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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man complains of abdominal pain indicative of mesenteric ischaemia and is rushed to the operating room for an urgent laparotomy. During the procedure, it is discovered that the affected portion of the bowel extends from the splenic flexure of the colon to the rectum. Can you determine the vertebral level at which the obstructed artery branches off from the aorta?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The hindgut, which is a segment of the gut, receives its blood supply from the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery originates from the aorta at the L3 vertebrae.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22.3
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old male with an indirect inguinal hernia is scheduled for laparoscopic inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with an indirect inguinal hernia is scheduled for laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. While performing the laparoscopy, the surgeon comes across various structures surrounding the inguinal canal. What is the structure that creates the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique

      Explanation:

      The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the anterior boundaries of the inguinal canal. In males, the inguinal canal serves as the pathway for the testes to descend from the abdominal wall into the scrotum.

      To remember the boundaries of the inguinal canal, the mnemonic MALT: 2Ms, 2As, 2Ls, 2Ts can be used. Starting from superior and moving around in order to posterior, the order can be remembered using the mnemonic SALT (superior, anterior, lower (floor), posterior).

      The superior wall (roof) is formed by the internal oblique muscle and transverse abdominis muscle. The anterior wall is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique and aponeurosis of the internal oblique. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament. The posterior wall is formed by the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendon.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      77.3
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. However, his faecal calprotectin was slightly elevated, but not high enough to raise suspicion of inflammatory bowel disease.

      He had initially presented with abdominal pain and diarrhoea, along with feelings of discomfort and bloating that were relieved upon defecation. He denied any presence of blood in his stool. You prescribed psyllium husk and scheduled a review in four weeks. He has a medical history of low back pain, migraine, and depression.

      Today, his faecal calprotectin has returned to normal levels. What is the most likely cause of the initial abnormal test result?

      Your Answer: Use of methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Use of NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome (MWS) is characterized by a rupture in the mucous membrane at the junction of the stomach and oesophagus.

      Faecal Calprotectin: A Screening Tool for Intestinal Inflammation

      Faecal calprotectin is a recommended screening tool for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) by NICE. It is a test that detects intestinal inflammation and can also be used to monitor the response to treatment in IBD patients. The test has a high sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 96% for IBD in adults. However, in children, the specificity falls to around 75%.

      Apart from IBD, other conditions that can cause a raised faecal calprotectin include bowel malignancy, coeliac disease, infectious colitis, and the use of NSAIDs. Therefore, faecal calprotectin is a useful diagnostic tool for detecting intestinal inflammation and can aid in the diagnosis and management of various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - What is the most frequent type of tumor found in the colon? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent type of tumor found in the colon?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinomas are frequently occurring and usually develop due to the sequence of adenoma leading to carcinoma.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.2
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening acid reflux, despite receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening acid reflux, despite receiving aggressive treatment. He reports feeling like he has lost weight and has a medical history of duodenal ulcers. During his last endoscopy, Barrett's oesophagus was detected. Which type of cancer is most commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for developing oesophageal adenocarcinoma, one of the two types of oesophageal carcinomas in the UK, is Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition occurs when chronic acid exposure causes a metaplastic change from squamous epithelium to gastric columnar epithelium in the lower end of the oesophagus, increasing the risk of developing adenocarcinoma.

      Duodenal adenocarcinoma, a relatively rare cancer of the gastrointestinal tract, is often caused by genetic conditions such as HNCCP/Lynch syndrome and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), as well as Crohn’s disease. Patients with this type of cancer typically experience abdominal pain, reflux, and weight loss due to the malignancy obstructing the flow of digested chyme from the stomach to the jejunum.

      Gastric malignancy, the most common type of which is adenocarcinoma, is not associated with Barrett’s oesophagus. Symptoms of gastric cancer include heartburn, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and early satiety, and the most significant risk factor is H. pylori infection.

