituents of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules
Explanation:The Eukaryotic Cytoskeleton: A Structural Support System
The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is a network of structures that provide structural support to the cell. It helps the cell maintain its shape, protects it from external pressure, and performs intracellular transport. The cytoskeleton is made up of three major structures: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. Microfilaments are thin double helices made up of actin and are involved in pressure resistance and cell motility. Intermediate filaments have a more complex structure and maintain cell shape while bearing tension. Microtubules are hollow cylinders made up of alpha and beta tubulin proteins and are involved in intracellular transport, cell movement, and form the mitotic spindle during cytokinesis.
Cilia, flagella, and lamellipodia are structures that are not part of the cell’s cytoskeleton but are made up of components of it and perform unique functions such as cell movement and extracellular sensing. Kinesin and dynein are motor proteins that support microtubule function. Microfilaments and alpha/beta microtubules are incorrect because they leave out intermediate filaments. Tubulin and actin are proteins of microtubules and microfilaments, respectively, but myosin is a motility protein involved in muscle contraction. The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is an essential component of the cell that provides structural support and enables various cellular functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man experiences a sudden pain in his forearm while lifting a heavy object and is unable to continue. He notices a swelling over his upper forearm and an MRI scan reveals a recent tear with a small cuff of tendon still attached to the radial tuberosity. Which muscle is likely to have been injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biceps brachii
Explanation:Although ruptures of the biceps muscle near its origin are more common, injuries to the distal portion of the muscle, where it attaches to the radial tuberosity, are less frequent but more significant from a clinical standpoint.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with laryngeal cancer is undergoing a challenging laryngectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the thyrocervical trunk. What vessel does this structure typically originate from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian artery
Explanation:The subclavian artery gives rise to the thyrocervical trunk, which emerges from the first part of the artery located between the inner border of scalenus anterior and the subclavian artery. The thyrocervical trunk branches off from the subclavian artery after the vertebral artery.
Thoracic Outlet: Where the Subclavian Artery and Vein and Brachial Plexus Exit the Thorax
The thoracic outlet is the area where the subclavian artery and vein and the brachial plexus exit the thorax and enter the arm. This passage occurs over the first rib and under the clavicle. The subclavian vein is the most anterior structure and is located immediately in front of scalenus anterior and its attachment to the first rib. Scalenus anterior has two parts, and the subclavian artery leaves the thorax by passing over the first rib and between these two portions of the muscle. At the level of the first rib, the lower cervical nerve roots combine to form the three trunks of the brachial plexus. The lowest trunk is formed by the union of C8 and T1, and this trunk lies directly posterior to the artery and is in contact with the superior surface of the first rib.
Thoracic outlet obstruction can cause neurovascular compromise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, and leg swelling over the past 3 months. He has a history of sleep apnoea and pulmonary embolism. His partner reports that he has a 20-pack-year smoking history and regularly uses cocaine. The medical team conducted several tests, including an echocardiogram, CT chest, pulmonary function testing, and right cardiac catheterization, which confirmed a diagnosis of primary pulmonary hypertension.
Which of the following drug management options is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:The patient in the vignette has a history of pulmonary hypertension, which involves the narrowing of blood vessels in the lungs. This makes it difficult for the heart to pump blood through the lungs. Vasoactive agents like prostacyclin (PGI-2) are the first-line treatment to promote vasodilation. Iloprost, a synthetic prostacyclin, is commonly used for this purpose. Adrenaline, ergometrine, and metaraminol are not appropriate for managing pulmonary hypertension as they are vasoconstrictors. Nebulised salbutamol is used for bronchoconstricting conditions and is not appropriate for pulmonary hypertension.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has been discharged after an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy and his GP is reviewing his discharge letter. The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin to reduce the risk of stroke. The GP notices an abnormality in the coagulation screen that was performed before surgery. The discharge letter confirms that this is expected with warfarin use.
What is the most likely abnormality on this patient's coagulation blood results?
Reference ranges:
International normalised ratio (INR) 0.9-1.2
Prothrombin time (PT) 10-14 secsYour Answer:
Correct Answer: PT 21 secs, INR 2.5
Explanation:Warfarin causes an increase in prothrombin-time (PT) and international normalised ratio (INR) by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. An increase in PT will cause an increase in INR, and a decrease in PT and INR is a prothrombotic state.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following aims to address confounding factors in the analysis stage of a study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stratification
Explanation:Understanding Confounding in Statistics
Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.
Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A soon-to-be mother is advised on the significance of screening for Rhesus incompatibility between her and her unborn child. What maternal and fetal Rh status combination could potentially lead to Rhesus disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive baby
Explanation:When the baby has Rh-positive blood and the mother has Rh-negative blood, their blood supplies can mix during pregnancy. This can lead to the mother producing antibodies that may harm the baby by passing through the placenta and causing conditions like hydrops fetalis. Additionally, subsequent pregnancies may also be impacted.
Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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