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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of low back pain...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of low back pain that has been gradually worsening for the past 14 days. He reports that the pain is worse in the evening after a long day at work and improves with rest, but it wakes him up at night. He denies any history of trauma and has been taking paracetamol to manage the pain. What is the most likely feature in his history to indicate severe underlying pathology such as spinal fracture or cancer?

      Your Answer: Pain that disturbs sleep

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags for Spinal Malignancy: Understanding the Clinical Picture

      When evaluating a patient with back pain, it is important to consider red flags that may indicate an underlying pathology, such as spinal malignancy. However, it is crucial to understand that suspicion should not be based on a single red flag, but on the overall clinical picture, including the patient’s medical history and risk factors.

      One red flag is aching night-time pain that disturbs sleep, which may suggest spinal malignancy. Another is sudden severe central spinal pain that is relieved by lying down, which may indicate spinal fracture. However, nonspecific lower back pain that varies with posture and is exacerbated by movement is more likely to be a diagnosis for most patients.

      Age is also a factor, as new onset of back pain in those over 50 years old is a risk factor for cancer. However, for patients under 50 years old, this is not the most likely indicator of an underlying pathology. Additionally, thoracic pain is more concerning for spinal malignancy and aortic aneurysm, while lower back pain is less specific.

      In summary, identifying red flags for spinal malignancy requires a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s clinical picture, including their medical history and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      29.6
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
      Haemoglobin
      125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
      White blood cell count (WCC)
      19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      Neutrophil
      14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
      Platelets
      498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.

      However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.

      In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A mother brings in her four-week-old baby for review. She has noticed that...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her four-week-old baby for review. She has noticed that the baby's eyes have been watering a lot over the last few days. She describes clear fluid running out of both eyes. The baby was born at term by vaginal delivery and is doing well. On examination, the baby's sclerae are white, corneas are clear, and red reflex is present bilaterally. The conjunctiva is not inflamed and there is no purulent discharge.

      What is the most probable reason for the baby's watery eyes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed development of the nasolacrimal ducts

      Explanation:

      Babies often experience watery eyes due to the delayed development of their nasolacrimal ducts. This typically occurs 1-2 weeks after birth when tear production begins. Instead of draining properly, tears overflow and run out of the eye. Fortunately, this condition usually resolves by the time the baby reaches 12 months of age. Massaging the side of the nose gently can help to open the nasolacrimal duct. It is rare for babies to experience allergic conjunctivitis, which would involve inflammation of the conjunctiva. Watery eyes are not a symptom of amblyopia, although squinting is common in young babies and should be monitored until it resolves by 4 months of age. Ophthalmia neonatorum, on the other hand, causes severe conjunctivitis with eyelid swelling and purulent discharge.

      Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that causes persistent watery eyes in infants. It occurs when there is an imperforate membrane, usually at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. This condition affects around 1 in 10 infants, with symptoms typically appearing at around one month of age.

      Fortunately, nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be managed with simple techniques. Parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct, which can help to alleviate symptoms. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve on their own by the time the child reaches one year of age.

      However, in cases where symptoms persist beyond this point, it may be necessary to seek further medical intervention. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child to an ophthalmologist for consideration of probing. This procedure is typically done under a light general anaesthetic and can help to resolve any remaining issues with the nasolacrimal duct.

      Overall, while nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be concerning for parents, it is a manageable condition that typically resolves on its own. By understanding the causes and treatment options for this condition, parents can help to ensure their child’s eyes stay healthy and comfortable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.

      In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.

      In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old man has pain on the underside of his right heel that...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man has pain on the underside of his right heel that is worse when he takes his first few steps of the day. He is locally tender just in front of the calcaneum on the medial side of the foot. Attempting to stand on his toes reproduces the pain.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plantar fasciitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Plantar Fasciitis from Other Foot Conditions

      Plantar fasciitis is a common foot condition that causes pain and inflammation in the connective tissue on the sole of the foot. It is often caused by overuse of the arch tendon or plantar fascia. The pain is typically felt near the heel, where stress is greatest and the fascia is thinnest. While an X-ray is not necessary for diagnosis, it may be used to rule out other conditions. Treatment options include rest, pain relief, arch supports, physiotherapy, and corticosteroid injections. Most people experience improvement within a year. It is important to distinguish plantar fasciitis from other foot conditions, such as Achilles tendinitis, Morton’s neuroma, stress fractures of the calcaneum, and tarsal tunnel syndrome, which have different symptoms and require different treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 6 - A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They report that she has been experiencing a runny nose and cough for the past few days and has been more irritable than usual. The baby was born at full term and has no significant medical history.

