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  • Question 1 - You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is...

    Incorrect

    • You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is healthy but is suffering from severe menopausal symptoms. She is curious about the advantages and disadvantages of various types of HRT.

      What is the accurate response concerning the risk of cancer associated with different HRT formulations?

      Your Answer: HRT with oestrogen alone is associated with an increased risk of coronary heart disease

      Correct Answer: Combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The addition of progestogen to HRT has been found to increase the risk of breast cancer. However, this risk is dependent on the duration of treatment and decreases after discontinuing HRT. It is important to note that this increased risk doesn’t affect the likelihood of dying from breast cancer. HRT with oestrogen alone may have no or reduced risk of coronary heart disease, while combined HRT has little to no increase in the risk of CHD. It is worth noting that there is no HRT available that contains progestogen only. Although NICE doesn’t provide specific risk analysis for ovarian cancer in women taking HRT, a meta-analysis suggests an increased risk for both oestrogen-only and combined HRT preparations.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant. She had the Mirena coil inserted for heavy periods approximately nine months ago. She inquires about whether she needs to have her Mirena coil removed.

      What is the appropriate guidance concerning the removal of the Mirena coil?

      Your Answer: There is no risk associated with removal of the Mirena coil

      Correct Answer: The Mirena coil should not be removed if the pregnancy is diagnosed after 12 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Contraception and Pregnancy

      When a woman becomes pregnant while using contraception, it is usually recommended to stop or remove the method. However, it is important to note that contraceptive hormones do not typically harm the fetus.

      If an intrauterine method is in place when pregnancy is diagnosed, the woman should be informed of the potential risks of leaving it in-situ, such as second-trimester miscarriage, preterm delivery, and infection. While removal in the first trimester carries a small risk of miscarriage, it may reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. If the threads of the intrauterine contraceptive are visible or can be retrieved, it should be removed up to 12 weeks gestation, but not after this point.

      Overall, it is important for women to discuss their contraceptive options with their healthcare provider and to inform them if they suspect they may be pregnant.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman on the combined oral contraceptive pill visits your clinic seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman on the combined oral contraceptive pill visits your clinic seeking a refill of her prescription. What is a potential drawback of taking the combined oral contraceptive pill that you should advise her about?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      When starting the combined oral contraceptive pill, it is important to inform women that there is a slight increase in the risk of breast and cervical cancer. However, it is also important to note that the pill is protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 4 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 18 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 18 months ago and the result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) with a negative cytology report.

      She has now undergone a repeat smear and the result is once again positive for hrHPV with a negative cytology report.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat sample in 12 months

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for cervical cancer screening, if a person’s first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), they should have another smear test 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months after the initial test). If the person remains hrHPV positive but has negative cytology results at 12 and 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy. However, if they become hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can return to routine recall.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman returns for review. She has been experiencing lower abdominal pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman returns for review. She has been experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the last four to five months.

      She reports a history of constipation since her teenage years and uses lactulose as needed to ensure regular bowel movements. Currently, she has daily bowel movements with soft and easily passed stools. She denies any rectal bleeding or mucous passage and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding or discharge since her last period at age 50.

      On clinical examination, her abdomen feels soft and no masses are palpable.

      As part of her investigation in primary care, which tumour marker would be appropriate to request?

      Your Answer: CA19-9

      Correct Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers in Clinical Contexts

      Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts, but they are not a routine primary care investigation. One example of a valuable tumour marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian cancer. Ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms that can be easily attributed to more benign pathology, so a high index of suspicion is needed. The use of the CA125 tumour marker can be helpful in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer during initial primary care investigations.

      NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing. These symptoms include bloating, appetite loss, early satiety, abdominal pain, pelvic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, lethargy, weight loss, and change in bowel habit.

      Other tumour markers are typically specialist tests that would rarely, if at all, be requested in primary care. These markers are associated with other types of cancer, such as α fetoprotein for hepatocellular carcinoma, CEA for colonic carcinoma, CA19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and Chromogranin A for neuroendocrine tumours.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 6 - You are thinking about recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to a 50-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • You are thinking about recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to a 50-year-old woman who is experiencing bothersome menopausal symptoms. What is the accurate statement regarding HRT and the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

      Your Answer: Combined oestrogen + progestogen preparations have an increased risk of VTE compared to oestrogen only preparations

      Explanation:

      In women aged 50-59 who do not use HRT, the background incidence of VTE is 5 cases per 1,000. The use of oestrogen-only HRT increases the incidence by 2 cases per 1,000, while combined HRT increases it by 7 cases per 1,000. According to the BNF, tibolone doesn’t elevate the risk of VTE when compared to combined HRT.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency surgery with a concern. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency surgery with a concern. She is getting married in three days but is currently experiencing menorrhagia during her usual heavy period. She did not experience any delay in her period and has no other symptoms. She inquires if there is any way to stop the bleeding. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Oral tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: Oral norethisterone

      Explanation:

      Norethisterone taken orally is a viable solution for quickly halting heavy menstrual bleeding on a temporary basis.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of more than 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. Prior to the 1990s, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has since shifted.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women, and a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged if symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality. If contraception is not required, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. A flowchart can be used to guide the management of menorrhagia.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old Jewish woman visited her GP for breast cancer screening. She had no symptoms, and her breast examination was normal. She mentioned that her maternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 43. What would be the best course of action for further investigation?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to be seen in breast clinic

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care for early screening

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a family history of Jewish ancestry and breast cancer, they should be referred to secondary care. This is one of the criteria that require early referral, as listed below. However, the current presentation doesn’t require an urgent referral. Although the NHS Screening programme is being extended to begin at 47, this patient has valid reasons to be referred earlier.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 6 weeks. She has been taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for 8 months and has not missed any pills. She is not on any other medication or using any over-the-counter products. A pregnancy test she recently took came back negative. She denies experiencing dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that irregular bleeding is common whilst taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and follow-up in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Offer a speculum to assess the cervix, and take endocervical and high-vaginal swabs including a sexual health screen

      Explanation:

      Patients who experience a change in bleeding after being on the combined contraceptive pill for 3 months should undergo a speculum examination. It is common to experience problematic bleeding in the first 3 months after starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, but if bleeding starts after 3 months or is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal examination and speculum examination should be considered to identify any underlying causes. Although the irregular bleeding may not be serious, it is important to offer an examination as it has started 3 months after starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill. There is no need to refer the patient to a gynaecology clinic at this stage before further investigation. If problematic bleeding persists, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. Changing the dose of progestogen doesn’t appear to improve cycle control, although it may be helpful on an individual basis. There is no reason to discontinue the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and switch to the progestogen-only pill.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic after giving birth to her second...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic after giving birth to her second child. The baby weighed more than 10 lb and she experienced a third degree tear during vaginal delivery. During the examination, it is observed that she has vaginal and rectal prolapse. She confesses to experiencing stress urinary incontinence and even occasional fecal incontinence. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a specialist urological surgeon

      Explanation:

      Surgical Referral for Faecal and Urinary Incontinence

      NICE guidelines recommend surgical referral for patients with faecal incontinence. Female patients with urinary incontinence should be referred to a urological expert with specific training and experience in treating stress incontinence. Surgical techniques for stress incontinence include mid-urethral tape and mesh suspension procedures, slings, intramural bulking agents, and traditional repair techniques. Other reasons for surgical referral include persistent bladder or urethral pain, pelvic masses, neurological disease, previous pelvic cancer surgery, and previous pelvic irradiation. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these guidelines and refer patients appropriately for surgical intervention.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 11 - A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks...

    Incorrect

    • A nervous 19-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner. She asks for cervical screening due to a family friend's recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. She is currently on her third day of her period and has regular menstrual cycles. She has noticed more vaginal discharge and occasional bleeding after sex in the past two weeks. There is no significant family history. What is the best course of action to take at this point in management?

      Your Answer: STI Screening + Cervical screening

      Correct Answer: Speculum examination + STI Screening

      Explanation:

      Women under the age of 25 years cannot receive cervical screening. Before considering referral to colposcopy, other possible causes should be ruled out first.

      As she is currently on day 2 of her menstrual period, pregnancy is unlikely. Given her new boyfriend and symptoms of increased vaginal discharge and occasional post-coital bleeding, a speculum examination and STI screening would be the most appropriate course of action.

      While cervical screening is not typically offered to women under 25, if the patient’s history strongly suggests cervical cancer and other possibilities have been eliminated, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.

      Although cervical cancer is rare in young women, it is still important to investigate the cause of her symptoms.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman complains of multiple occurrences of vaginal candidiasis that have not...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of multiple occurrences of vaginal candidiasis that have not responded to OTC or prescribed treatments. As per the guidelines of the British Association of Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH), what is the minimum frequency of yearly episodes required to diagnose recurrent vaginal candidiasis?

      Your Answer: Four or more episodes per year

      Explanation:

      According to BASHH, recurrent vaginal candidiasis is characterized by experiencing four or more episodes per year. This criterion is significant as it helps determine the need for prophylactic treatment to prevent future recurrences.

      Vaginal candidiasis, commonly known as ‘thrush’, is a prevalent condition that many women self-diagnose and treat. Candida albicans is responsible for 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain conditions such as diabetes mellitus, drug use (antibiotics, steroids), pregnancy, and immunosuppression (HIV) may increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, dyspareunia, dysuria, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions.

      Routine high vaginal swabs are not necessary if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommends oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose as the first-line treatment. If oral therapy is contraindicated, a single dose of clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary may be used. If vulval symptoms are present, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments such as cream or pessaries, as oral treatments are not recommended.

      Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and the diagnosis of candidiasis should be confirmed. A high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture may be necessary, and a blood glucose test should be performed to exclude diabetes. Differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should also be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime may be used, consisting of oral fluconazole every three days for three doses as induction, followed by oral fluconazole weekly for six months as maintenance.

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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old female comes to see you at the GP surgery complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female comes to see you at the GP surgery complaining of hot flashes. Her LMP was 13 months ago. She wants to have some blood tests to confirm she has gone through the menopause.

      What is the most appropriate management from the list below?

      Your Answer: She should have FSH/LH and oestradiol levels checked 6 weeks apart to confirm a diagnosis of menopause.

      Correct Answer: She can be advised that she has gone through the menopause. No bloods required

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Menopause According to NICE NG23

      According to NICE NG23 guidelines, menopause can be diagnosed without laboratory tests in otherwise healthy women aged over 45 years with menopausal symptoms. Perimenopause can be diagnosed based on vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods, while menopause can be diagnosed in women who have not had a period for at least 12 months and are not using hormonal contraception. Menopause can also be diagnosed based on symptoms in women without a uterus.

      However, in women aged 40 to 45 years with menopausal symptoms, including a change in their menstrual cycle, and in women aged under 40 years in whom menopause is suspected, a FSH test may be considered to diagnose menopause.

      In the case of a woman aged over 45 years with amenorrhoea for over 12 months, a clinical diagnosis of menopause can be made without the need for blood tests. It is important to note that premature ovarian failure is not a concern in this case as the woman is aged 48.

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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old accountant presents with a 4 months history of occasional loose stools...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old accountant presents with a 4 months history of occasional loose stools and bloating. Due to a heavy workload, she has not had the chance to visit her GP until now. She denies any vomiting or recent travel and has not noticed any mucous or blood in her stools. She has a history of anxiety and a strong family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During examination, her vital signs are normal, and her abdomen is visibly bloated but soft and non-tender. Bowel sounds are active, and rectal examination is unremarkable. What would be the most crucial next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Check CA125

      Explanation:

      If a woman aged 50 or above reports symptoms resembling irritable bowel syndrome within the past year, it is important to consider the possibility of ovarian cancer. While IBS is uncommon in this age group, ovarian cancer can present with similar nonspecific symptoms, and it is crucial to rule out any serious conditions.

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

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      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of post-coital bleeding. What is not considered a known risk factor for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill use

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is associated with obesity, while cervical cancer is not.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.

      While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP and asks for a blood test to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP and asks for a blood test to confirm menopause. She reports experiencing tolerable vaginal dryness and her last menstrual period was 10 months ago. However, she has had intermittent vaginal bleeding in the past week, which has left her confused. Upon clinical examination, including a speculum examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for urgent hospital assessment

      Explanation:

      If a woman is 55 years or older and experiences postmenopausal bleeding (i.e. bleeding occurring more than 12 months after her last menstrual cycle), she should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out endometrial cancer. As this woman is over 50 years old and has not had a menstrual cycle for over a year, she has reached menopause and doesn’t require blood tests to confirm it. The recent vaginal bleeding she has experienced is considered postmenopausal bleeding and requires further investigation to eliminate the possibility of endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 17 - Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents with a 6 month history of...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents with a 6 month history of chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea that is beginning to impact her daily life, especially at work. During the consultation, Linda mentions experiencing painful bowel movements that begin just before her period and persist throughout it.

      As her healthcare provider, you suspect endometriosis. Linda asks you about the best way to confirm this diagnosis.

      What is the definitive test that can be done to confirm endometriosis for Linda?

      Your Answer: Pelvic MRI scan

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic visualisation of the pelvis

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, laparoscopy is the most reliable method of diagnosing endometriosis in patients.

      To confirm the presence of endometriosis, it is necessary to perform a laparoscopic examination of the pelvis, regardless of whether a transvaginal or transabdominal ultrasound appears normal.

      If a thorough laparoscopy is conducted and no signs of endometriosis are found, the patient should be informed that she doesn’t have the condition and offered alternative treatment options.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

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  • Question 18 - You come across a 30-year-old woman with a breast lump that has been...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 30-year-old woman with a breast lump that has been there for 4 weeks. She is generally healthy and takes only the combined hormonal contraceptive pill (COCP). There is no history of breast cancer in her family.

      After examining the patient, you refer her to the breast clinic for further investigation under the 2-week wait scheme. She inquires about what she should do regarding her COCP.

      Your Answer: 1

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The UKMEC provides guidance for healthcare providers when selecting appropriate contraceptives based on a patient’s medical history. For women with an undiagnosed breast mass, starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill is considered UKMEC 3, while continuing its use is classified as UKMEC 2. It is important to note that hormonal contraceptives may impact the prognosis of women with current or past breast cancer, which is classified as UKMEC 4 and UKMEC 3, respectively. Women with benign breast conditions or a family history of breast cancer are classified as UKMEC 1.

      The choice of contraceptive for women may be affected by comorbidities. The FSRH provides UKMEC recommendations for different conditions. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women under 35 and UKMEC 3 for those over 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes/day, but is UKMEC 4 for those who smoke more. Obesity increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² and UKMEC 3 for those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or more. The COCP is contraindicated for women with a history of migraine with aura, but is UKMEC 3 for those with migraines without aura and UKMEC 2 for initiation. For women with epilepsy, consistent use of condoms is recommended in addition to other forms of contraception. The choice of contraceptive for women taking anti-epileptic medication depends on the specific medication, with the COCP and POP being UKMEC 3 for most medications, while the implant is UKMEC 2 and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS are UKMEC 1. Lamotrigine has different recommendations, with the COCP being UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS being UKMEC 1.

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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings, vaginal dryness, and reduced libido. She has not had a period for 12 months and has an intact uterus. Despite being obese, she has no other risk factors and has been informed about the potential risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transdermal cyclical regimen

      Explanation:

      The appropriate HRT regimen for this patient is a transdermal cyclical one, as she has had a period within the last year. As she has an intact uterus, a combined regimen with both oestrogen and progesterone is necessary. Given her increased risk of venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular disease due to obesity, transdermal preparations are recommended over oral options. Low-dose vaginal oestrogen is not sufficient for her systemic symptoms. An oestrogen-only preparation is not appropriate for women with a uterus. A transdermal continuous combined regimen is not recommended within 12 months of the last menstrual period. If the patient cannot tolerate the transdermal option, an oral cyclical regimen may be considered.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

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  • Question 20 - Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 2 years ago....

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 2 years ago. The result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) but her cervical cytology was normal.

      She underwent repeat testing after 12 months and again tested positive for hrHPV with normal cytology. Her next screening was scheduled for another 12 months.

