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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man is being evaluated in the Emergency Department after a car...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is being evaluated in the Emergency Department after a car accident at high speed. He has several fractures in his lower limbs and a posterior dislocation of his right hip. The doctor examining him wants to determine if he has any vascular damage. He starts by checking the pulses in his limbs.
      What is accurate about arteries in the lower limbs?

      Your Answer: The dorsalis pedis artery is a terminal branch of the posterior tibial artery

      Correct Answer: The anterior tibial artery lies between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus in the anterior compartment of the leg

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lower Limb Pulse Points and Arteries

      The lower limb has several pulse points that are commonly examined. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid-inguinal point, while the popliteal artery can be felt in the popliteal fossa with the knee in semi-flexion. The posterior tibial pulse is best appreciated below the medial malleolus, and the dorsalis pedis pulse is typically palpable between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus medially and the extensor digitorum laterally on the dorsum of the foot.

      It’s important to note that the dorsalis pedis pulse is only palpable medial to the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus. Additionally, the anterior tibial artery lies on the tibia between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus in the lower anterior compartment of the leg, and the dorsalis pedis artery is a terminal branch of the anterior tibial artery.

      Lastly, the fibular (peroneal) artery is not a direct branch of the popliteal artery. Instead, it is a branch of the tibioperoneal trunk, which is a branch of the popliteal arch. Understanding these pulse points and arteries can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment of lower limb conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student is hit by a bus while cycling to university at moderate speed. He falls and lands on the curb, hitting his left ribs. There is no loss of consciousness. He is brought into the Emergency Department, complaining of left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm after morphine analgesia; his blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg and he is peripherally cold; the respiratory rate is 25 and saturations are 99% on room air. Chest X-ray reveals displaced left lower rib fractures, without other thoracic pathology.
      What diagnosis would you be most concerned about?

      Your Answer: Occult pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Splenic rupture

      Explanation:

      Assessing a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

      When evaluating a patient with blunt force trauma, it is crucial to have a good understanding of regional anatomy to assess potential damage to underlying structures. In cases where there is blunt force trauma to the left upper quadrant (LUQ) and associated tachycardia and tachypnea, suspicion of splenic rupture arises. Despite significant trauma and suspected blood loss, compensatory mechanisms such as peripheral vasoconstriction (resulting in cold peripheries) and increased cardiac output (resulting in tachycardia) may maintain an adequate blood pressure.

      The patient should be managed according to the principles of Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), including an ABCDE assessment, wide-bore intravenous access, and blood sampling for hemoglobin level and cross-matching of blood. If stable, an urgent computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis is necessary. If unstable, an emergency laparotomy is required.

      Other potential diagnoses to consider include aspiration pneumonia, cardiac tamponade (less common with blunt force trauma), early chest infection (possible in the future due to fractured ribs), and occult pneumothorax (possible due to fractured ribs, but not likely to produce significant physiological changes).

      Evaluating a Patient with Blunt Force Trauma: Suspected Splenic Rupture and Differential Diagnoses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney disease of unknown origin. He is experiencing general malaise, fatigue, and shortness of breath. His GFR has remained stable at 15 with a baseline creatinine of 385 μmol/L (and urea of 21 mmol/L) for over a year. However, recent blood work shows abnormal levels of Na, K, urea, creatinine, bicarbonate, Ca, Phos, Hb, and MCV.

      Which medication would be the most beneficial to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Alfacalcidol

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      Recommended Treatment for a Patient with CKD Stage 5

      Of the drugs listed, erythropoietin is the most appropriate for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 5 who is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath due to low hemoglobin levels. However, it is important to check the patient’s haematinics to ensure that iron, B12, or folate supplementation would not be more beneficial. Alfacalcidol is typically used to treat hyperparathyroidism, but it is not necessary for CKD stage 5 patients until their parathyroid hormone levels rise above 28 pmol/L, according to the Renal Association Guidelines. Since the patient’s bicarbonate levels are normal, oral supplementation is not required. Calcichew D3 and sevelamer are phosphate binders that prevent hyperphosphataemia, but they are not necessary for this patient. For further information, refer to the Renal Association Clinical Practice Guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 82-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is referred to the Palliative Care...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is referred to the Palliative Care team for assessment and planning of further care.
      Which of the following best describes the role of palliative care?