      According to the parents, the baby has been refusing to eat but is managing to drink with encouragement. Upon examination, the baby's temperature is 37.7°C, and there are no signs of chest wall recession, nasal flaring, or grunting. The respiratory rate is 48/minute, and auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high-pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 97% in room air.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with paracetamol PRN and simple advice on symptom control

      Explanation:

      Managing Bronchiolitis in Babies

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in babies that can usually be managed in the community. However, certain factors indicate more severe disease and require immediate hospital admission. These include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, high respiratory rate, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and persistent low oxygen saturation. Babies under 3 months of age and those born prematurely should be closely monitored and may require admission at a lower threshold.

      In cases where there are no worrying features, community treatment is appropriate. Parents should be given advice on how to recognize deterioration and where to seek review if necessary. There is no specific treatment for bronchiolitis that can be managed in the community. Trials have shown that antibiotics, oral steroids, inhaled beta2 agonists, and nebulized ipratropium do not provide significant benefits in normal immunocompetent patients with bronchiolitis. Therefore, these treatments are not routinely recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of distorted and blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of distorted and blurred vision. Upon further examination, it is determined that he has wet age-related macular degeneration affecting the fovea. What treatment options are recommended for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ranibizumab (Lucentis)

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Age-Related Macular Degeneration

      The National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends Ranibizumab (Lucentis) as a treatment for certain types of vascular age-related macular degeneration. This treatment involves monthly intravitreal injections for the first three months, followed by monthly monitoring. While this treatment works for one-third of patients, most people maintain their vision.

      For dry age-related macular degeneration, psychological support and low vision rehabilitation are recommended. Laser photocoagulation is not an option due to the risk of severe visual loss from laser damage. Smoking cessation is advised, but it is not a treatment.

      High-dose vitamin and mineral supplements can slow progression, but they consist of vitamin C, vitamin E, beta-carotene (vitamin A), zinc oxide, and cupric oxide. It is important to note that vitamin D is not included in this treatment.

      In summary, there are various treatment options available for age-related macular degeneration, depending on the type and severity of the condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with a red eye. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with a red eye. She complains of gradual onset of one-sided redness with severe, boring pain that radiates to her forehead. The pain worsens with eye movements and disrupts her sleep. She also experiences watering of the eye and sensitivity to light, but her vision is unaffected. She has no prior history of this condition and is generally healthy. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but her left eye shows diffuse redness and tenderness. Both pupils react normally. What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Same day specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      The patient has red eye and a working diagnosis of scleritis, which requires a same day specialist assessment. Features of serious causes of red eye include moderate to severe eye pain or photophobia, marked redness of one eye, and reduced visual acuity. Oral cetirizine may be useful in allergic conjunctivitis, while chloramphenicol drops are used in severe infective conjunctivitis. Fusidic acid drops are an alternative treatment option for infective conjunctivitis. Episcleritis is a possible differential diagnosis but is unlikely due to the patient’s severe pain.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.

      Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old gentleman comes to see you for the result of his x...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old gentleman comes to see you for the result of his x ray. He was seen by a colleague two weeks ago with knee pain and was referred for plain films of his right knee.

      The x ray report states: 'loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis and subchondral cyst formation'.

      What is the underlying cause of his knee pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Radiological Features of Joint Diseases

      Osteoarthritis is a joint disease that can be identified through four core features on plain x-ray examination. These features include loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cyst formation. All of these features are present on the x-ray, making osteoarthritis the correct diagnosis.

      Chondrocalcinosis, on the other hand, is characterized by calcium deposition in structures such as the cartilage. In gout, x-rays may only show soft tissue swelling, but chronic inflammation can lead to punched out lesions in juxta-articular bone. Late-stage gout is characterized by tophi formation and joint space narrowing.

      In rheumatoid arthritis, plain films can show soft tissue swelling, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and loss of joint space. As the disease progresses, the destructive nature of the disease can lead to bony erosions, subluxation, and massive deformity. Septic arthritis, an infective process, can be identified through early plain film radiographic findings of soft tissue swelling around the joint and a widened joint space from joint effusion. With the progression of the disease, joint space narrowing can occur as articular cartilage is destroyed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
      She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
      Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation

      Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.

      Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.

      Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 11 - A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with bothersome vasomotor symptoms. She is experiencing frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with bothersome vasomotor symptoms. She is experiencing frequent hot flashes and is seeking relief. She is hesitant to take hormone replacement therapy but is open to trying other medications. What options are supported by evidence for the management of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants for Vasomotor Symptoms

      Antidepressants in the SSRI and SNRI classes have been found to reduce vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes and night sweats, in studies. This is thought to be due to the involvement of serotonin in the pathogenesis of these symptoms. While there is some evidence for SSRIs like fluoxetine and paroxetine, the most convincing data is for the SNRI venlafaxine at a dose of 37.5 mg twice daily. However, the studies are short, lasting only a few weeks.

      Despite their potential benefits, the main drawback of these medications is the high incidence of nausea. Patients should be monitored closely for side effects and may need to try different medications or doses to find the most effective and tolerable option. Overall, antidepressants may be a useful option for women experiencing vasomotor symptoms, but careful consideration of the risks and benefits is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of left eye pain that has lasted for 10 hours. She mistakenly left her contact lenses in overnight and woke up with severe pain, sensitivity to light, and blurry vision. What is the most suitable treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levofloxacin 5mg/ml eye drops

      Explanation:

      Levofloxacin for Contact Lens Keratitis

      Levofloxacin is a type of fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is effective against gram negative bacteria. This makes it a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis, which is commonly caused by the gram negative bacteria pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is important to note that Chloramphenicol is not effective against this type of bacteria, so it should not be used as a treatment option.

      While dexamethasone may be used in conjunction with other treatments, it is not typically used as a standalone treatment for contact lens associated keratitis. Fusidic acid is more commonly used to treat staphylococcal infections, while propamidine isethionate is reserved for the rare form of contact lens keratitis caused by acanthamoeba.

      In summary, levofloxacin is a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis caused by gram negative bacteria such as pseudomonas aeruginosa. Other treatment options may be used in conjunction with levofloxacin, but it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the specific type of bacteria causing the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 13 - As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions...

    Incorrect

    • As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions is not advised for individuals with subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behavioural couples therapy

      Explanation:

      NICE’s recommendation for behavioural couples therapy is limited to patients with moderate or severe depression.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father. They visited three weeks ago because the baby was experiencing vomiting and regurgitation after feeds. They were given alginate suspension at the time but this has not helped. Today, the baby is still experiencing troublesome symptoms and is now refusing feeds.

      What would be the next appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-week trial of omeprazole suspension

      Explanation:

      If an infant with GORD is experiencing troublesome symptoms even after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor. This is in line with NICE guidelines.

      Opting for a 2-week trial of omeprazole is not advisable as it may not be sufficient to alleviate the symptoms.

      Continuing with alginate suspension alone is not appropriate as the symptoms have worsened since starting the treatment.

      Ranitidine is no longer recommended due to the presence of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NMDA) in formulations from multiple manufacturers. Nitrosamines, which are carcinogens commonly found in smoked fish, are linked to high rates of oesophageal and gastric cancer in East Asian countries.

      If metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is used, it should be done so with caution and under the supervision of a specialist.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 15 - A 63-year-old woman complains of abdominal discomfort, bloating, and a change in bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of abdominal discomfort, bloating, and a change in bowel habit with looser, more frequent stools. She has been experiencing these symptoms since her husband passed away 3 months ago. Her daughter believes she may have irritable bowel syndrome and is seeking treatment. What is the recommended course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 week referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      This woman has exhibited a concerning symptom of experiencing loose stools for over 6 weeks, which is a red flag indicator. Given her age of over 60 years, it is important to discuss the potential of an underlying cancer and refer her to secondary care for further testing within 2 weeks to rule out the possibility of bowel cancer.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations...

    Incorrect

    • When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.

      The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements about warfarin is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about warfarin is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin can be used when breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A pharmaceutical company approaches you to inquire if you would like to participate...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company approaches you to inquire if you would like to participate in a study that evaluates the efficacy of a new medication for hypertension. Upon reviewing the investigator's brochure, you notice that it outlines the method for analyzing the findings.