      Oesophageal leiomyoma, a benign tumour, is not linked to Barrett’s oesophagus. Patients may experience reflux if the mass enlarges, but the most common symptoms are retrosternal discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Squamous cell carcinoma, the other type of oesophageal malignancy, is associated with smoking and alcohol and tends to occur in the upper oesophagus. Unlike adenocarcinoma, weight loss is usually an early symptom of this type of cancer.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for a routine checkup. During the appointment, he inquires about the underlying cause of his condition. Which gene variations have been associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: PKU

      Correct Answer: NOD-2

      Explanation:

      The development of Crohn’s disease is connected to a genetic abnormality in the NOD-2 gene.

      Phenylketonuria is linked to the PKU mutation.

      Cystic fibrosis is associated with the CFTR mutation.

      Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is connected to the COL1A1 mutation.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old patient comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, sluggish...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old patient comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, sluggish and having difficulty concentrating at work lately. He appears pale and his hands feel cool to the touch. He reports being a non-smoker, drinking very little and adopting a vegan diet last year. What could be the reason for this patient's development of anaemia?

      Your Answer: Fe3+ is insoluble and must be converted into Fe2+ before it is absorbed

      Explanation:

      Iron is absorbed from food in two forms: haem iron (found in meat) and non-haem iron (found in green vegetables). Haem iron is easier to absorb than non-haem iron. Non-haem iron is mostly in the form of insoluble ferric (Fe3+) iron, which needs to be converted to soluble ferrous (Fe2+) iron before it can be absorbed by the body. However, the amount of iron absorbed this way is often not enough to meet the body’s needs. Vegetarians and vegans are at higher risk of iron deficiency anaemia (IDA) because they consume less haem iron.

      The patient’s symptoms suggest IDA caused by a change in diet, rather than anaemia of chronic disease. Ferritin is a marker of iron stores and is reduced in IDA. Hepcidin is a hormone that regulates iron storage in the body. Low serum hepcidin levels are seen in IDA, but this is not a reliable marker of the condition. Transferrin is a protein that binds to iron in the blood. In IDA, transferrin levels are high and ferritin levels are low. Transferrin saturation is low in IDA and anaemia of chronic disease, but high in haemochromatosis. Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is normal or high in IDA, but low in anaemia of chronic disease due to increased iron storage in cells and limited release into the blood.

      Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body

      Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it for later use. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 ”g/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 ”g/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be synthesized in larger quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.

      There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of patients) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of patients). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (which can occur after repeated transfusions).

      On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can be an indication of iron deficiency anemia. Since iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state. It is important to note that the best test for determining iron overload is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - Is the presence of liver metastases necessary for the development of carcinoid syndrome?...

    Incorrect

    • Is the presence of liver metastases necessary for the development of carcinoid syndrome?

      The following are true of carcinoid tumours except:

      - When present in the appendix tip and measure less than 2 cm have an excellent prognosis (33%)
      - Even when metastatic disease is present it tends to follow a protracted course (26%)
      - When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present (17%)
      - May be imaged using 5 HIAA radionucleotide scanning (12%)
      - Advanced appendiceal carcinoids may require right hemicolectomy (12%)

      Rule of thirds:

      - 1/3 multiple
      - 1/3 small bowel
      - 1/3 metastasize
      - 1/3 second tumour

      Important for me:

      Less important:

      Your Answer: Even when metastatic disease is present it tends to follow a protracted course

      Correct Answer: When present in the appendix body tend to present with carcinoid syndrome even when liver metastases are not present

      Explanation:

      The presence of liver metastases is a requirement for the occurrence of carcinoid syndrome. The liver is divided into thirds, with one-third dedicated to multiple tumors, one-third to small bowel involvement, and one-third to metastasis or the development of a secondary tumor.

      Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.

      To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old girl with Down Syndrome is brought to the pediatrician by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl with Down Syndrome is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has been complaining of intermittent abdominal pain for the past few months. During the physical examination, the doctor finds a soft, non-tender abdomen. Additionally, the girl has been experiencing episodes of diarrhea and has a vesicular rash on her leg.

      Hemoglobin: 120 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 75 fL (normal range: 78-100 fL)
      Platelet count: 320 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      White Blood Cell count (WBC): 9.8 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the underlying pathophysiological cause of this girl's anemia?

      Your Answer: Villous atrophy occurring secondary to viral gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Villous atrophy affecting the distal duodenum

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease leads to malabsorption as a result of villous atrophy in the distal duodenum. This case exhibits typical symptoms of coeliac disease, including iron deficiency anaemia, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea. The presence of a vesicular rash on the skin indicates dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin manifestation of coeliac disease. The patient’s Down syndrome also increases the risk of developing this condition. Macrophages invading the intestinal wall is an incorrect answer as lymphocytic infiltration is involved in the pathogenesis of coeliac disease. Pancreatic insufficiency is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically causes malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins and Vitamin B12, which is not evident in this case. Villous atrophy affecting the proximal colon is also incorrect as the small intestine is responsible for nutrient absorption in the body.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea. During colonoscopy, a diffusely red and friable mucosa was observed in the rectum and sigmoid colon, while the mucosa was normal in the proximal region. Over time, the disease progressed to involve most of the colon, except for the ileum. After several years, a colonic biopsy revealed high grade epithelial dysplasia. What was the probable initial diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis advances from the distal to proximal regions in a progressive manner, leading to dysplastic changes over time. These endoscopic observations necessitate frequent endoscopic monitoring, and if a colonic mass is present, a pancproctocolectomy is typically recommended.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of mucous passage and diarrhea, leading to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of mucous passage and diarrhea, leading to a suspicion of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this disease?

      Your Answer: Disease sparing the anal canal

      Correct Answer: Episodes of large bowel obstruction during acute attacks

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is associated with a higher risk of colorectal cancer compared to the general population, particularly if the disease has been present for over 20 years. Granulomas are a common feature of Crohn’s disease. The disease typically affects the rectum and can spread upwards, and contact bleeding may occur. In cases of longstanding ulcerative colitis, there may be crypt atrophy and metaplasia/dysplasia.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled for open surgical repair. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a mesh to reinforce the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. What structures will be located behind the mesh?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the transversalis fascia, the conjoint tendon, and the deep inguinal ring located laterally. The superior wall (roof) is made up of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles, while the anterior wall consists of the aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her father. She has lost...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her father. She has lost 10kg in the last 2 months. Recently, her father found her vomiting in the bathroom. The girl admits to struggling with her self-esteem and body image, and has been inducing vomiting after meals. She feels anxious in social situations. During the examination, you observe swelling above the angle of the mandible, indicating parotid gland enlargement. Which nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the glossopharyngeal nerve, which is the ninth cranial nerve. It provides parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland and carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, pharyngeal wall, tonsils, middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle. It also supplies baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus.

      The facial nerve, the seventh cranial nerve, supplies the muscles of facial expression, taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and sensation from parts of the external acoustic meatus, auricle, and retro-auricular area. It also provides parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland, nasal glands, and lacrimal glands.

      The hypoglossal nerve, the twelfth cranial nerve, supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all but one of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue.

      The greater auricular nerve is a superficial cutaneous branch of the cervical plexus that supplies sensation to the capsule of the parotid gland, skin overlying the gland, and skin over the mastoid process and outer ear.

      The mandibular nerve, the third division of the trigeminal nerve, carries sensory and motor fibers. It carries sensation from the lower lip, lower teeth and gingivae, chin, and jaw. It also supplies motor innervation to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, the anterior belly of digastric, tensor veli palatini, and tensor tympani.

      The patient in the question has sialadenosis, a benign, non-inflammatory enlargement of a salivary gland, in the parotid glands, which can be caused by bulimia nervosa.