      Your Answer: Pain management

      Correct Answer: Symptom control

      Explanation:

      The Focus of Palliative Care: Symptom Control

      Palliative care is a specialized medical care that aims to improve the quality of life of patients with serious or life-threatening illnesses. The primary focus of palliative care is on anticipating, preventing, diagnosing, and treating symptoms experienced by patients, regardless of their diagnosis. Unlike hospice care, palliative care does not depend on prognosis.

      The goal of palliative care is to improve the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Palliative care aims to treat symptoms rather than modify the disease, and it is not focused on curative or life-prolonging care. Pain management is an important aspect of palliative care, but the control of all disease symptoms is the best answer. Overall, the focus of palliative care is on symptom control to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of back and hip...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of back and hip pain. He has been experiencing pain for a few months and has been taking paracetamol for relief. However, the pain has worsened and is now affecting his quality of life. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolaemia, which are managed with regular metformin and simvastatin. He has never been hospitalized before. Blood tests reveal normal calcium and phosphate levels, but a significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level while the other hepatic aminotransferases are normal. No other blood abnormalities are detected. What condition is most consistent with these blood test results in this patient?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Bone and Joint Pain: Paget’s Disease

      Paget’s disease is a musculoskeletal pathology that can cause bone and joint pain. This disease is often asymptomatic for many years before being diagnosed through abnormal blood tests or X-ray images. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include constant, dull bone pain, joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. Shooting pain, numbness, tingling, or loss of movement may also occur.

      Other potential causes of bone and joint pain were considered and ruled out. Primary hyperparathyroidism, osteoporosis, and osteoarthritis were all unlikely due to normal calcium, phosphate, and ALP levels. Osteomalacia, a condition caused by vitamin D deficiency, can also cause bone and joint pain, but it is accompanied by low calcium and phosphate levels and a raised ALP.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and blood test results, Paget’s disease is the most likely diagnosis for their bone and joint pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up on her blood pressure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up on her blood pressure, which has been difficult to manage despite lifestyle changes and taking a combination of ramipril and felodipine. On examination, there are no clinical indications to aid in diagnosis. The GP conducts a urinalysis, which comes back normal, and orders some blood tests. The results show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 175 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      eGFR >60 ml/min/1.73m2 >60 ml/min/1.73m2
      Based on this presentation, what is the most probable secondary cause of hypertension?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. While primary hypertension is the most common form, secondary hypertension can be caused by an underlying medical condition. Here are some of the secondary causes of hypertension:

      1. Primary Hyperaldosteronism: This is the most common form of secondary hypertension, caused by a solitary adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. It is more prevalent in patients with hypertension who are resistant to treatment.

      2. Phaeochromocytoma: This rare condition can cause severe symptoms such as headaches, sweating, abdominal pain, and palpitations associated with periods of very high blood pressure.

      3. Glomerulonephritis: Renal disease can be a potential secondary cause of hypertension, typically manifesting as haematuria or proteinuria on urinalysis. The creatinine level may rise, and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls.

      4. Diabetic Nephropathy: This condition presents with proteinuria (and likely glucose) on urinalysis. Renal disease may lead to a rise in creatinine and a fall in eGFR.

      5. Cushing Syndrome: While unlikely to cause isolated hypertension, other features of Cushing syndrome such as abdominal obesity, striae, and a round face would likely be present on examination.

