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Question 1
Incorrect
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You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At 5 minutes, the baby's heart rate is 120 bpm, the baby is crying vigorously with active movement in all extremities. The baby is coughing and sneezing. The body is pink but the hands and feet are slightly blue and cool to the touch. Determine the APGAR score.
Your Answer: 8
Correct Answer: 9
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall on the dry ski slope. She fell with her thumb outstretched and caught it in the matting on the slope surface.
Upon examination, the thumb is swollen and bruised, and she experiences difficulty making a pinching movement between her index finger and thumb. A palpable mass is present on the ulnar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. A plain X-ray shows no fracture or dislocation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ruptured radial collateral ligament (RCL)
Correct Answer: Ruptured ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)
Explanation:Common Hand Injuries and Diagnostic Considerations
Ruptured Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL):
The UCL provides stability to the ulnar side of the MCP joint of the thumb. Injuries typically occur from forced abduction of the thumb or repetitive abduction movements. Diagnosis is made through X-ray to rule out associated fractures and lateral stress testing. Ultrasound or MRI may be required for further evaluation. Surgical repair is necessary due to the functional importance of the UCL, although partial tears may be managed with a thumb spica splint and physiotherapy.Ruptured Radial Collateral Ligament (RCL):
The mechanism of injury is more consistent with a UCL injury, and swelling is localized to the ulnar aspect of the MCP joint.Scaphoid Fracture:
Typically caused by a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand (FOOSH), scaphoid injuries present with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain on axial compression of the thumb, tenderness over the scaphoid tubercle, or pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist.Simple Thumb Dislocation:
The thumb is bruised and swollen but not deformed. X-ray does not show any fracture or dislocation.Undisplaced Proximal Phalanx Fracture:
The X-ray shows no evidence of fracture. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated his right shoulder. X-rays showed an anterior dislocation but no fractures. The shoulder was easily reduced without complications, and post-reduction radiographs were satisfactory. At his 2-week follow-up with his general practitioner, he reports difficulty in abducting his right arm. There are no neurovascular defects, and he has full sensation and good radial pulses. What imaging modality would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT)–intravenous (iv) contrast of affected limb
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the shoulder
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging for Shoulder Injuries: MRI, Bone Scans, CT Scans, X-rays, and EMG
Shoulder injuries in patients over 40 years old are often associated with acute avulsion injuries and rotator cuff tears. These tears can be degenerative and not related to trauma. The incidence of rotator cuff tears after acute dislocation in patients over 40 years old is high. Ultrasound and MRI are the preferred diagnostic tools for rotator cuff disease.
Bone scans are not useful in this scenario, and CT scans with iv contrast may reveal bony pathology but are not necessary. Repeat shoulder X-rays are also not beneficial if the post-reduction X-rays are normal.
Axillary nerve and brachial plexus injuries can occur after acute shoulder dislocation, but EMG is not necessary if there is no sensory deficit or distal weakness. Overall, MRI is the most effective diagnostic tool for shoulder injuries in this patient population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 6-month-old girl is not gaining weight and has had repeated chest infections since birth. During examination, she appears weak and undernourished. A continuous murmur is heard most prominently under the left clavicle upon auscultation of the precordium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The conditions that can cause poor weight gain and recurrent infections have similar symptoms, but the type of murmur heard can help differentiate between them. A continuous murmur is associated with Patent ductus, while Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic murmur. The symptoms described rule out an innocent murmur, which is a normal sound heard during circulation and disappears with age. ASD’s have a fixed split S2 sound due to increased venous return overloading the right ventricle during inspiration, delaying closure of the pulmonary valve. VSD is associated with a pansystolic murmur.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A preteen visits the sexual health clinic complaining of painful urination and penile discharge. He suspects he may have contracted a sexually transmitted infection. Upon further inquiry, you discover that he is just 10 years old, despite appearing older. When you ask about his sexual partner, he refuses to provide any additional details and insists that you keep this encounter confidential from his parents and others. What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Explain why you are unable to keep it a secret and tell him you will have to inform social services and his parents
Explanation:Referral to social services for investigation is necessary as this may be a case of sexual abuse, particularly since the child involved is under 13 years old and may not have been able to give consent. As per GMC guidelines, it is recommended to share information about such sexual activity involving children under 13.
NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.
For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.
For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.
For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.
Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. During the examination, the PCP notices a lump in the center of her neck and proceeds to conduct a cardiovascular and thyroid assessment. The patient displays signs of fatigue and has a subdued mood. Her heart rate is 68 bpm and her blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg, and there is paleness in the conjunctivae. The lump is symmetrical without skin alterations, moves upward when swallowing, and has a nodular consistency.
What is the most appropriate initial test to perform for diagnostic assistance?Your Answer: Radio-isotope scan
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Thyroid Function Tests: Initial Investigation for Hypothyroidism
When a patient presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of hypothyroidism, the most appropriate initial test is thyroid function tests. However, if a neck swelling is also present, an ultrasound scan may be useful to assess for a goitre. If a cystic swelling is identified, a fine-needle aspirate sample may be taken for cytological analysis. A radio-isotope scan may also be performed to further assess thyroid pathology. While a full blood count is typically checked at the same time, it is not the best answer given the scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman who is pregnant at 37 weeks gestation develops spontaneous labour. She has a history of pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg.
Blood results are as follows:
Hb 110 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 100 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 15.0 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
The medical team decides to administer magnesium sulphate to the patient. However, shortly after receiving the medication, the patient experiences respiratory depression with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.
What is the urgent treatment required for this patient?Your Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:The patient is showing signs of severe pre-eclampsia, including high blood pressure and thrombocytopenia, and requires urgent delivery and magnesium sulphate. While magnesium sulphate is effective in preventing and treating seizures, it can also cause toxicity, which is characterized by loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing magnesium sulphate toxicity due to respiratory depression. The appropriate treatment is calcium gluconate, which is the first-line option for this condition. BiPAP and CPAP are not suitable in this situation, and intubation and ventilation should only be considered if non-invasive strategies fail.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with increasing pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain on and off for about 2 weeks, particularly during meals. However, the pain has increased significantly over the last 2 days. During examination, he is found to be febrile at 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals poor dental hygiene and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Dental abscess
Correct Answer: Left submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Left Submandibular Gland Infection
Left submandibular gland infection can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them for proper treatment. Sialolithiasis, or a submandibular gland calculus, is a common cause and presents with dull pain around the gland, worsened by mealtimes or sour foods. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes sharp tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth. Mumps parotitis affects younger patients and presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth. However, if left untreated, it can progress to Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth. Ludwig’s angina typically follows a dental infection and requires early specialist intervention to secure the airway and prevent fatal consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice?
Your Answer: McCoy
Correct Answer: Macintosh
Explanation:Types of Laryngoscopes
Laryngoscopes are medical instruments used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation. There are several types of laryngoscopes, each with its own unique features. The Miller, Oxford, and Wisconsin laryngoscopes have straight blades, while the Macintosh and McCoy laryngoscopes have curved blades. The McCoy laryngoscope is typically used for difficult intubations, as its blade tip is hinged and can be operated by a lever mechanism on the handle. Overall, the choice of laryngoscope depends on the individual patient and the specific needs of the intubation procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal pain that started suddenly 10 hours ago. The pain is at its worst 15 minutes after onset and radiates to her back. She finds some relief by sitting forward. She has also experienced nausea and vomiting but denies any diarrhea or fever. She has been on the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 4 years and drinks one glass of wine per day but denies any recreational drug use. On examination, she appears unwell, has a pulse rate of 110/min, and is tender in the epigastric region. She has a history of biliary colic but no significant past medical history or previous surgery. What diagnostic test is most likely to yield a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray
Correct Answer: Serum lipase
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis, likely caused by gallstones, can be diagnosed by checking for an elevation of more than 3 times the upper limit of normal in a serum lipase test. While chest and abdominal x-rays are not useful for diagnosing pancreatitis, they can help rule out other potential causes of abdominal pain and detect complications of pancreatitis. Full blood examination, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests do not directly aid in the diagnosis of pancreatitis but can help assess the severity of the disease or provide clues to its cause. Initial investigations to determine the cause may include an abdominal ultrasound, calcium level, and lipid profile.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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