      The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with consistent PR bleeding is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What is the primary medication used to induce remission of this condition?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      To induce remission of Crohn’s disease, glucocorticoids (whether oral, topical or intravenous) are typically the first line of treatment. 5-ASA drugs are considered a second option for inducing remission of IBD. Azathioprine is more commonly used for maintaining remission. Steroids are specifically used to induce remission of Crohn’s disease. Infliximab is particularly effective for treating refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s.

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her COPD. She informs the healthcare provider that she has quit smoking, resulting in fewer COPD exacerbations, none of which required hospitalization. However, she has observed a slight increase in her weight and swelling in her ankles.

      During the physical examination, the patient's weight is noted to be 76kg, up from her previous weight of 72kg. The healthcare provider listens to her heart and lungs and detects normal breath and heart sounds. The patient has bilateral edema that extends up to her mid-calves.

      What other examination findings may be evident, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they have developed cor pulmonale due to COPD, resulting in right-sided heart failure. On examination, signs of fluid congestion such as peripheral edema, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), ascites, and hepatomegaly may be present. Therefore, the most likely finding would be an enlarged liver with a firm, smooth, tender, and pulsatile edge.

      Caput medusae, which refers to the swelling of superficial veins in the epigastric area, is unlikely to occur in a new presentation of cor pulmonale.

      Narrow pulse pressure is a characteristic of aortic stenosis, which causes left ventricular dysfunction. However, this patient only shows signs of right-sided heart failure.

      A palpable thrill, which indicates turbulent flow across a heart valve, may be felt in severe valvular disease that causes left ventricular dysfunction. Murmurs are often present in valvular disease, but not in this patient’s case.

      Reverse splitting of the second heart sound may occur in aortic stenosis or left bundle branch block, which can cause left ventricular dysfunction.

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - Which symptom is the least common in individuals with pancreatic cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which symptom is the least common in individuals with pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer: Weight loss

      Correct Answer: Hyperamylasaemia

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea for the past 6 months. During gastroscopy, a gastrinoma is discovered in the antrum of his stomach. What is the purpose of the hormone produced by this tumor?

      Your Answer: It inhibits HCL production and reduces gastric motility

      Correct Answer: It increases HCL production and increases gastric motility

      Explanation:

      A tumor that secretes gastrin is known as a gastrinoma, which leads to an increase in both gastrointestinal motility and HCL production. It should be noted that while gastrin does increase gastric motility, it does not have an effect on the secretion of pancreatic fluid. This is instead regulated by hormones such as VIP, CCK, and secretin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A 57-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of colicky pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of colicky pain in her right upper quadrant that has been occurring periodically for the past 4 months. She had her worst episode last night after eating takeout, which caused her to vomit due to the severity of the pain.

      During the examination, her temperature was found to be 37.7ÂșC, respiratory rate 14/min, blood pressure 118/75mmHg, and oxygen saturation was 98%. Her abdomen was soft and non-tender, and Murphy's sign was negative.

      What is the hormone responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Cholecystokinin (CCK) as the woman is experiencing classic symptoms of biliary colic. CCK is released in response to fatty foods in the duodenum, causing increased gallbladder contraction and resulting in biliary colic.

      Gastrin stimulates the secretion of gastric acid in response to stomach distension after a meal.

      Prostaglandin causes uterine muscles to contract, leading to the expulsion of the uterine lining during menstruation. However, the patient’s symptoms are more indicative of biliary colic than dysmenorrhea.

      Secretin decreases gastric acid secretion and increases pancreatic secretion, but it does not stimulate the gallbladder.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - Which statement about peristalsis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about peristalsis is true?

      Your Answer: Secondary peristalsis occurs when there is no food bolus in the oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food bolus through the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System

      Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.

      In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.

      Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A woman undergoes a high anterior resection for carcinoma of the upper rectum....

    Incorrect

    • A woman undergoes a high anterior resection for carcinoma of the upper rectum. Which one of the following vessels will require ligation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Anterior resection typically involves dividing the IMA, which is necessary for oncological reasons and also allows for adequate mobilization of the colon for anastomosis.

      The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.

      The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.

      The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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