      Recently, Samantha underwent her scheduled screening. The results indicate that she is still hrHPV positive and her cytology is normal.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines on cervical cancer screening, if an individual’s second repeat smear at 24 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), they should be referred for colposcopy. Prior to this, if an individual is positive for hrHPV but receives a negative cytology report, they should have the HPV test repeated at 12 months. If the HPV test is negative at 12 months, they can return to routine recall. However, if they remain hrHPV positive and cytology negative at 12 months, they should have a repeat HPV test in a further 12 months. If they become hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can safely return to routine recall.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old lady who has recently moved to the UK from Haiti presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady who has recently moved to the UK from Haiti presents with post-coital bleeding and an offensive vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for six weeks. She had swabs taken by the practice nurse a week prior to her visit. On examination, an inflamed cervix that bleeds upon touch is noted. She is a gravida 6, para 4, and has never had a cervical smear. She has been sterilized for 10 years and has never used barrier contraception. A high vaginal swab has ruled out Chlamydia, gonorrhoea, and Trichomonas. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Suspected Cervical Cancer

      This patient should be suspected to have cervical cancer until proven otherwise, due to inflammation of the cervix that has been shown to be non-infective and no documented smear history, which puts her at higher risk. Empirical treatment for Chlamydia or gonorrhoea would not usually be suggested in general practice unless the patient has symptoms and signs of PID. Referring to an STD clinic is incorrect, as urgent investigation for cancer is necessary. Referring routinely to gynaecology is an option, but it doesn’t fully take into account the urgency of ruling out cervical cancer. Arranging a smear test for a lady with suspected cervical cancer would be inappropriate, as smear tests do not diagnose cancer, they only assess the likelihood of cancer occurring in the future.

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  • Question 22 - Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast....

    Incorrect

    • Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast. She has been breastfeeding her newborn daughter for the past four weeks. During her visit to the GP, the doctor notes the inflammation and a temperature of 38.2ºC. The GP diagnoses mastitis and prescribes medication while encouraging Jane to continue breastfeeding.

      Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing mastitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mastitis: Symptoms, Management, and Risks

      Mastitis is a condition that occurs when the breast tissue becomes inflamed, and it is commonly associated with breastfeeding. It affects approximately 1 in 10 women and is characterized by symptoms such as a painful, tender, and red hot breast, as well as fever and general malaise.

      The first-line management of mastitis is to continue breastfeeding, and simple measures such as analgesia and warm compresses can also be helpful. However, if a woman is systemically unwell, has a nipple fissure, or if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, treatment with antibiotics may be necessary. The most common organism causing infective mastitis is Staphylococcus aureus, and the first-line antibiotic is oral flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. It is important to note that breastfeeding or expressing should continue during antibiotic treatment.

      If left untreated, mastitis can lead to the development of a breast abscess, which may require incision and drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen. By understanding the symptoms, management, and risks associated with mastitis, women can take proactive steps to address this condition and ensure their overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 23 - A woman presents 6 weeks postpartum following a normal vaginal delivery. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents 6 weeks postpartum following a normal vaginal delivery. She is Breastfeeding her son who is growing well along the 50th centile. She does however complain of intermittent severe bilateral nipple pain during feeding which persists for a few minutes afterwards. She has noticed her nipples turn very pale after feeds when the pain is present and occasional also a blueish colour. She has seen the local breastfeeding team who have observed her feeding and reassured that the infant’s latch is good. On examination of her breasts, they appear normal with no tenderness or nipple cracks evident. Her infant appears well with a normal tongue and no evidence of tongue tie.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raynaud’s disease of the nipple (vasospasm)

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple can cause pain in women who are breastfeeding.

      Symptoms of Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as nipple blanching followed by cyanosis and/or erythema. Pain subsides when the nipple returns to its normal color. Other possible causes of nipple pain, such as candidiasis or poor latch, should also be considered. Treatment options for Raynaud’s disease of the nipple include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs after feeding, avoiding caffeine, and quitting smoking. If symptoms persist, referral to a specialist for a trial of oral nifedipine may be necessary (although this is off-license).

      Option one is the correct answer, as the clinical history is consistent with Raynaud’s disease of the nipple. Option two is incorrect, as pain would be more localized and may be accompanied by a white spot or tenderness. Option three is also incorrect, as pain is usually more generalized and occurs during the first few minutes of feeding. Option four is incorrect, as an infection would likely present with purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Option five is also incorrect, as an eczematous rash would likely be present with itching and dry, scaly patches.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 24 hours ago and has not had any other instances of unprotected sex. She has no history of using emergency contraception or regular contraception. Her last menstrual period was 12 days ago, and she has a regular 30-day cycle. She has a medical history of severe asthma and takes oral steroids. She declines the use of an intrauterine device.

      On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and her body-mass index is 35 kg/m2.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer the patient levonorgestrel 3 mg, and advice the patient to perform a pregnancy test within 3-weeks

      Explanation:

      It is incorrect to advise the patient that she doesn’t require emergency contraception as she is at risk of pregnancy. Although oral emergency contraception may not be effective if taken after ovulation, the patient’s last menstrual period was only 10 days ago, making it a potential option. The patient has declined an intrauterine device, which is the most effective option, but should not be pressured into using it for emergency contraception. Ulipristal acetate is not recommended for the patient due to her severe asthma and use of oral steroids. It is important to note that patients with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70 kg should be given a double dose of levonorgestrel for emergency contraception. Additionally, it is crucial to discuss ongoing contraception and sexual health with the patient.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods. She experiences heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods. She experiences heavy bleeding for approximately 6 days and severe cramps for the first 3 days. She doesn't wish to use contraception as she is getting married soon and intends to start a family. Her full blood count is within normal limits. What is the initial treatment option that is suitable for managing her heavy bleeding and pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid

      Explanation:

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of more than 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. Prior to the 1990s, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has since shifted.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women, and a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged if symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality. If contraception is not required, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. A flowchart can be used to guide the management of menorrhagia.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of painful periods and deep pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of painful periods and deep pain during intercourse. She has previously been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced lower abdominal pain. She is concerned about the impact of the pain on her desire to start a family. What is the recommended course of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      If a woman experiences both deep dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, it is probable that she has endometriosis. However, if she is trying to conceive, she cannot use initial treatment options like the combined pill. To confirm the diagnosis, a laparoscopy is the preferred method. A pelvic ultrasound is not the most effective way to diagnose endometriosis and may not show any abnormalities in cases of mild to moderate disease.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

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  • Question 27 - A 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria, malaise, vaginal pain, fever, and myalgia....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria, malaise, vaginal pain, fever, and myalgia. During a vaginal examination, several painful ulcerations are discovered around the vagina and perineum. Urinalysis shows trace leukocytes, no nitrites, and microscopic haematuria. Swabs are taken and sent for testing, and a urine MCS is also sent. What is the most suitable treatment for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valaciclovir twice daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing genital ulcers and systemic symptoms due to a primary herpes simplex genital infection, which commonly causes painful ulcers. While waiting for swab results, treatment should be initiated with an antiviral such as valaciclovir for a longer course in an initial infection.

      If a simple urinary tract infection is suspected, trimethoprim for 3 days may be appropriate. However, dysuria and trace leukocytes can also be indicative of primary herpes simplex infection.

      Valaciclovir is the correct treatment for this patient, but a 3-day course is insufficient for a primary infection and would be more appropriate for a recurrence of genital herpes.

      If lymphogranuloma venereum is suspected, doxycycline daily for 7 days may be appropriate. However, this is less likely in this case as it typically leads to painless ulceration and is uncommon.

      If a complicated urinary tract infection is suspected, trimethoprim for 7 days may be appropriate. However, given the presence of painful ulceration, herpes infection is the most likely cause regardless of urinalysis results and dysuria.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

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  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also reported as normal. However, a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary while the right ovary and uterus appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.

      When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.

      For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.

      Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.

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  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing unusual...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing unusual lower back pain for the last couple of months. After an x-ray of her lumbar spine, it was suggested that she may have spinal metastases, but there is no indication of a primary tumor. She was sent for a series of tumor marker tests and referred to an oncologist. Which of the following is most commonly linked to elevated levels of CA 15-3?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Breast cancers can be detected by the presence of the tumour marker CA 15-3.

      Understanding Tumour Markers

      Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be present in people without cancer.

      Monoclonal antibodies are a type of tumour marker that target specific carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens. Some examples of monoclonal antibodies and their associated cancers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer.

      Tumour antigens are another type of tumour marker that are produced by cancer cells. Examples of tumour antigens and their associated cancers include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, S-100 for melanoma and schwannomas, and bombesin for small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer, and neuroblastoma.

      Understanding tumour markers and their associations with different types of cancer can aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. However, it is important to interpret tumour marker results in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.

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  • Question 30 - Which one of the following statements regarding inguinal hernias is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding inguinal hernias is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients should be referred promptly due to the risk of strangulation

      Explanation:

      Strangulation of inguinal hernias is a rare occurrence.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

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