      What is the most suitable approach to compare the treatment and control groups for a disparity, given that the study involves a different age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's t test

      Explanation:

      Statistical Tests for Comparing Means

      Blood pressure is a continuous variable that follows a normal distribution. Therefore, the most appropriate statistical test to compare the mean blood pressures between two groups is Student’s t-test. However, this test assumes that individuals in both groups are randomly distributed. ANCOVA is another statistical test that is useful when variables such as age, sex, or race may affect the treatment effectiveness. It tests for covariance between populations. Mann-Whitney U test is suitable for non-parametric data that do not follow a normal distribution. Finally, ANOVA testing is used to assess the statistical significance of the difference between means. It is essential to choose the appropriate statistical test based on the type of data and research question to obtain accurate results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 19 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of lethargy. During a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of lethargy. During a work-up, her fasting plasma glucose level was found to be 6.3 mmol/l. The GP registrar ordered an HbA1c test to confirm the diagnosis of prediabetes. What is the most probable condition/situation that could render the test result invalid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic anaemia

      Explanation:

      HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis in certain conditions such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, and chronic kidney disease.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at a time) accompanied by a blank facial expression. He stops what he is doing during the attack and remains motionless. Several of these can occur during the day.
      Which statement correctly describes this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperventilation may precipitate an attack

      Explanation:

      Childhood Absence Epilepsy: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Childhood absence epilepsy, also known as petit mal epilepsy, is a type of generalized epilepsy that typically begins between the ages of four and seven. While the seizures associated with this condition are not usually life-threatening, they can have a significant impact on a child’s education, development, and behavior.

      Diagnosis of childhood absence epilepsy is typically made through a combination of clinical history and electroencephalogram (EEG) testing. Hyperventilation can be used to trigger an absence seizure, which is characteristic of this type of epilepsy. Neuroimaging is not typically necessary unless there is a suspicion of structural abnormalities.

      Treatment for childhood absence epilepsy typically involves medication, with sodium valproate, ethosuximide, and lamotrigine being the drugs of choice. In some cases, a combination of medications may be necessary to fully control seizures. The ketogenic diet may also be effective for some children.

      The prognosis for childhood absence epilepsy is generally good, with 80% of patients responding well to medication. However, tonic-clonic seizures may develop in up to 40% of children with this condition, and persistence of seizures is more likely in these cases. Despite the challenges associated with childhood absence epilepsy, educational attainment and behavior are typically not affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have been managing in the community with palliative care who has died today. You fill out the death certificate. In which of the following circumstances would you be required to refer the case to the coroner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness

      Explanation:

      A death should be referred to the coroner if the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness, if the cause of death is unknown, if the death was violent or unnatural, if the death was sudden and unexplained, if a medical certificate is not available, if the person who died wasn’t seen by the doctor who signed the medical certificate within 28 days before death or after they died, if the death occurred during an operation or before the person came out of anaesthetic, or if the medical certificate suggests the death may have been caused by an industrial disease or industrial poisoning.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 22 - An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns about his hallucinations. The wife reports that he frequently sees cats wandering around the house despite never having a pet cat. Apart from this, he is in good health with no other complaints and doesn't appear to be bothered by the visions. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and cataracts and consumes around 20 units of alcohol per week.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Charles-Bonnet syndrome typically have full awareness of their condition despite experiencing ongoing and intricate visual or auditory hallucinations.

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of severe right flank pain that radiates to his groin and vomiting. He has no medical history. During examination, his heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/79 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5 °C. He is well hydrated. A urine dipstick shows microscopic haematuria but nothing else. The doctor suspects renal colic. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Management of the patient from home

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Colic at Home

      When managing a patient with renal colic at home, it is important to ensure that there are no urgent indications for admission, such as signs of sepsis or dehydration. If the patient is well hydrated and responding to analgesia, home treatment may be appropriate. However, urgent renal imaging should be arranged within 24 hours to confirm the diagnosis. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be offered as the first-line analgesic, but if contraindicated, intravenous paracetamol or opioid analgesia can be considered. Antibiotics are not necessary in the absence of infection, and prophylactic use should be avoided. It is important to monitor the patient’s symptoms and seek urgent medical attention if there is any deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 24 - A GP is concerned about the number of cases of hypertension he is...

    Incorrect

    • A GP is concerned about the number of cases of hypertension he is seeing in his practice. He conducts a search of the practice records to investigate further. In the practice population of 15000 patients, he identifies 200 patients with a diagnosis of hypertension, with 20 of those diagnosed between 1st January 2021 and 31st December 2021. He also notes four deaths in the past year with hypertension named on part one of the death certificate.

      What was the incidence of hypertension for the year 2021 in this GP practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 43 per 100,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of cirrhosis in the practice population is 43 per 100,000, as there were 6 new cases in the year out of a total population of 14,000. The proportion of patients with cirrhosis who received the diagnosis within the last year is 0.075, or 6 out of 80 patients. The prevalence of cirrhosis in the practice population is 0.00571, or 80 out of 14,000 patients.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 25 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the general practice surgery for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the general practice surgery for his routine 4-week health check. He was born at full term and seems very well. His mother is anxious, as she has two other children with learning disabilities.
      Which of the following examination findings is most likely to help reassure the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of a sacral dimple

      Explanation:

      A sacral dimple, which may be present from birth, is usually harmless but can sometimes indicate spina bifida, a neural tube defect that can cause mobility or continence issues and learning disabilities. A family history of spina bifida increases the risk. An absent red reflex in a baby’s pupil may indicate a congenital cataract or retinoblastoma, but neither condition is known to cause learning disabilities. A head circumference between the 25th and 50th centiles is within the normal range and is reassuring, but serial measurements may reveal issues such as hydrocephalus. A positive Moro reflex at the 6-week check is normal, but persistent primitive reflexes beyond their expected timescales could indicate neurological issues such as cerebral palsy. Positive Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres indicate developmental dysplasia of the hip, which is not associated with learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

    On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

      On examination, he is hypotensive, has an elevated JVP which rises on inspiration, (Kussmaul's sign) and has a 'knock' on auscultation of the heart.

      Past history of note includes TB which was treated with aggressive quadruple therapy some three years ago.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Paradoxical JVP Rise in Pericardial Effusion

      Pericardial effusion, which may be infective as a result of previous tuberculosis, can cause a paradoxical rise in the jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. This is in contrast to the typical fall in JVP seen with inspiration. Treatment for pericardial effusion depends on the underlying cause, with an echocardiogram being the crucial initial investigation. If the effusion is particularly large and causing haemodynamic compromise, it may need to be tapped. Additionally, re-treatment with anti-tuberculous therapy is necessary. Proper diagnosis and management of pericardial effusion are essential to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 27 - The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the potential impact on their child's overall health. They have heard that autism may be associated with various medical issues. Which of the following characteristics is not more prevalent in a child with autism than in the general population? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Common Co-Occurring Conditions in Children with Autism

      Children with autism often experience co-occurring conditions that can impact their overall health and well-being. While some parents have reported success with a gluten-free diet for their child’s autism symptoms, there is no solid evidence to support this approach. Additionally, children with autism may also have ADHD, epilepsy, and sensory impairments such as hearing or vision impairment. It’s important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these potential co-occurring conditions and work with healthcare professionals to address them appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 28 - A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has suffered with infrequent bouts of abdominal bloating and loose stools on and off for years. These are usually managed with mebeverine and loperamide. The diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was a clinical one and the only investigation he has had in the past were blood tests.

      Over the last four weeks he has noticed that this has changed and that his bowels have been persistently loose and significantly more frequent than usual. He has no family history of bowel problems.

      On examination he is systemically well with no fever. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. Rectal examination reveals nothing focal. His weight is stable.

      Which of the following investigations should you offer your patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood

      Explanation:

      Investigating Acute Bowel Symptoms in a Patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      When a patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome presents with acute bowel symptoms, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. However, certain investigations may not be appropriate in this context. For example, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not helpful in investigating bowel symptoms. Similarly, CEA tumour marker testing is a specialist investigation and not suitable for primary care. Ca125 is a marker for ovarian cancer and not relevant in this scenario.

      According to NICE guidelines, testing for occult blood in faeces should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or in those under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. Stool mc+s may be requested, but it would not be helpful in risk stratifying the patient for urgent referral for colorectal cancer if an infective aetiology is not suspected. Therefore, it is important to choose appropriate investigations based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.

      Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.

      It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man who is a type II diabetic presents to his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who is a type II diabetic presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about persistent premature ejaculation. He also reports occasional erectile dysfunction. The only medication he takes is metformin. His recent glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) result is 72 mmol/l (normal: 48 mmol/l).
      What is the most appropriate medication alteration required to improve this man’s symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Premature Ejaculation and Erectile Dysfunction in Diabetic Patients

      Premature ejaculation affects a small percentage of men, while over 50% of diabetic men experience erectile dysfunction. When both conditions are present, it is recommended to treat erectile dysfunction first with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor like sildenafil. This medication prevents the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), leading to smooth-muscle relaxation and increased blood flow to the penis for an erection. There is no conclusive evidence that reducing HbA1c levels improves erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide is not the most suitable medication for improving symptoms. Citalopram, an off-licence selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI), can treat premature ejaculation but should not be used when erectile dysfunction is present. Dapoxetine is the initial treatment for isolated premature ejaculation in those under 65. Stopping metformin is not recommended as it is not a known cause of premature ejaculation and may still be necessary for diabetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
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