      In conclusion, it is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman who gave birth a week ago presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who gave birth a week ago presents to the emergency department with concerns about vaginal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding started as bright red but has now turned brown. She is changing her pads every 3 hours and is worried about possible damage to her uterus from her recent caesarean section. On examination, she appears distressed but has no fever. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 95 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination is unremarkable except for a pink, non-tender caesarean section scar. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure, advise and discharge

      Explanation:

      The patient is discussing the bleeding that occurs during the first two weeks after giving birth, known as lochia. It is important to note that both vaginal birth and caesarian section can result in this bleeding, but caesarian section carries a higher risk of post-partum haemorrhage. Therefore, a thorough history and examination should be conducted to identify any potential issues.

      Typically, lochia begins as fresh bleeding and changes color before eventually stopping. The patient should be advised that if the bleeding becomes foul-smelling, increases in volume, or does not stop, they should seek medical attention. However, in this case, the volume of bleeding is not excessive and there are no concerning features or abnormal observations. The patient can be reassured and provided with advice regarding lochia.

      Lochia refers to the discharge that is released from the vagina after childbirth. This discharge is composed of blood, mucous, and uterine tissue. It is a normal occurrence that can last for up to six weeks following delivery. During this time, the body is working to heal and recover from the physical changes that occurred during pregnancy and childbirth. It is important for new mothers to monitor their lochia and report any unusual changes or symptoms to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Samantha, a 50-year-old woman visits your clinic complaining of menopausal symptoms. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 50-year-old woman visits your clinic complaining of menopausal symptoms. She reports experiencing mood swings, irritability, hot flashes, night sweats, and a decreased sex drive. These symptoms are affecting her daily routine and work life. Samantha has had no surgeries and has three children. A friend recommended oestrogen hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and Samantha is interested in trying it out.

      What is the primary danger of prescribing oestrogen-only HRT instead of combined HRT for Samantha?

      Your Answer: Unopposed oestrogen increases her risk of ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Unopposed oestrogen increases her risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The correct statement is that unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Combined oestrogen and progesterone HRT can reduce the risk of endometrial cancer in patients with a uterus, while patients without a uterus should be prescribed oestrogen-only HRT as combined HRT is less well tolerated. The statement that unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of breast cancer is incorrect, as both types of HRT can increase the risk of breast cancer, with combined HRT potentially increasing the risk more than oestrogen-only. Additionally, the statement that unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of heart disease is incorrect, as oestrogen has a protective role in inhibiting the development of atherosclerosis, which can reduce the risk of heart disease. Finally, the statement that unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of osteoporosis is also incorrect, as HRT can be prescribed to prevent or treat osteoporosis in some patients and can reduce the risk of fracture instead of increasing it.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the hospital three months ago following a cholecystectomy. He was started on new medications for hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Despite feeling well, he has noticed ankle swelling and suspects it may be a side effect of one of the new medications. During examination, his blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, and his heart rate is 68/min irregularly irregular. Which medication is most likely causing this side effect?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Felodipine

      Explanation:

      Felodipine is the correct answer as it is a calcium channel blocker commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in patients over 55. One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is peripheral edema. Dihydropyridines, such as amlodipine, are more likely to cause ankle swelling as they work on calcium receptors located on the vascular smooth muscle, causing muscle relaxation and vasodilation. This leads to increased capillary pressure, fluid leakage, and ankle edema. On the other hand, non-dihydropyridines, such as verapamil, are more selective for myocardial calcium receptors, resulting in reduced cardiac contraction and heart rate.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans to start trying for a baby. Despite feeling relatively well, she has several pre-existing medical conditions. She is classified as grade 2 obese and has type 2 diabetes (which is managed with metformin), hypertension (treated with ramipril), gastro-oesophageal reflux (using ranitidine), and allergic rhinitis (taking loratadine). Additionally, she experiences back pain and takes paracetamol on a daily basis.
      Which medication should she avoid during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should avoid taking ACE inhibitors like ramipril as they can lead to fetal abnormalities and renal failure. These medications are believed to hinder the production of fetal urine, resulting in oligohydramnios, and increase the likelihood of cranial and cardiac defects. However, other drugs do not pose any known risks during pregnancy and can be continued if necessary.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Vascular (0/1) 0%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Palliative Care (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed