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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?Your Answer: Patchy shadowing bilaterally in the lower zones
Correct Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing
Explanation:Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure
Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:
– Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
– Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
– Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
– Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
– Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain and has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0. Upon examination, the only notable finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation (AF). The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Blood tests (thyroid function tests (TFTs), full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests (LFTs), and coagulation screen) are normal, and a chest X-ray (CXR) is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Anticoagulation therapy with heparin and plan for elective cardioversion
Correct Answer: IV flecainide
Explanation:Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can lead to serious complications such as stroke and heart failure. When a patient presents with acute AF, it is important to determine the underlying cause and choose the appropriate treatment. Here are some treatment options for acute AF:
Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation
Initial investigation
The patient should be investigated for any reversible causes of AF such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests and a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out any underlying conditions.
Medical cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who have presented within 48 hours of the onset of AF.
Anticoagulation therapy
If the patient remains in persistent AF for more than 48 hours, their CHA2DS2 VASc score should be calculated to determine the risk of emboli. If the score is high, anticoagulation therapy should be started.
Trial of b-blocker
Sotalol is often used in paroxysmal AF as a ‘pill in the pocket’ regimen. However, in acute first-time presentations without significant cardiac risk factors, cardioversion should be attempted first.
Intravenous adenosine
This treatment may transiently block the atrioventricular (AV) node and is commonly used in atrial flutter. However, it is not recommended for use in acute AF presentation in an otherwise well patient.
In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for acute AF depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s risk factors. It is important to choose the right treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department by ambulance with chest pain that began 45 minutes ago. An ECG is performed and shows ST elevation in leads V1-V6, with ST depression in leads III and aVF. The closest facility capable of providing primary PCI is a 2 hour transfer time by ambulance. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Aspirin, clopidogrel, low-molecular-weight heparin, and transfer for PCI
Correct Answer: Administer thrombolysis and transfer for PCI
Explanation:Management of ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction in Remote Locations
ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the gold standard first-line treatment for STEMI, but in remote locations, the patient may need to be taken to the nearest facility for initial assessment prior to transfer for PCI. In such cases, the most appropriate management strategy should be considered to minimize time delays and optimize patient outcomes.
Administer Thrombolysis and Transfer for PCI
In cases where the transfer time to the nearest PCI facility is more than 120 minutes, fibrinolysis prior to transfer should be strongly considered. This is particularly important for patients with anterior STEMI, where time is of the essence. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and low-molecular-weight heparin should also be administered, and the patient should be transferred to a PCI-delivering facility as soon as possible.
Other Treatment Options
If PCI is not likely to be achievable within 120 minutes of when fibrinolysis could have been given, thrombolysis should be administered prior to transfer. Analgesia alone is not sufficient, and unfractionated heparin is not the optimum treatment for STEMI.
Conclusion
In remote locations, the management of STEMI requires careful consideration of the potential time delays involved in transferring the patient to a PCI-delivering facility. Administering thrombolysis prior to transfer can help minimize delays and improve patient outcomes. Aspirin, clopidogrel, and low-molecular-weight heparin should also be administered, and the patient should be transferred to a PCI-delivering facility as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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You are fast-bleeped to the ward where you find a 46-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. She had a witnessed syncopal episode while walking to the toilet with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure of 85/56 mmHg. She is orientated to time, place and person but is complaining of feeling light-headed.
How would you manage this patient’s ventricular tachycardia?Your Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia: Synchronised Cardioversion and Amiodarone
Ventricular tachycardia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends synchronised electrical cardioversion as the first-line treatment for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is timed to coincide with the R or S wave of the QRS complex, reducing the risk of ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.
Administering an unsynchronised shock could coincide with the T wave, triggering fibrillation of the ventricles and leading to a cardiac arrest. If three attempts of synchronised cardioversion fail to restore sinus rhythm, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg iv should be given over 10–20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion.
Amiodarone is the first-line treatment for uncompromised patients with tachycardia. A loading dose of 300 mg is given iv, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. Digoxin and metoprolol are not recommended for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She has no other complaints. On examination, a regular tachycardia is present. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Chest is clear. ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a QRS width of 80 ms and a rate of 149 beats per min in a sawtooth pattern.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Mobitz type II
Correct Answer: Atrial flutter
Explanation:Common Cardiac Arrhythmias: Types and Characteristics
Cardiac arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can cause serious health complications. Here are some common types of cardiac arrhythmias and their characteristics:
1. Atrial Flutter: A type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG. It is caused by a premature electrical impulse in the atrium and can degenerate into atrial fibrillation. Treatment involves rate or rhythm control, and electrical cardioversion is more effective than in atrial fibrillation.
2. Fast Atrial Fibrillation: Another type of supraventricular tachycardia that presents as an irregularly irregular tachycardia.
3. Ventricular Tachycardia: A common arrhythmia in cardiopaths that is characterized by a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG.
4. Mobitz Type II: A form of second-degree heart block that is characterized by intermittent non-conducted P waves on ECG without progressive prolongation of the QRS interval.
5. Brugada Syndrome: A rare electrophysiological condition that causes sudden death in young adults. ECG findings usually show ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 with a right bundle branch block.
It is important to identify and treat cardiac arrhythmias promptly to prevent serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset epigastric discomfort. He has a significant past medical history of hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes mellitus, and he is a heavy smoker. On examination, his pulse is 30 bpm; he is hypotensive and has distended neck veins. The chest is clear to auscultation. Initial blood tests reveal an elevated troponin level, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) shows hyperacute T-waves in leads II, III and aVF.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Right/inferior MI
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Myocardial Infarction: A Guide to ECG Changes and Symptoms
Myocardial infarction (MI) can occur in different areas of the heart, depending on which artery is occluded. Right/inferior MIs, which account for up to 40-50% of cases, are caused by occlusion of the RCA or, less commonly, a dominant left circumflex artery. Symptoms include bradycardia, hypotension, and a clear chest on auscultation. Conduction disturbances, particularly type II and III heart blocks, are also common. ECG changes include ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and reciprocal ST-segment depression in aVL (± lead I).
Anterolateral MIs are possible, but less likely to present with bradycardia, hypotension, and a clear chest. An anterior MI, caused by occlusion of the LAD, is associated with tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
Other conditions, such as acute pulmonary edema and pulmonary embolism, may present with similar symptoms but have different ECG changes and additional features. Understanding the ECG changes and symptoms associated with different types of MI can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?
Your Answer: Left atrial thrombus
Correct Answer: Fourth heart sound
Explanation:Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart
Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:
Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.
Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.
Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.
Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.
Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.
Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What is the electrophysiological basis of the T wave on a typical ECG?
Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Explanation:The T wave on an ECG indicates ventricular repolarisation and is typically positive in all leads except AvR and V1. Abnormal T wave findings may suggest strain, bundle branch block, ischaemia/infarction, hyperkalaemia, Prinzmetal angina, or early STEMI. The P wave represents atrial depolarisation, while atrial repolarisation is hidden by the QRS complex. The PR interval is determined by the duration of conduction delay through the atrioventricular node. Finally, the QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he quickly regained consciousness and became fully alert, his family called an ambulance. The emergency medical team found no abnormalities on the electrocardiogram. Physical examination was unremarkable. However, the patient was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit of the local hospital. During the evening, the patient was noted to have a fast rhythm with a wide complex on his monitor, followed by hypotension and loss of consciousness.
After electrical cardioversion with 200 watt-seconds of direct current, which one of the following may possible therapy include?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:The patient in the scenario is experiencing a fast rhythm with wide complexes, which is likely ventricular tachycardia (VT). As the patient is unstable, electrical cardioversion was attempted first, as recommended by the Resuscitation Council Guideline. If cardioversion fails and the patient remains unstable, intravenous amiodarone can be used as a loading dose of 300 mg over 10-20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900 mg/24 hours. Amiodarone is a class III anti-arrhythmic agent that prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by blocking potassium efflux. Side-effects associated with amiodarone include deranged thyroid and liver function tests, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, interstitial lung disease, jaundice, and sleep disorders.
Epinephrine is used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It acts on adrenergic receptors, causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. Side-effects associated with epinephrine include palpitations, arrhythmias, headache, tremor, and hypertension.
Intravenous propranolol is a non-selective β-adrenergic receptor blocker that has limited use in treating arrhythmias and thyrotoxic crisis. It is contraindicated in patients with severe hypotension, asthma, COPD, bradycardia, sick sinus rhythm, atrioventricular block, and cardiogenic shock. Side-effects associated with propranolol include insomnia, nightmares, nausea, diarrhea, bronchospasm, exacerbation of Raynaud’s, bradycardia, hypotension, and heart block.
Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside extracted from the plant genus Digitalis, can be used in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias and heart failure. However, it is of no use in this scenario as the patient is experiencing a broad complex tachycardia. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window, and even small changes in dosing can lead to toxicity. Side-effects associated with digoxin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia, dizziness, yellow vision, and eosinophilia.
Diltiazem, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is normally used for hypertension and prophylaxis and treatment of ang
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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